Infosys placement question papers of previous years

I want to apply for the post in Infosys and for that I need to get the Infosys placement question papers of previous years so can you please make it available for me?

As you want to get the Infosys placement question papers of previous years so here is the information of the same for you:

1.A lady's age is between 50 and 70.each of her sons has many sons as his brothers. the sum of the sons and grandsons in the lady's age. what is her age?

2. Two persons have 64 and 20 barrels of wine. the first one pays tax 5 barrels and 40 frames. the second one pays 2 barrel and got back 40 frames. What is the value of each barrel and the tax paid on each barrel?

3. There are 20 balls of green color,20 balls of red color,20 balls of blue color,20 of balck,20 of yellow. how many u have to pick to guarantee 2pairs of same color?

5. There is a five digit number
1 It has 2 prime digits (1 is not a prime number)
2 The third digit is the highest
3 The second digit is lowest
4 The first digit is 1 less that third digit
5 The fifth is half of the fourth
6 The sum of 4-th and 5-th digit is less that first What is that no?

Directions 11-15:

Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:
(A) statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(B) statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(C) both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) each statement alone is sufficient
(E) statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question

11. How many ewes (female sheep) in a flock of 50 sheep are black?
There are 10 rams (male sheep) in the flock.
Forty percent of the animals are black.

12. Is the length of a side of equilateral triangle E less than the length of a side of square F?
The perimeter of E and the perimeter of F are equal.
The ratio of the height of triangle E to the diagonal of square F is 2√3 : 3√2.

13. If a and b are both positive, what percent of b is a?
a = 3/11
b/a = 20

14. A wheel of radius 2 meters is turning at a constant speed. How many revolutions does it make in time T?
T = 20 minutes.
The speed at which a point on the circumference of the wheel is moving is 3 meters per minute.

15. Are the integers x, y and z consecutive?
The arithmetic mean (average) of x, y and z is y.
y-x = z-y

16. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?
A) 14 km
B) 7 km
C) 2 km
D) 5 km
E) None of these

17. Nivedita stops after going 10 km towards west from her office. Then she goes 8 km turning to her left. After this she goes 4 km turning to her left. How far is she from her office?
A) 18 km
B) 8 km
C) 16 km
D) 14 km
E) None of these

18. Ranju is at a fixed point, from where she goes 20 metres towards West. From there she goes 10 metres towards Notrh. Then she goes 35 metres towards East and after this she goes 5 metres towards South and in the end she goes 15 metres towards West. How far is she from the fixed point?
A) 5 km
B) 0 km
C) 10 km
D) Can not be determined
E) None of these

19. A man walks 15m towards South from a fixed point. From there he goes 12 m towards North and then 4 m towards West. How far and in what direction is he from the fixed point?
A) 3 m, South
B) 7 m, South-West
C) 5 m, South-West
D) 5 m, South-East
E) None of these

20. Ranjan goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?
A) 4 km, West
B) 7 km, East
C) 9 km, East
D) 7 km, West
E) None of these

Directions Question 21 to24 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given it.

II.
i) Jayant, Kama, Namitha, Asha and Tanmay are five members of the family.
ii) They have their birth dates from January to May, each member in one of these months
iii) Each one likes one particular item for his/her birthday out of Bengali Sweets, Chocolates, Pastries, Ice Cream and Dry Fruits
iv) The one who likes Pastries is born in the month which is exactly middle in the months given
v) Asha does not like Ice cream but brings Chocolates for Jayant in February.
vi) Tanmay who is fond of Bengali sweets in born in the next month immediately after Namitha
vii) Namita does not like Dry fruits or Ice cream

21. What is the choice of Asha?
A) Pastries
B) Dry fruits
C) Dry fruits
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these

22. Which combination of month and item is true for Jayant?
A) March- Pastries
B) February - Pastries
C) February - Ice cream
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these

23. What is the choice of Kamal?
A) Ice Cream
B) Bengali sweets
C) Dry fruits
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these

24. In which month was Kamal born?
A) January
B) may
C) January or May
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these

25. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678, then the code for the word "MANGO" would be
A) 82357
B)84563
C)82346
D)82543

Directions 26-30 : The table below shows the unit sales of the TT950 motorcycle in six European countries over a six month period. These motorcycles are imported into each country by a main dealer. Use this information to answer the following questions.

26. What percentage of the overall total was sold to the German importer?
A) 22.0
B) 25.4
C) 25.8
D) 24.1
E) 24.6

27. What percentage of the overall total was sold in May?
A) 24.1
B) 25.6
C) 27.1
D) 17.9
E) 20.3

28.Which month showed the biggest increase in total sales from the previous month?
A) Feb
B) Mar
C) Apr
D) May
E) Jun

29.What percentage of the monthly total was sold to the biggest importer in February?
A) 24.7
B) 23.1
C) 36.5
D) 51.1
E) 15.1

30. What is the average number of units per month imported into Italy over the first four months of the year?
A) 22
B) 23
C) 24
D) 25
E) 26

English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)

Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

The Mayan Indians lived in Mexico for thousands of years before the Spanish arrived in the 1500s. The Mayan were an intelligent, culturally rich people whose achievements were many. They had farms, beautiful palaces, and cities with many buildings. The Mayan people knew a lot about nature and the world around them. This knowledge helped them to live a better life than most people of that time, because they could use it to make their lives more comfortable and rewarding. Knowledge about tools and farming, for instance, made their work easier and more productive. In ancient Mexico there were many small clearings in the forest. In each clearing was a village with fields of corn, beans, and other crops around it. To clear the land for farms, the Mayan cut down trees with stone axes. They planted seeds by digging holes in the ground with pointed sticks. A farmer was able to grow crops that produced food for several people. But not every Mayan had to be a farmer. Some were cloth makers, builders, or priests. The Mayan believed in many gods, including rain gods, sun gods, and corn gods. The people built large temples to honor the Mayan gods. Skillful workers built cities around these temples. It was difficult for them to construct these cities, because they had no horses to carry the heavy stone they used to build with. Workers had to carry all of the building materials themselves. Today, many of these ancient Mayan cities and temples are still standing. Although the cities that the Mayan built were beautiful, and the people worked hard to build them, very few of the people lived in them. Usually, only the priests lived in the cities.The other people lived in small villages in the forests. Their houses were much simpler than the elaborate structures in the cities. They lived in small huts with no windows. The walls were made of poles covered with dried mud, and the roof was made of grass or leaves. Most Maya lived a simple life close to nature. Measuring time was important to the Maya, so they developed a system for measuring it accurately. Farmers needed to know when to plant and harvest their crops. Mayan priests made a system to keep track of time. They wrote numbers as dots (...) and bars (-). A dot was one and a bar was five. The Mayan priests studied the Sun, Moon, stars, and planets. They made a calendar from what they learned. The year was divided into 18 months of 20 days each with five days left over. The Mayan calendar was far more accurate than the European calendars of the time. Around the year 800, the Maya left their villages and beautiful cities, never to return. No one knows why this happened. They may have died from an infectious disease. They may have left because the soil could no longer grow crops. Archaeologists are still trying to find the lost secrets of the Maya. They are still one of our greatest mysteries.

1. Read this sentence from the story.
The Maya were an intelligent, culturally rich people whose achievements were many. What is a synonym for the word achievements?
A) mistakes
B) successes
C) skills
D) roads

2. The Maya lived in Mexico
A) only after the Spanish arrived
B) at the same time as the Spanish
C) only for a few years
D) thousands of years before the Spanish.

3. Many Mayan cities and temples are still standing today because
A) they were so well built.
B) they are not very old.
C) they have been rebuilt.
D) there is never any bad weather in Mexico.

4. What is the main idea of this article?

A) The Mayan calendar was more accurate than the European calendar.
B) The Maya were excellent farmers.
C) The Maya were a culturally rich, advanced society.
D) The Mayan cities were difficult to build.

5. MOST Mayan lived

A) in beautiful cities.
B) in huts made of poles, mud, and leaves.
C) in caves.
D) in stone temples.

Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

The Rajputs occupy an honoured place in the history of India. They were a war-like, people, proud and patriotic. They were jealous of their honour, and would lay down their lives to uphold it. They loved their homes and fought bravely to defend the honour of their women-folk. Nothing would tame their sprits. Perils only called forth their courage and poverty only increased their power of resistance. None could fight like them. Their motto was 'Better death than dishonour'.

6. Which of the following represents the central theme of the passage?
A) The pride of the Rajputs
B) Rajputs and their sacrifices
C) The rise and fall of the Rajputs
D) Rajputs - the spritted heroes of Indian history.

7. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word 'proud in the passage'?
A) humble
B) kind
C) courteous
D) cowardly

8. The expression 'tame their spirits' in the passage means
A) suppress their ambitions
B) arouse their enthusiasm
C) develop their courage
D) curb their enthusiasm

9. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
A) The Rajputs achieved eminence in history due to their great bravery
B) They were homely people and would fight for upholding women's honour
C) In moments of danger they would exhibit great courage
D) They could not, however, face the challenge of poverty

10. According to the writer, the Rajputs occupy an honoured place in history, because
A) they were fond of wars
B) they were proud of their war
C) they were jealous of people's honour
D) they lived and died upholding their self respect.

Directions11-18 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The two sisters look so............. that it is difficult to tell one from the other
A) same
B) similar
C) identical
D) alike
E) resembling

12. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a...............selection
A) normal
B) standard
C) sample
D) moderate
E) judicious

13. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit............... from the chosen path
A) diversion
B) deviation
C) obstruction
D) alienation
E) distraction

14. His actions had..................pain and suffering on thousands of people.
A) deplored
B) eliminated
C) affected
D) inflicted
E) imposed

15. He has good...................over the famous world languages
A) authority
B) expertise
C) hold
D) command
E) knowledge

16. The lions in the Gir forest are protected as they come under ............ species.
A) dangerous
B) engendered
C) enamoured
D) endangered

17. People who have an ....... reputation are often avoided by the rest
A) unsteady
B) unsavory
C) unsafe
D) unsatisfied

18. My father was too ...........to push open the heavy door.
A) timid
B) faint
C) feeble
D) faltering.

Direction Questions 19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

mark your answer as :
A) if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage
B) if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
C) if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
D) if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and
E) if you think inference is ' definitely false' i,e , it contradicts the given facts.

Passage I
The basic thrust of the government's policy is to provide price incentives to farmers to make them produce more food. but is a price-incentive system always efficient in ensuring incremental yields? Our contention is that this incentive works only in persuading farmers to shift cultivation from one crop to another depending on which crop is more profitable at the given prices. But it would not be a sufficient condition in ensuring incremental output of all crops which is what is required.

19. This passage istaken from an article written by an expert on agricultural finance.

20. The authoris advocating for more yield of various crops.

21. The Government is not ready to increase the procurement price of crops.

22. According to the passage , the farmers are not income-conscious.

23. Recently there was an agitation by farmers for increase in procurement price of crops.

Passage II
The explosive growth in demand for castor oil abroad is bringing about a silent change in the castor seed economy of Gujarat . The state is well on its way to emerge as a strong manufacturing centre for castor oil relegating to background its current status as a big trading centre . The business prospects for export of castor oil which is converted into value added derivatives are so good that a number of castor seed crushing units have already come up and others are on the anvil.

24. Gujarat used to supply castor seeds to the manufacturing units in the pase.

25. Gujarat is the only state in India which produces castor seed.

26. manufacturing castor oil guarantees more surplus than selling castor seeds.

Direction 27-32 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'

27. He is / taller /than me / no error

A B C D
A
B
C
D

28. there is no question/ of my failing /in the examination / today. / No error

A B C D E
A
B
C
D
E

29. The audience / are requested / to be in its seats / no error

A B C D
A
B
C
D

30. Had I come / to know about his difficulties / I would have certainly helped / no error

A B C D
A
B
C
D

31. He is the general / whom the reporters agree / was most popular with the troops / no error

A B C D
A
B
C
D
E

32. He left to Bombay / this morning / for some official work / No error

A B C D
B
C
D
E

Directions 33-40 : In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'

33. It is time the six year old is learning how to read and write
A) has learned
B) learnt
C) was learning
D) No correction required

34. I am sorry , but I don't believe what you say.
A) I will not believe
B) I am not believing
C) I will not be believing
D) No correction required

35. She could not help but laugh.
A) laughing
B) laughed
C) laugh
D) No correction required

36. He never tells the truth
A) Says
B) utters
C) speaks
D) No correction required

37. Since 1986, there is no earthquakes here.
A) Have been
B) are
C) from
D) No correction required

38. Please blow up the candle
A) turn off
B) blow out
C) put off
D) No correction required

39. Practically every part of the banana tree is used by man.
A) most part
B) any part
C) each part
D) No correction required

40. Old habits die hardly.
A) die much hardly
B) die hard
C) die too hard D) No correction required

Hello sir I am B.Tech final year student of computer science branch and after some time Infosys company will visit my college campus for recruitment so please provide me the placement question papers of previous years of Infosys company.

Infosys is an IT based company so in CRT test, the paper will consist of following section.

Comprehensive Skill
Aptitude test
Reasoning Test
Computer test
Technical test

The candidate must secure the cut off marks in each section to go for the further round.

So you should prepared yourself accordingly but for this the book of R.S. Agarwal is more than enough.

Placement question papers of previous years
1) APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. No negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning 30 questions: 40 minutes)

English section: (40 questions : 35 minutes)

Analytical reasoning


1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?

Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.


2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap. At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?


Ans: 25.


3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.

Ans: 25296.


4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?

Ans: 60 kmph


5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth. You are given a conversation.

Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil

Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill

what day is today?


Ans: Today is Tuesday


Directions 6:10 in each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Answers 6-10


6) E 7) C 8) B 9) E 10) D


Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:

(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question


(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question


(C) Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient

(D) Each statement alone is sufficient

(E) Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question


11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?


x + y = 20

x = y²

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: C


12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5 years experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more than 5 years experience?


20 articles are written by staff members.

Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years experience.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: A



13. Is xy > 0?



x/y < 0

x + y < 0

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: A


14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0?



The largest integer in the set is 13.

The arithmetic mean of the set is zero.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: E



15. Is w a whole number?



3w is an odd number.

2w is an even number.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: B



Directions (Question 16 to 19): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.



IV. i) There are six friends A, B, C, D, E and F



ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo



iii) Each owns a different colored car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.



iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow colored car



v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow colored car



vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton



vii) B does not play Tennis; he owns a red coloured car.



viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car



16. Who plays Volleyball?



A) B B) C C) F D) Data inadequate E) None of these



Ans: B



17. Which coloured car F owns?



A) Green B) Blue C) Either Green or Blue D) Data inadequate E) None of these



Ans: B



18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct?



A) Yellow - Polo B) Green - Tennis C) Black - Cricket D) Red- Hockey E) None of these



Ans: B



19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist?



A) Jalaja B) Shailaja C) Tanuja D) Pooja



Ans: C



20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?



(A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: (B)



21. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?



(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these

Ans: (A)



22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked 25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house?



(A) 5 kms (B) 10 kms (C) 40 kms (D) 80 kms (E) None of these

Ans: (D)



23. The door of Aditya's house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres. Now Aditya is in which direction from the starting point?



(A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South- West (D) North-West (E) None of these

Ans: (D)



24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing west. Then Q is facing?



(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: (A)



25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1.30 p.m?



(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these



Ans: C



26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then, turning to his right, he walks 30 metres. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 metres. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres. How far is he from his initial position?



A. 20 metres B. 30 metres C.60 metres D. 80 metres E None of these



Ans: E



Directions 27-30: The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage.



27. What percentage of respondents under 31, indicated that blues in their favorite style?



A. 7.1 B. 7.6 C. 8.3 D. 14.1 E. 7.2



Ans: B



28. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated that jazz is their favorite style?



A. 64 % B. 60% C. 75% D. 36% E. 46%



Ans: A



29. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is heir favorite style of music?



A. 6 % B. 8% C. 22% D. 4% E. 11%



Ans: E



30. What percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30?



A. 31 % B. 23% C. 25% D. 14% E. 30%



Ans: C



Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)



Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.



Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday , her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.



As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.



Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.



Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study



In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.



At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied; stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.



One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves.



The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians.



Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for "helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet." She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.



Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education , and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things.



Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.



Read this sentence from the article.



1. 'But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal'. What is an antonym for the word focused?



bothered

tired

disinterested

concerned

Ans: C



2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?



to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees

to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation

to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa

To describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.

Ans: D

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?



She knew a lot about Africa.

She knew a lot about African wildlife.

She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.

She was interested in studying animals in the wild.

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?



Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.

Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.

Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.

Different chimpanzees have different personalities.

Ans: A



5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?



an intelligent person

one who studies animals

a scientist

an expert

Ans: B



Read this sentence from the article.



Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.



6. The passage is about



A) Our disagreeable and hostile world



B) A kindly and pleasant world



C) Our different and unresponsive world



D) The world and what one makes of it.



Ans: D



7. "..............they are seldom disappointed". The statement denotes that such men



A) Welcome difficulties as a morale booster



B) Do not have face any trouble



C) Manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts



D) Generally do not fail to come across troubles



Ans: D



8. The author's own view of the world is that it is



A) One of the loveliest and quietest places



B) An unpleasant and turbulent place



C) one's own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place



D) A sordid place for those who suffer in life



Ans: C



9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression 'thin-skinned' as sed in the passage?



A) Insensitive



B) Intelligent



C) Awkward



D) Obstinate



Ans: A



10. "On the other hand............. unlikely quarter" The statement shows that people's reaction to our attitude is



A) Generally indifferent



B) Surprisingly responsive



C) Often adverse



D) Mainly favorable



Ans: B



Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.



11. For a few seconds, Madan was.............blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car



A) Heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally



Ans: E



12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very..............



A) Strong B) large C) broad D) vast E) deep



Ans: E



13. The police have................a complaint against four persons



A) Entered B) lodged C) registered D) noted E) received



Ans: C



14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ....................and did not warrant the large expenses.



A) Large B) small C) minute D) marginal E) uncertain



Ans: D



15. The man who is..........................hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.



A) Persistently B) constantly C) insistently D) consistently E) perpetually



Ans: A



16. He is too...................to be deceived easily



A) strong B) modern C) kind D) honest E) intelligent



Ans: E



17. The Manager gave her his ..... that the complaint would be investigated



A. assurance B. suggestion C. avowal D. support



Ans: A



18. I am feeling ...... better today.



A. rather B. too C. fairly D. very



Ans: C



Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.



mark your answer as :



A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage



B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given



C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false



D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and



E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.



Passage I



Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction



19. There is nothing to boast about urban services



Ans: A



20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.



Ans: C



21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.



Ans: C



22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities



Ans: B



23 The environment around plays an important role on the health status.



Ans: A



Passage II



Though the states cultivate only 3.2 lakh tones of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. The government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.



24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.



Ans: A



25. The state also exports good quality grapes



Ans: C



26. The state also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangoes.



Ans: E



Direction27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'



27. I going there / will not solve / this complicated problem / No error



A B C D



Ans: A



28. You can get /all the information you want / in this book / No error



A B C D



Ans: A



29. The bus could not / ascend the steep hill / because it was in the wrong gears / No error

A B C D



Ans: C



30. No stronger / a figure than his / is prescribed in the history / No error



A B C D



Ans: C



31. Most people would have /attended the union meeting / if they had / longer notice of it / No error



A B C D E



Ans: D



32. And though one did not / quite believe his claim / one saw no harm / in granting him permission / No error



A B C D E



Ans: E



Directions 33: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'



33. The problems of translation are still remain.



A. are remain. B. wills remain C. will still remain. D. No Correction required



Ans: C



34. It is ten years since I have begun living here



A. begun B. had begun C. began D. No Correction required



Ans: C



35. Education is a strong instruments for moldings the character of the young.



A. striking B. powerful C. potent D. No Correction required



Ans: B



36. He gave the I.A.S. examination in all seriousness.



A. appeared B. took C. undertook D. No Correction required



Ans: B



37. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.



A. mind blank B. eyes covered C. hands full D. No Correction required

Ans: D


38. The young hikers went as far as they finally got lost in the valley.



A. so far that B. too far that C. so far as that D. No Correction required


Ans: A


39. He stopped to work an hour ago



A. to working B. to have worked C. working D. No Correction required


Ans: C

40. The fact finding committee has so far not made any advancement.


A. progress B. improvement C. stride D. No Correction required

Ans: A


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Infosys placement paper

English-

Passage 1

Supernatural events have always held a fascination for mankind. At various times in history, men have claimed to possess extraordinary mental or psychic powers, such as the ability to see ghosts or spirits, to talk with the dead and to foretell the future. Scientists have ignored such claims as fictitious and unscientific. But as reports of such phenomena continued to pour in from all quarters, psychologists were forced to take notice of them. In 1882 professor Sidgwick founded the Society for Psychical Research. The aim of this society was to gather anecdotes and stories of psychic phenomena that could not be explained by the law of nature. Since then the study of such phenomena has gained some importance. It is known by the name of parapsychology. When people have ability to 'communicate' without the aid of their senses, they are said to possess extra-sensory perception (ESP).Psychologists divide ESP into four types. The first is telepathy or thought transference. In telepathy a person is able to communicate with another who may be far away. A soldier on the battle front
receives a message from his wife, or a father hears a call for help from his son who is far away. Stories like those have been recorded and investigated by psychologists. Another type of ESP is clairvoyance, the ability to see, or otherwise be aware of events, persons or things not known to anyone else. A clairvoyant person may be able to locate a document that is hidden in a secret place or to find a missing child. The third type of ESP is precognition, the ability to foresee what is going to happen in future. Finally there is psychokinesis (PK) the power of mind over matter: a person having this ability will be able to move objects or displace them without touching them. The scientist who has done most to study these phenomena is professor J.B. Rhine of Duke University in America. He started with a study of clairvoyance from the written records of communication with spirits. He also conducted tests with mediums, men or women who had the power to establish contact with spirits. But he could not get sufficient evidence to accept such phenomena as scientific.

Rhine then went to conduct more practical tests in controlled conditions. He made use of cards to test people who claimed to be clairvoyant. He used 25 cards in which 5 different colours and 5 different figures were used. The subject (the person who was being tested) was asked to guess the figure or the colour on the card. The statistical probability of guessing right was calculated and found to be 1 in 5. If any person consistently guessed more than 1 in 5, he probably had ESP. Rhine published the results of his study in 1937 under the title, "New Frontiers of the Mind". This publication led to a big controversy among psychologists. Many of them still viewed parapsychology with scepticism.The position today is that ESP is accepted by about 10 per cent of psychologists and rejected by another 10 per cent. The remaining 80 per cent feel that the evidence now available is insufficient. In the meantime authentic reports of ESP continue to come. Ingo Swann was able to copy with remarkable accuracy figures that were placed on a shelf above her head, clearly out of range other vision. Examples of psychokinesis have come from different places. Madame Kulagine of Russia moved matches that were scattered on a table into one heap without touching them. In 1971 Uri Geller created a sensation when he showed that he was able to bend or displace pieces of metal by the power of his mind.

1. If you have to talk about the main point from the first paragraph, you would say
a. Supernatural Events
b. Professor Sidgwick’s Contribution
c. Para Psychology-Answer
d. Law of Nature

2. What is ESP in one word?
a. Telepathy
b. Clairvoyance
c. Communicate
d. Perception-Answer

3. ESP is accepted by about
a. 80 per cent of psychologists.
b. 10 per cent of psychologists.-Answer
c. 20 per cent of psychologists.
d. 90 per cent of psychologists.

4. The scientist who has done most to study these phenomena is
a. J.B. Rhine-Answer
b. Ingo Swann
c. Sidgwick
d. Madame Kulagine

5. In the year _______ Uri Geller created a sensation when he showed that he was able to bend or displace pieces of metal by the power of his mind.
a. 1937
b. 1971 -Answer
c. 1882
d. 1961

Passage 2
When a young student from Chandigarh was told that he had developed a tumour in a critical area of the brain and worse, that it was too dangerous to perform surgery in the area, paralysis and eventual death seemed to be his fate. Until doctors at Apollo Hospital, Hyderabad,.told him about a revolutionary treatment, radio-surgery which eradicates deep-seated lesions in the most critical areas of the brain without opening the skull. He is now in Sweden awaiting treatment and a return to a completely normal life.

A Swedish doctor, Lars Leskell, developed radio surgery, or the destruction of diseased brain tissue through the delivery of a concentrated dose of radiation to pinpointed area in the brain. Since brain tissue, unlike tissue elsewhere in the body, does into regenerate itself, mistakes in neurosurgery can be crippling and permanent.Leskell first conceived the idea of radio surgery and after two decades of research to identity the ideal radiation source and equipment, developed the Gamma knife in 1968. While the procedure takes on the three hours, actual treatment time in the Gamma knife unit is 10 to 20 minutes. The patient's head is positioned in a helmet which places the radiation target at the exact point of intersection of 201 cobalt 60 beams. At this point of convergence, enough radiation is delivered to destroy deceased tissue without affecting the adjacent normal tissue. Radiation is precisely delivered to the affected tissue and the dose absorbed by surrounding cerebral tissue is minimal. In 1968, the first Gamma knife was installed at the Karolinska Institute, Stockholm. A second Gamma knife was installed at the institute in 1974. The Gamma knife however, came into its own following the development of sophisticated imaging techniques. "Today there are around 15 units in use of leading institutions all over the world, while 15 are now being installed," says Percy Shroff, manager of the India operations of Elekta Instrument AB, Sweden that manufactures medical equipment in the field of neuroscience.

"No such systems have been installed in India which has led quite a few patients to seek the treatment overseas. Taking India's patient population, the number of cases for which the treatment is suitable would be around 100 per million," reckons Shroff.At Rs. 12 crore, the Gamma Knife is a hefty investment but one that is cost-saving in the long-run. Treatment costs are reduced by 30 per cent to 70 percent as compared to conventional surgery.
Furthermore, the hidden costs of prolonged convalescence after open surgery of the brain are eliminated since the patient leaves hospital the same day or a day after treatment. The producer is virtually painless as there is no incision nor any need for general anaesthesia. "Not only is the patient spared the pain, he is also spared the problems associated with traditional invasive surgery such as bleeding, infection, formation of scar tissue and lengthy hospitalisation and convalescence" says Dr. Keki E. Turel, consultant neurosurgeon and professor of neurosurgery, Mumbai Hospital Institute of Medical Sciences. Given the cost benefits, the Gamma knife is a suitable option for Government hospitals. In China, it has been installed in four large public hospitals where treatment is provided at a cost of $3000 to $5000 compared to $20,000 to $25,000 in the US 10,000-15,000 in Japan and Europe.
Neurosurgeons in India expect to make the treatment available at the same cost as in China. The continuing refinement of imaging techniques has correspondingly increased the potential applications of the Gamma knife, with further development. It can be used to ameliorate the symptoms of Parkinson's diseases, and provided relief to patients suffering from intractable pain neurolgia, psyche-neurosis and epilepsy. Already of the 21,428 cases treated worldwide around 2 percent account for such therapy. Tumors account for 62 percent of treatments which malformations of blood vessels account for 36 percent. With on going research, the applications of the Gamma knife should spread to the other specialties also. Research related to inner ear and retinal cancers is currently underway.

6. The gamma knife reduces the cost of treatment of brain tumour by
a. 80% to 90%.
b. 20% to 80%.
c. 30% to 70%.-Answer
d. By 50%.

7. In China, the treatment through gamma knife costs
a. $3,000.00 to $5,000.00-Answer
b. $20,000.00 to $25,000.00
c. $10,000.00 to $15,000.00
d. $10,000.00 to $17,000.00

8. Consultant Neuro surgeon, Mumbai hospital Institute of Medical Science, is ___ (as mentioned in the passage)
a. Lars Leskell.
b. Keki.E. Turel.-Answer
c. Percy Shroff.
d. N. Eziekel.

9. The first gamma knife was installed in
a. Karolinska Institute-Answer
b. Apollo Hospital
c. Mumbai Hospital Institute of Medical Science
d. Elekta Instruments

10. Gamma knife is use to cure
a. Parkinson’s Disease
b. Epilepsy
c. Brain Tumour-Answer
d. Neurolgia

Directions for questions 11-20: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate choice

11. Latin America has for long been a forgotten wasteland…………..Indian foreign policy
a. to the politics controllers
b. to the politics controllers by
c. to the political controllers by
d. to the politics controllers in-Answer

12. …………ahead of the herd.
a. Intelligence investors make their move
b. Intelligence investors make its move
c. Intelligent investors make their moves-Answer
d. Intelligent investors make their move

13. Hakeem said the Muslims had been overlooked in…………….
a. earlier peace bids which ended in disaster-Answer
b. earliest peace bids which ended in disaster
c. early peace bids which ended in disaster
d. earlier peace birds which end in disaster

14. The speaker was so ……and elaborate that the audience started getting fidgety
a. terse
b. prolix -Answer
c. curt
d. brief

15. The Asian Games concluded with a colorful………….., in which, in addition to the athletes and players, a number of artists also participated.
a. ovation
b. tablet
c. pageant -Answer
d. finale

16. She…..her talents at the National School of dramatics.
a. fine-tuned -Answer
b. stupefied
c. abraded
d. downgraded

17. This sort of an aggressive attitude would only serve to ………the supporters you already have.
a. encourage
b. exhort
c. alienate -Answer
d. cooperate

18. Focus on solving the refugee problems and drawing plans for …………development was less evident.
a. short-range
b. sustainable -Answer
c. needless
d. merit

19. The groups were feared but at the same time …….by the locals
a. revered -Answer
b. detested
c. rebelled
d. loathed

20. …………………; the logo and the product were repeatedly flashed with jingle that dinned the name into our heads
a. There was a time when visual advertising styles was blatantly direct-Answer
b. It was this kind of advertising that paved the way.
c. There was no escape from the bombardment
d. Similar products are clubbed together by a brand inspired generic name

(Directions for questions 21-25):
In each of the question given below. one or more statement is/are followed by inferential conclusions. The conclusion. which can be derived without supposing anything else. i.e.. without adding anything extra to the statement (s). is your answer.

21. Statement:
The Education Secretary said that it was extremely necessary that the professional researchers along with practical school teachers conduct the practical research.
Conclusions:
(a) Practicing teachers know the technique of research.
(b) Professional researchers are quite aware of the problems related to the school education.
(c) Educational Secretary was speaking to the school students.
(d) There is a communication gap between researchers and the practicing school teachers.
(e) School education is quite a specialized field and so long as teacher is not trained, the standard of education cannot be qualitatively better.-Answer

22. Statement:
Vehicular source contributes 60% to the total pollution level of Delhi, as informed in the Rajya Sabha today.

Conclusions:
(a) The court has ordered that the main source of pollution should be identified.
(b) The problem of pollution is high in the work list.-Answer
(c) In the other cities also, vehicular source contributes around the same percentage level of pollution.
(d) This matter was raised first in the Lok Sabha.
(e) Not many towns in India face the problem of pollution.

23. Statement:
PVC shoe producers union has welcomed the announcement of relief on production surcharge from Rs. 50 per pair to Rs 75 per pair.

Conclusions:
(a) All PVC shoe producers are members of this union.
(b) Relief on production surcharge of Rs 50 on every pair to shoes, had been given only recently.
(c) Union had demanded an increase in relief.-Answer
(d) Govt. will collect more production surcharge.
(e) Other producers will also demand relief on production surcharge.

24. Statement :
There are chances of hike in the electricity tariff soon. This proposal will bring about a sharp increase for the industrial consumers and marginal increase for the domestic consumers.

Conclusions:
(a) At present there is a disparity in the electricity tariff between the domestic and the industrial consumers.
(b) Industrial consumers consume more electricity than the domestic users.
(c) Consumption of electricity by the industrial consumer is comparatively lower than the domestic user.
(d) After this hike, the electricity board will start making profit.-Answer
(e) If this proposal is accepted, then industrial output will get positively affected.

25. Statement :
State government imposes a monthly tax on the salary of all the employees.
The tax amount varies according to the income slab.
The Central govt. also imposes tax on the same income, which is known as the income tax.
This is against the theory of taxation.

Conclusions:
(a) A regular collection, irrespective of the income slab, by the Central govt. is the income tax.
(b) The Central govt. should not collect any tax on income.
(c) Income tax should not vary according to the income slabs.
(d) Tax should be imposed only once on an individual.-Answer
(e) The State govt. should not impose any tax on income.

Directions for Questions 26-30
Mark (1) if the 1st underlined word/phrase has error.
Mark (2) if the 2nd underlined word/phrase has error.
Mark (3) if the 3rd underlined word/phrase has error.
Mark (4) if the 4th underlined word/phrase has error.
Mark (5) if the sentence has NO ERROR

26. She wore a dress to the party that was more attractive than the other girls. D--Answer

27. If I would have been there, I certainly would have taken care of the problem. A--Answer

28. Unless there can be some assurance of increased wages, workers morale all ready low, will collapse C--Answer

29. No sooner had he began to speak when the opposition members started shouting slogans. A-Answer

30. Each of the hotel’s 150 rooms were equipped with central air-conditioning and colour television. B-Answer

Directions for questions31-35: Select the pair of words, which do have a relationship similar to the relationship between the given pair.


31. NOCTURNAL: BAT
(a) amphibian: frog -Answer
(b) sly: cat
(c) carnivorous: cow
(d) aquatic: lizard

32. TETHER: COW
(a) trap: rat
(b) manacle: man-Answer
(c) aerial: radio
(d) ring: finger

33. FOOT: FINGERS
(a) bottom: top
(b) finger: thumb
(c) pedal: handicap
(d) pedicure: manicure-Answer

34. NATURAL: SYNTHETIC
(a) hypothesis: conclusion
(b) cotton: wool-Answer
(c) fragrance: perfume
(d) honey: sugarcane

35. MOVING: STATIC
(a) rain: cloud
(b) glacier: snow-Answer
(c) river: alluvium
(d) dynamics : electronics

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