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I want to know that can I get direct admission in IISER without sitting in entrance exam.
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You want to take direct admission in IISER without sitting in entrance exam so you can definitely take direct admission but for this you must have higher percentage in 10+2 which must have above 93%. The IISER has 3 channel of admission KVPY , SX , AB , SA ,SP IIT - JEE rank list IISER Science Aptitude Test. If you got high score in your 12th.
__________________ Answered By StudyChaCha Member |
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Yes of course, you can apply in the Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research for direct admission provided you have secured 93% or above in the 12th standard. Following are the details of admission in this institute: BS-MS Dual Degree Programme The students will be admitted through the following channels: Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) Basic Science Stream Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2014 State and Central Boards This institute has following facilities in the campus: Highly competent and motivated faculty in various disciplines with a passion for science Integrated undergraduate teaching with cutting edge research across disciplines Library with online resources, books and research journals State of the art teaching and research facilities Sports and recreational facilities Hostel facility for all students Upcoming eco-friendly green campuses with appropriate infrastructure For additional information please contact to the address given below: Address IISER Bhopal Indore By-Pass Road, Bhauri, Madhya Pradesh 462066, India +91 755 409 2399
__________________ Answered By StudyChaCha Member |
#6
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As you want to get the details of admission in the course of BS-MS Dual Degree programme in Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research so here is the information of the same for you: Admission to BS-MS Dual Degree Programme 2014: Candidates will be admitted to the Five Year BS-MS Dual Degree programme beginning August 2014 through the following channels Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) Basic Science Stream: Students qualifying in SA (2012)/SX (2013)/SB (2013) Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2014: Students securing a place in the rank list of Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) for admission to Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) State and Central Boards: Those, who are eligible for INSPIRE scholarship by Department of Science and Technology (DST) on the basis of their aggregate scores in class XII may be considered for admission after clearing an aptitude test Intake through different channels: Up to 25% seats in each category (General/SC/ST/OBC Non-creamy) through KVPY channel. Up to 50% seats in each category (General/SC/ST/OBC Non-creamy) from KVPY + JEE (Advanced) channels. Remaining seats in each category through State and Central Boards channel based on an Aptitude Test conducted by IISERs. Counselling Schedule: KVPY JEE (Advanced) State and Central Boards Receiving online applications 7th June ? 7th July 2014 23rd June ? 7th July 2014 15th June ? 10th July 2014 Counseling/Aptitude Test 10th July 2014 10th July 2014 20th July 2014 Last date for receiving admission fees 17th July 2014 17th July 2014 29th July 2014 Format of the Aptitude Test: Multiple-choice questions in four subjects Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics 15 questions in each subject (total: 60) Duration: 180 minutes Score: +3 (correct response), 0 (no response), -1 (wrong response) 1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes mitosis. Which of the following explains this observation? A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide 2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction 3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on a decline C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time 4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle? A. Mating is random in the population B. There are no mutations C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population 5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized form of a protein that also functions in digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that A. Vision and digestion co-evolved B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function C. Evolution in opportunistic D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time 6. On which segment of the human chromosome is the enzyme Reverse Transcriptase located? A. Centromere B. Telomere C. Kinetochore 1 D. Satellite 7. Muscle X and muscle Y are of the same size, but muscle X is capable of much finer control than muscle Y. Which of the following is likely to be true of muscle X? A. It is controlled by more neurons than muscle Y B. It contains fewer motor units than muscle Y C. It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle Y D. Each of its motor units consists of more cells than the motor units of muscle Y 8. A National Park associated with rhinoceros is A. Kaziranga B. Corbett C. Ranthambore D. Valley of Flowers 9. During HIV infection A. Number of helper T-lymphocytes increase B. Number of helper T-lymphocytes decrease C. Number of red blood cells increase D. Number of red blood cells decrease 10. If the blood groups of the father and mother are AB and B respectively, then which one of the following statements is true with respect to their children’s blood group? A. Blood group is either A or B B. Blood group is either B or AB C. Blood group is AB only D. Blood group can be A or B or AB 11. The sequence of DNA is 5’-ATGGTTCCATC-3’. What is the sequence of the complimentary RNA strand? A. 5’-TACCAAGGTAG-3’ B. 3’-TACCAAGGTAG-5’ C. 3’-UACCAAGGUAG-5’ D. 5’-UACCAAGGUAG-3’ 12. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)? A. Secondary treatment of euent decreases the BOD B. Secondary treatment of euent increases the BOD C. Secondary treatment of euent does not change the BOD D. Secondary treatment of euent first increases and then decreases the BOD 2 13. Which of the following is a general nature of plant-pollinator interactions? A. Tight one to one co-evolutionary partnership B. A plant species is pollinated by a few pollinator species C. Plants rely on deceit to achieve pollination by pollinator species D. Most pollinators benefit the plant by providing pollinator services, but disadvantage the plant at the same time by laying eggs into the flower and thereby negatively aects fruit formation 14. Sickle cell anemia is a disease resulting from altered haemoglobin structure. This alteration is because of the replacement of a glutamic acid with valine. Indentify the protein structure level where this change has been made A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary 15. Which of the following life history adaptations is least likely when predation pressure, on a fish species that grows in size continuously throughout its lifespan, is concentrated on the larger individuals A. Allocate more resources preferentially to early reproduction than to growth B. Allocate more resources preferentially to growth than to early reproduction C. Sexual maturity at an early age D. Produce more ospring in very few reproductive seasons 3 Chemistry 16. What is the potential of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, in which the anode is in contact with 10 Here for your reference i am giving you the aptitude test model question paper and it is in a PDF file which is free to download: () Contact Details: Indian Institute Of Science Education & Research Pune, Maharashtra 020 2544 1524 India Map Location:
__________________ Answered By StudyChaCha Member |
#8
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Those candidates who score the higher aggregate in 12th science stream may apply for the direct admission in Indian Institute of Science Education and Research for 5 years BS-MS Dual Degree Program. Eligibility for BS-MS Dual Degree Program: The students get into IISER through following channels. Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY): Basic Science Stream Students qualifying in SA (2013-14)/SX (2014-15)/SB (2014-15) Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2015: Students securing a place in the rank list of Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced). State and Central Boards: Those candidates who are eligible for INSPIRE scholarship by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) on the basis of their aggregate scores in class XII(2014 & 2015) may be considered for admission after clearing an aptitude test conducted by Joint Admission Committee of the IISERs. Important dates for 2015 admission: 1. Opening of application portal for JEE/KVPY/SCB stream 1st June 2. Last date for application for JEE/KVPY stream 27th June 3. Last date for application for SCB stream 4th July 4. Result - Publishing of allocation list of JEE/KVPY channel 29th June 5. Last date for payment of admission fees for JEE/KVPY stream 10th July 6. IISER SCB aptitude test 12th July 7. Result/Allocation of SCB stream 15th July 8. Last date of payment of admission fees for SCB stream 22nd July 9. Course commences 3rd Aug Test centers for aptitude test Bangalore Baroda Bhopal Bhubaneswar Calicut Chennai Delhi Guwahati Hyderabad Kolkata Mohali Mumbai Nagpur Pune Thiruvananthapuram Tirupati Varanasi How to apply: the applications can send through online mode only. Application form will open on following dates. JEE/KVPY - 1st June 2015 to 27th June 2015 SCB - 1st June 2015 to 4th July 2015 Aptitude test pattern: Multiple-choice questions in four subjects – Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics 15 questions in each subject (total: 60) Duration: 180 minutes Score: +3 (correct response), 0 (no response), -1 (wrong response) Here, I Am giving you attachment of the model question paper of aptitude test. Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Aptitude test model paper 1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes mitosis. Which of the following explains this observation? A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide 2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction 3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on a decline C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time 4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle? A. Mating is random in the population B. There are no mutations C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population 5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized form of a protein that also functions in digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that A. Vision and digestion co-evolved B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function C. Evolution in opportunistic D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time 6. On which segment of the human chromosome is the enzyme Reverse Transcriptase located? A. Centromere B. Telomere C. Kinetochore 1 D. Satellite 7. Muscle X and muscle Y are of the same size, but muscle X is capable of much finer control than muscle Y. Which of the following is likely to be true of muscle X? A. It is controlled by more neurons than muscle Y B. It contains fewer motor units than muscle Y C. It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle Y D. Each of its motor units consists of more cells than the motor units of muscle Y 8. A National Park associated with rhinoceros is A. Kaziranga B. Corbett C. Ranthambore D. Valley of Flowers 9. During HIV infection A. Number of helper T-lymphocytes increase B. Number of helper T-lymphocytes decrease C. Number of red blood cells increase D. Number of red blood cells decrease 10. If the blood groups of the father and mother are AB and B respectively, then which one of the following statements is true with respect to their children’s blood group? A. Blood group is either A or B B. Blood group is either B or AB C. Blood group is AB only D. Blood group can be A or B or AB 11. The sequence of DNA is 5’-ATGGTTCCATC-3’. What is the sequence of the complimentary RNA strand? A. 5’-TACCAAGGTAG-3’ B. 3’-TACCAAGGTAG-5’ C. 3’-UACCAAGGUAG-5’ D. 5’-UACCAAGGUAG-3’ 12. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)? A. Secondary treatment of euent decreases the BOD B. Secondary treatment of euent increases the BOD C. Secondary treatment of euent does not change the BOD D. Secondary treatment of euent first increases and then decreases the BOD 2 13. Which of the following is a general nature of plant-pollinator interactions? A. Tight one to one co-evolutionary partnership B. A plant species is pollinated by a few pollinator species C. Plants rely on deceit to achieve pollination by pollinator species D. Most pollinators benefit the plant by providing pollinator services, but disadvantage the plant at the same time by laying eggs into the flower and thereby negatively aects fruit formation 14. Sickle cell anemia is a disease resulting from altered haemoglobin structure. This alteration is because of the replacement of a glutamic acid with valine. Indentify the protein structure level where this change has been made A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary 15. Which of the following life history adaptations is least likely when predation pressure, on a fish species that grows in size continuously throughout its lifespan, is concentrated on the larger individuals A. Allocate more resources preferentially to early reproduction than to growth B. Allocate more resources preferentially to growth than to early reproduction C. Sexual maturity at an early age D. Produce more ospring in very few reproductive seasons Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Kolkata Nadia, West Bengal 033 2587 3033
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