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  #1  
Old August 4th, 2012, 10:23 AM
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Join Date: Jun 2013
Default MHT CET practice papers practice

I am giving the CET exam of Maharashtra and I am very weak in biology so I need the its practice papers for do exam practice so please tell me how can I get this and tell me also the procedure of download its PDF file from net.

I am providing you question paper for the Maharashtra common entrance test in PDF file with it so you can get it easily

some questions of PDF is given below :







Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4solution in the
presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl, because HCl
i. reduces permanganate to Mn2+.
ii. oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
iii. gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine.
iv. furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.

Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
i. R2SiCl2
ii. R3SiCl
iii. R4Si
iv. RSiCl3

Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subjecting
the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
i. Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides.
ii. CO2is more volatile than CS2.
iii. Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2.
iv. CO2is thermodynamically more stable than CS2.


physics paper :

1.Which of the following is not an electro magnetic wave
a) x-rays b) alpha-rays c) gamma-rays d)
light rays

2.Electro magnetic waves of wave length ranging from 100

as you want the question paper for the Maharashtra common entrance test so here I am giving you paper for it in PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily…

some questions of PDF is given below :


CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
i. Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase.
ii. B2H6.2NH3 is known as 'inorganic benzene'.
iii. Boric acid is a protonic acid.
iv. Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six.

Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4solution in the
presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl, because HCl
i. reduces permanganate to Mn2+.
ii. oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
iii. gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine.
iv. furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.

Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
i. R2SiCl2
ii. R3SiCl
iii. R4Si
iv. RSiCl3

Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subjecting
the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
i. Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides.
ii. CO2is more volatile than CS2.
iii. Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2.
iv. CO2is thermodynamically more stable than CS2.

physics paper :

1.Which of the following is not an electro magnetic wave
a) x-rays b) alpha-rays c) gamma-rays d)
light rays

2.Electro magnetic waves of wave length ranging from 100Åto 4000Å come under
a) x-rays b) UV region c) visible region d)
infra-red region

3.Electro magnetic theory suggests that the light consists of
a) magnetic vector alone b) electric vector alone c) electric
and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other. d) parallel electric and magnetic
vector

4.The frequency of radio waves corresponding to a wave length of 10 m is
a) 3×107Hz b) 3.3×108Hz c) 3×109Hz d)

5.The electromagnetic waves travel with velocity of
a) sound b) light c) greater than that of light d)
greater than that of sound

6.The existence of EM waves were experimentally confirmed by
a) Maxwell b) Faraday c) Hertz d)
Tesla

7.The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when
a) the motor has picked up maximum speed b) the motor has just
started moving c) the speed of motor is still on increase d) the motor has
just been switched off

8.AC measuring instrument measures
a) peak value b) rms value c) any value d)
average value

9.The Q-factor of a resonant circuit is equal to
a) 1CWR b) 1WL c) CWR d) fCW

10.In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in
a) Primary are less b) Primary are more c) Primary
and secondary equal d) secondary are infinite

11.In AC circuits choke is preferred to resistors because
a) choke coil is cheap b) voltage increases c) energy
is not wasted d) current increases

12.A choke is used as resistance in
a) AC circuits b) DC circuits c) half-wave rectifier
circuits d) both AC and DC circuits

13.The frequency of AC mains in India is
a) 110 C/S b) 50 C/S c) 60 C/S d) 120
C/S

14.A transformer works on
a) DC only b) AC only c) both AC and DC d)
high voltage only

15.Alternating voltage
a) is independent of time b) varies directly with time c) varies
inversely with time d) varies sinusoidaly with time

16.The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of
a) electric operator b) electric motor c) galvanomet d)
none of the above
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf mht cet chemistry papers.pdf (220.6 KB, 47 views)
File Type: pdf mht cet mathematics papers.pdf (189.7 KB, 37 views)
File Type: pdf mht cet physics papers.pdf (81.5 KB, 42 views)
File Type: pdf mht cet chemistry papers.pdf (220.6 KB, 24 views)
File Type: pdf mht cet mathematics papers.pdf (189.7 KB, 24 views)
File Type: pdf mht cet physics papers.pdf (81.5 KB, 34 views)

Last edited by Aakashd; December 21st, 2019 at 10:48 AM.
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  #2  
Old August 4th, 2012, 12:53 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Dec 2011
Default Re: MHT CET practice papers practice

Here I am forwarding you the MHT CET practice papers of biology 2011.
1. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, oxidation of chl. a - 700 occurs due to
a) Sunlight c) ATP
b) Electrons from Chl. a - 680 d) Cytochromes

2. What is BLAST?
a) Baltic collaboration of archival databanks
b) International project to develop new techniques in bioinformatics
c) American company that provides free software for bioinformatics
d) Software to predict functions of new genes

3. To calculate the Vital Index(v) of a population, one must know the
a) Total no. of births and death
b) Total no. of births and death, and average population
c) Sex ratio and average population
d) Growth rate and population density

4. What is the similarity between the three diseases namely leprosy, chicken pox and scabies?
a) Caused by viruses
b) Spread by simple physical contact with infected person
c) Have been eradicated
d) Are not curable

For more question here I am uploading the file
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf MHT CET question paper.pdf (93.8 KB, 46 views)
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  #3  
Old November 20th, 2012, 01:58 PM
guhi
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Default MHT-CET Maharashtra Question Paper

Hello friends I am taking part in the MHT-CET and I have no study material so I want to need MHTCET Question Paper and provide me Paper Pattern also
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  #4  
Old November 21st, 2012, 04:44 PM
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Join Date: Nov 2011
Default Re: MHT-CET Maharashtra Question Paper

You are looking for the question paper of MHT-CET exam.

MHT –CET question paper is also available on our website. You can get form there.

Here I am giving you that page where you can download your papers.

http://studychacha.com/discuss/18001...on-papers.html
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  #5  
Old February 6th, 2013, 10:52 AM
chiragaq
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Default MHT CET Practice Papers Practice

From which website can I free download MHT CET question paper?
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  #6  
Old February 7th, 2013, 12:22 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Default Re: MHT CET Practice Papers Practice

You want to free download MHT CET question paper so its question paper is available in our website and here is its link. By click on this link you will redirect to that page and from there you can free download pdf file of question paper but before you have to registration first.

http://studychacha.com/discuss/34876...on-papers.html
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  #7  
Old March 24th, 2014, 04:24 PM
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Default Re: MHT-CET Maharashtra Question Paper

I want to give the exam of MHT CET 2014 so for that I need to get the previous year question papers so can you provide me that?
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  #8  
Old March 24th, 2014, 04:45 PM
Sashwat's Avatar
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Join Date: Jun 2011
Default Re: MHT-CET Maharashtra Question Paper

As you want to get the previous year question papers of exam of MHT CET so here is the information of the same for you:

Important dates:
Sr. No. Activity Schedule
First Date Last Date
1.
Online Registration for MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 through computer connected to Internet on the web site
27-01-2014 14-02-2014
upto 5:00 PM
2.
Late Registration for MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 on the website
16-02-2014
upto 5:00 PM
3.
Issue of Hall Ticket through candidate’s login of successfully registered candidates
04-03-2014 onwards
4.
Date and timing of the Online MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014
15-03-2014 & 16-03-2014
5.
Declaration of the result of the MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 on the website
21/04/2014 at 5:00 PM
6.
Document verification, updation and confirmation of Application Form for Admission in person at ARC for Maharashtra State / OMS / J&K Candidates
12-05-2014 22-05-2014
7.
Display of the provisional merit lists (Maharashtra State, All India and J&K Candidates) on the web site
26-05-2014 at 5:00 PM
8.
Submission of grievance, if any, for Maharashtra, All India and J&K Candidates, at ARC
26-05-2014 30-05-2014
upto 5:00 PM
9.
Display of the final merit lists (Maharashtra, All India and J&K Candidates)
02-06-2014 at 5:00 PM

Some content of the file has been given here:

Directions: Choose the best alternative.
1. In a certain code GOAL is written as AGLO and BEAR is written as ABRE. How is SEND written in that
code?
(1) NSDE (2) NDES (3) DENS (4) SNED (5) None of these
2. ‘MP’ is related to ‘OR’ and ‘DG’ is related to ‘FL’ in the same way as ‘RU’ is related to ________.
(1) TX (2) TW (3) TY (4) UW (5) None of these
3. In a certain code language ‘Ne Pe Le’ means ‘what is this’. ‘Bo Le Se’ means ‘is that okay’ and ‘Se Ni
Di’ means ‘that was easy’. What is the code for ‘okay’ in that code language?
(1) Le (2) Se (3) Ne (4) Ni (5) None of these
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CREDITABLE each of which has as many letters
between them as they have in English alphabet?
(a) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than four
5. In a certain code ’PRISM’ is written as ‘OSHTL’ and ‘RUBLE’ is written as ‘OVAMD’. How will ‘WHORL’
be written in that code?
(1) XIPSM (2) VGNQK (3) UINSK (4) EGPQM (5) VINSK
6. If + means –, – means ÷, ÷ means × and × means +, what is the value of 125 – 5 × 10 ÷ 13 + 28 = ?
(1) 129 (2) 127 (3) 149.15 (4) 150 (5) None of these
7. In a row of boys facing North, Amit is 5th to the left of Ashok. Alok is 3rd to the right of Amit. Vilas is 3rd to
the left of Ashok. Which of the following describes the position of Vilas?
(1) To the immediate right to Amit (2) To the immediate left to Alok
(3) To the immediate right to Alok (4) 3rd to the right of Amit
(5) None of these
8. If SCHOOL is coded on TDILOO, how will you write TABLES?
(1) UBCSEL (2) DMBTFT (3) SESALC (4) ALSCES (5) None of these
9. The financial markets of which of the following countries were badly affected by sub prime crisis?
(1) Russia (2) Brazil (3) UK (4) USA (5) None of these
10. Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold?
(1) USA (2) Bangladesh (3) Russia (4) India (5) None of these

Questions 11 – 15: In each of the questions below a group of letters are given followed by four groups of
digits/symbol combinations numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Letters are to be coded as per the codes and
conditions given below. You have to find out which of the combinations (1), (2), (3) and (4) is correct and
indicate your answer accordingly. It none of the four represents to each correct code, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of
these’ as your answer.
Letter : B H S N T O A K R I E U G
Digit/Symbol Code : 6 8 1 # 5 2 $ 3 9 @ 4 7 %

Conditions : (i) If the first as well as last letter is vowel, both are to be coded as ‘0’.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be
coded as ‘Z’.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is vowel, both are to be
Coded as ‘*’.
11. ONSIRT (1) 2#1@95 (2) Z#@195 (3) Z#19aZ (4) Z#1@95 (5) None of these
12. KIUBSR (1) 3@7619 (2)O@7610 (3)3@7691 (4) 3@6719 (5) None of these
13. BKAEUG (1) 03$470 (2) 63$470 (3) 03$47% (4) 63$47% (5) None of these
14. STOKGA (1) 1523%$ (2) 1523%* (3) *523%* (4) *523%$ (5) None of these
15. ORHSNU (1) 098#17 (2) 0981#0 (3) 298#10 (4) 2981#7 (5) None of these
16. (i) T is the Brother of P
(ii) R is the Daughter of P
(iii) M is the Sister of T and
(iv) V is the Brother of R
Who is the Uncle of V?
(1) M (2) T (3) P (4) Either M or T (5) None of these

17. P is the brother of Q and R, S is R’s mother. T is P’s father. Which of the following statements cannot
be said to be definitely true?
(1) T is Q’s father (2) T is S’s husband (3) P is S’s son
(4) S is A’s brother (5) Q is E’s son

18. How many 7s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 4 but not
immediately followed by 2?
4 7 2 7 2 3 5 9 7 4 7 5 2 4 7 9 4 7 8 4 7 1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) More than 4

19. If it is decided to write every alternate letter of the English alphabet always small starting with B
onwards and all other letters always in capitals, which of the following is the correct way of writing
‘WEDNESDAY’?
(1) WeDNesDay (2) WEdnESdAy (3) wEDNESDAy
(4) WEdNESdAy (5) None of these

20. A man said to a woman, “Your only brother’s sister is my mother’. How is the woman related to the
man’s grandmother on his mother’s side?
(1) Sister (2) Sister-in-law (3) Daughter (4) Mother-in-law (5) None of these

Questions 21 – 30: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer
is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
21. Industrial accidents / usually result into / negligence, ignorance / or carelessness. / No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
22. Some people are like / to do a lot of social work / even though they are poor / and lack resources. /
(1) (2) (3) (4)
No Error
(5)
23. Some men / have conveniently believe / that women are inferior to / men in respect of abilities. /
(1) (2) (3) (4)
No Error
(5)
24. His qualities include / the ability to take / right and / quickly decisions. / No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
25. If you want to / ensure prompt service, / please be contacted to us / at your earliest convenience. /
(1) (2) (3) (4)
No Error
(5)
26. They founded / this institution for / the welfare of the poor / and the disable people / No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
27. He asked me / what had my total investments / during the / last five years / No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
28. He takes the / prescribed medicine regularly / and that is how / he has succeed to control his ailment. /
(1) (2) (3) (4)
No Error
(5)
29. We should take / regular exercises / to keep ourself / fit and active. / No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
30. Each time you / reach this sport, / go back and / start your next round again. / No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.31. (i) Six boys are sitting around a circle facing the center.
(ii) P is the immediate left of S.
(iii) J is between A and B.
(iv) H is between P and A.
If S and B exchange their positions, who will be to the immediate right of B?
(1) Cannot be determined (2) A (3) J (4) P (5) None of these

32. P is father of G, A is sister of C, D is uncle of A, C is brother of G and G is father of B. Who is uncle of
B?
(1) D (2) P (3) C
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
33. In a certain code language ‘ew xa hu de’ means ‘she is eating apples’, ‘ew po va’ means ‘she sells toys’
and ‘ut li de’ means ‘I like apples’ which words in the language means ‘she and apples’?
(1) ut and de (2) ew and de (3) de and po (4) xa and ew (5 )None of these
34. In a certain code CHETAN is written as FEHQDK. How is SUNDER written in that code?
(1) VRQAHO (2) PXKGHO (3) VRQABU (4) PXKGBU (5) None of these
35. Two letters in the word ROUBLE have as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet. Which one of the two comes earlier in the alphabet?
(1) U (2) E (3) R (4) L (5) None of these

Questions 36 – 40: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
36. 10609 × 81 . 7938 = ?
(1) 9177.3 (2) 8197.3 (3) 8553.3 (4) 8682.7 (5) None of these
37. ( ) [ ] ? 3 2 13 ⎥⎦

⎢⎣
⎡ = 2197
(1) – 3 (2)
3
1 (3)
2
1 (4) – 4 (5) None of these
38. 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = ?
(1) 252.623 (2) 230.432 (3) 210.284 (4) 246.182 (5) None of these
39. (98.4)2 + (33.6) = ?
(1) 11811.52 (2) 18011.52 (3) 10921.25 (4) 19021.25 (5) None of these
40. 8959 ÷ ? ÷ 4 ÷ 5 = 26.35
(1) 15 (2) 13 (3) 11 (4) 17 (5) None of these
41. H is shorter than J. P is taller than H. A is taller than J but shorter than D. J is taller than P. Who among
them will be in the middle if they stand in a row according to height?
(1) H (2) P (3) J (4) D (5) A

Questions 42 – 43: In each question, a related pair of words is followed by five numbered pairs of words.
Select the numbered pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair
42. Resignation : Office
(1) Appointment : Interview (2) Abdication : Throne (3) Illness : Hospital
(4) Moisture : Rain (5) Competition : Game
43. Bunch : Key
(1) Player : Team (2) Beehive : Bee (3) Examination : Subject
(4) Bouquet : Flower (5) Hound : Pack

44. Pointing at Preeti, Vivek said, ‘Her father is the son of my mother’s sister’. How Vivek related to Preeti?
(1) Nephew (2) Brother (3) Cousin (4) Grand-father (5) None of these
45. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the third, the seventh and the tenth
letters of the word FRIGHTENED, what will be the third letter of that word? If it is possible to make more
than one such word your answer is M and if it is not possible to make any meaningful word your answer
is N.
(1) D (2) I (3) R (4) M (5) N

Questions 46 – 60: Which of the phrases (1), (2) and (3) given below each sentence should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct if it has an error in
it ? If none of the three phrases can correct the sentence, mark (4) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer. If the
sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) i.e. ’No correction required’ as the answer.
46. The honorable court had taken a leniency view because the accused had no previous criminal record.
(1) had viewed leniency (2) had taken a leniency viewing (3) had taken a lenient view
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
47. Maintaining global peace is our self-made commitment to the world.
(1) self-making commitment (2) self-made committee (3) made of self-commitment
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
48. The dinner party hosted by the President at the club was shifted to an undisclosed location.
(1) a locality undisclosing (2) a undisclosing location (3) an undisclosed location
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
49. The government should launch such projects which should reversible the destructive cycle of flood
and drought.
(1) should have reversible (2) should be reverse (3) should have been reverse
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
50. A committee comprising eminent experts form various fields were setting up.
(1) was set up (2) were being set up (3) was setting up
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
51. Our foreign exchange reserves have been increased substantial.
(1) have been increased substantially (2) have increased substantially
(3) have substantially increasing (4) None of these
(5) No correction required
52. The key to competitive economy is its investment regime.
(1) competition economy is (2) competing economist lays (3) economy competition was
(4) None of these (5) No correction required

53. Driving a care in jammed traffic require extraordinarily patience-especially when other drivers are not
disciplined.
(1) required extraordinarily patient (2) requires extraordinarily patience
(3) requiring extraordinary patience (4) None of these
(5) No correction required
54. Chinese army possesses highly sophisticated simulators on which their soldiers are training.
(1) which their soldiers training on (2) on which their soldiers have trains
(3) which their soldiers do train (4) None of these
(5) No correction required
55. Every novel activity will be likely to face resistance form vested interests.
(1) is likely to face (2) will be likely facing (3) would be like facing
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
56. We observed that traders were not primarily dedicated with are of selling.
(1) dedicated to the art of (2) dedicated by the art of (3) dedicated in the art by
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
57. It is become equally clear that campaign against smoking will have little success until people realize
its importance.
(1) has become equal and clear (2) has become equally clear (3) has become clearly equal
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
58. Once the event is over, many people claimed credit for success but disown the responsibility for
failure.
(1) claim credit of success (2) claim credit for success (3) claiming credit for success
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
59. People should be have then own mechanism to guard against the activities of unscrupulous elements.
(1) shall be have their own (2) should be having its own (3) should have owning its
(4) None of these (5) No correction required
60. The real wonder is that the artisans while constructing the Ajanta Caves possessed only the simplest
hand tools.
(1) really wonder is that (2) really wonderful is that (3) real wonderful is that
(4) None of these (5) No correction required

ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (5) 4. (1) 5. (5) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1)
9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (5) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (3)
17. (4), (5) 18. (1) 19. (5) 20. (4) 21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (4)
25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (5) 32. (3)
33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (4) 36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (5) 40. (4)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (5) 48. (5)
49. (4) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (5) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (5)

Directions for questions 61 – 65: In each questions below, there are five problem figures. One of the
answer figures into the sequence as the sixth figure. Find out this figure. The number of this answer figure is
your answer.

Questions 66 – 70: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences numbered from 66 to
70 which can be drawn form the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately
in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if you think the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows form the
statement of facts given;
Mark answer (2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’, in the
light of the facts given;
Mark answer (3) if you think the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say
whether the inference is likely to be true or false;
Mark answer (4) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the
light of the facts given and
Mark answer (5) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn
form the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Now, read the following passage and the inferences given below them and mark your answers on the
separate answer sheet
The serious accident in which a person was run down by a car yesterday has again focused
attention on the most unsatisfactory state of street lighting. No one expects side roads to be provided
with the same standard of lighting as a main road, but unless the council is prepared to mark good its
promise as regards road lighting, it will only be a question of time before there are further and perhaps
fatal accidents.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES

66. It seems that the council has promised to improve the state of lighting on side roads.
67. Several accidents have so far taken place because of unsatisfactory lighting.
68. The accident that occurred was fatal.
69. The accident occurred at night.
70. There will not be a single accident on roads if they are satisfactorily illuminated.
Directions for questions 71 – 75: In each questions below, there are five problem figures. One of the answer figures into
the sequence as the sixth figure. Find out this figure. The number of this answer figure is your answer.
Questions 76 – 80: In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and _____
Given answer If
(1) x > y
(2) x ≥ y
(3) x < y
(4) x ≤ y
(5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
76. I. X = 1369
II. (Y)2 = 1369
77. I. X2 + 9X + 20 = 0
II. Y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
78. I. X + 2y – 11.5 = 0
II. 4Y + 2X = 23
79. I. X2 + 11X + 28 = 0
II. Y2 + 15Y + 56 = 0
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES


80. I. 2X – 4Y = 12
II. 4X – 2Y = 0
Questions 81 – 95: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The Prime Minister’ s recent trip to Nigeria, the first bilateral prime ministerial visit to Africa since Jawaharlal
Nehru’s 45 years ago, recalls a long neglected Indian obligation. “It is up to Asia to help Africa to the best of
her ability,” Nehru told the Bandung Conference in 1955, “because we are sister continents.” The Prime
Minister’s proposed strategic partnership with African nations might at last make good that 52 years old
promise and also, perhaps, challenge China’s expedient diplomacy.
In the intervening years, the West’s sanctimonious boycott of many African regimes – after nearly a century
of extreme colonial exploitation – left the continent in the grip of oppressive rulers looking for new political
sponsors, arms-sellers and trading partners. Not only was it an abdication of the developed world’s
responsibility to the world’s least developed region, sanctions actually compounded the sufferings of poorer
Africans. The Darfur killings continue and there is not mellowing of Robert Mugabe’s repression in Zimbabwe.
Abandoned by the West, Africa looked elsewhere. Beijing filled the vacuum by eagerly embracing dangerous
and unsavoury regimes in its search for oil and other minerals. China demonstrated its influence by playing
host to 48 out of 53 African leaders a year ago in a jamboree that was historic as well as historical. Historical
because China has succeeded in becoming the pre-eminent outside power in Africa and its second biggest
trading partner. Historical because modern Chinese diplomacy draws on the Middle Kingdom’s ancient
formula : the tribute system. It was how the Son of Heaven brought those nations whom the Celestial Empire
called “barbarians” into his imperial trading and, through it, cultural and political system.
Contemporary China’s economic penetration of Africa also heralds a new era of cultural and political ties
though the Chinese foreign ministry repeatedly assures the world that “our cooperation is not designed to be
against or preclude any third party. “This is untrue in a world of finite resources. Once the Chinese are
established in a country, no one else gets a foothold. Myanmar, where India failed to obtain the desired gas
concessions, is a prime example. Aware that the hunt for energy is a zero-sum game, China’s leadership
courts African leaders with regular visits and substantial grants.
After decades of neglect-Vajpayee’s Africa visit over a decade ago was to attend a Commonwealth Summit –
India will have to move cautiously but quickly if it is to break China’s monopoly. Along with investing in Africa’s
human capital, China has outlined a strategic investment plan to build three to five trade economic
cooperation zones in Africa by 2009 to boost trade, which is expected to tap $40 billion this year. That could
double to $30 billion by 2010 on the back of an insatiable demand for natural resources to feed China’s
booming economy.

81. What was Jawaharlal Nehru’s consideration for helping African nations?
(1) The people in the continent were extremely backward
(2) The Bandung Conference was held in African Continent
(3) African Continent is emotionally related to Asian continent
(4) Nehru had promised the British rulers to help Africa after independence
(5) The West had exploited African people
82. The example of Myanmar given by the author proves ________
(1) that when China patronizes a country it does not allow other nations to enter
(2) India’s foresight to feed its growing hunger for energy
(3) Myanmar’s political acumen to have symbiosis with China
(4) that a country’s political wisdom does not necessarily establish economic stability
(5) None of these
83. Which of the following is the author’s suggestion to India to break the Chinese monopoly?
(1) Move away cautiously but quickly form the African nations
(2) Arrange P.M.’s regular visits to African countries
(3) Outline a strategic plan of investment in the African countries
(4) Plan for an increased economic help to African countries
(5) None of these
84. From the contents of the passage, it can be inferred that the author’s views are _____
(1) in favour of India gaining an edge over China
(2) against India’s entering into a competition with China
(3) in favour of not making any investment in African countries
(4) appreciative of oppressive and barbaric African countries
(5) None of these
85. The author considers the claims of the Chinese Foreign Ministry regarding third party as ______
(1) just and worthy of trust
(2) true but slightly exaggerated
(3) too exorbitant to be true
(4) an underestimate of the quality and quantity o their help
(5) None of these
86. Which of the following best explains the term “Middle kingdom’s ancient formula”?
(1) Rendering free hand for political, cultural and commercial upliftment
(2) Influencing the underdeveloped countries through apparently patronizing policy
(3) Referring the underdeveloped folks as barbarians and mistreating them
(4) Becoming pre-eminent outside power and thus ruling over them
(5) None of these

87. Which of the following was/were the reason (s) for the backwardness of African Nations?
(A) Mistreatment by the alien rulers
(B) Tyrannical leaders governing the gullible masses
(C) Exploitation and neglect by Western countries
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (C) only (3) (A) and (C) only
(4) None (5) All the three
88. Why did African countries explore help from countries other than the Western countries?
(1) The Western countries had turned a blind eye to the African countries
(2) The Western countries were not able to maintain their own economy
(3) Other countries like China were ready to extend help without expecting returns
(4) The flow of help from Western countries was only lopsided nature
(5) None of these
89. China’s substantial grants to African countries are an act of _____
(1) China’s modern policy of rendering social service on humanitarian considerations
(2) stepping up its campaign of universal brotherhood among nations
(3) rendering selfless service to certain underdeveloped countries to beat the western countries
(4) calculated selfish motive to fulfil its energy needs
(5) None of these

Questions 90 – 92: Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used
in the passage.
90. Contemporary (1) Fashionable (2) Modern (3) Current (4) existing (5) Old
91. booming (1) striving (2) sounding (3) failing (4) thriving (5) degrading
92. preclude (1) disqualify (2) permit (3) prevent (4) pre-empt (5) include
Questions 93 – 95: Choose the word which his most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold
as used in the passage.
93. sanctimonious (1) permissive (2) incongruent (3) poetic (4) holy (5) scrupulous
94. abdication (1) abandonment (2) obligation (3) instigation(4) addiction(5) spiritualization
95. penetration (1) infiltration (2) entry (3) piercing (4) access (5) breaking
96. If the consonants are replaced by the previous letter in English alphabet and vowels are replaced by the
next letter in the English alphabet how will the word DESIGNER be written?
(1) EDRJFMFQ (2) CFRJFMFQ (3) CDRJFMFQ (4) CFRJHMFQ (5) None of these
97. In the number 576489 are arranged in ascending order how many digits will remain at the same
position?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
98. In a certain code RIDE is written as %#$@ and TAIL is written as ©*#∆, how is DATE written in that
code?
(1) ∆# ©@ (2) ∆*© @ (3) $# © @ (4) $©*@ (5) None of these

99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
(1) 85 (2) 79 (3) 71 (4) 73 (5) 83
100. What will be next letter in the following series?
AAAAABAABBAABBCAABBCCA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) cannot be determined

Questions 101 – 105: These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study
it carefully and answer the questions.
3 B E 4 # W 9 A 2 J K * 1 5 U Q R 7 F @ H I 6 $ V
101. How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel but not
immediately followed by a consonant?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
102. 6I : E4 : : A9 : ?
(1) 7F (2) F@ (3) R7 (4) 7R (5) None of these
103. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded
by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
104. Which element is sixth to the right of eleventh from the right end?
(1) # (2) @ (3) 1 (4) H (5) None of these
105. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) W9# (2) BE3 (3) 2JA (4) HI@ (5) RQ7

Questions 106 – 110: in each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right
should come after the problem figures one the left, if the sequence were continued?
106.
107.
108
109.
110.

Questions 111 – 115: Study the information carefully and answer the question that follow.
111. If 3 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that either all are red or all are green?
(1)
14
9 (2)
91
6 (3)
364
5 (4)
91
14 (5) None of these
112. If 2 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that none is red?
(1)
91
45 (2) 7
1 (3)
14
5 (4)
14
9 (5) None of these
113. If 3 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that two are red and one is blue?
(1) 7
3 (2)
91
3 (3)
1001
5 (4)
70
3 (5) None of these
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

114. If 4 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that either 2 are blue and 2 are red or 2 are green
and 2 are black?
(1)
91
14 (2)
182
3 (3)
14
3 (4)
91
36 (5) None of these

115. If 4 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that all are black?
(1)
7
2 (2)
7
3 (3)
1001
4 (4)
1001
6 (5) None of these

Questions 116 – 120: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of students (in thousands) Appearing (A) for a Competitive exam from
six Different States and Percentage Passing (P) the exam over the years
A = Appeared %P = Percentage passing
116. What is the total number of students passing in the exam from State B in the year 2002 and 2003
together?
(1) 1206 (2) 1068 (3) 1146 (4) 1226 (5) None of these
117. What is the respective ratio of number of students passing in the exam from state D in the year 2004 to
those passing in the exam form State E in the year 2007?
(1) 232 : 189 (2) 117 : 248 (3) 348 : 117 (4) 189 : 232 (5) None of these
118. Which State has the highest number of students appearing for the exam in all the years together?
(1) D (2) E (3) F (4) C (5) None of these
119. What is the total number of students passing in the exam in the year 2005 from all States together?
(1) 2836 (2) 2911 (3) 2624 (4) 2543 (5) None of these
120. The number of students passing in the exam from State D in the year 2006 is what percent of the total
number of students appearing from all States together in that year? (rounded of to two digits after
decimal)
(1) 4.12 (2) 2.86 (3) 4.07 (4) 3.18 (5) None of these
2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 Year
States A %P A %P A %P A %P A %P A %P
A 2.3 11 4.2 21 3.5 12 2.0 22 1.8 14 102 17
B 3.5 14 3.6 16 3.4 11 1.3 15 2.3 16 2.1 18
C 1.8 23 2.8 13 2.9 16 4.5 24 2.3 23 3.9 20
D 2.9 18 2.8 15 1.6 20 3.2 20 3.3 16 4.0 19
E 4.4 17 3.2 23 1.9 16 1.5 18 3.1 18 2.7 14
F 3.2 21 3.0 14 4.0 14 2.6 11 3.8 19 2.3 13

Questions 121 – 125: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and
the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit
Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit.
Given answer (3) if either I or II is implicit.
Given answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
Given answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.
Study the following sample question:

Statement : Go by aero plane to reach Bangalore from Mumbai quickly.
Assumptions : I. Mumbai and Bangalore are connected by aero plane service
II. There is no other means of going from Mumbai to Bangalore.
It is clear that assumption I is implicit in the statement. Assumption II is not Implicit in the statement. In fact,
the statement implies that there are other means to reach Bangalore from Mumbai but they take longer than
by aero plane. The answer, therefore, is (1) viz., only is implicit.
121. Statement : These mangoes are too cheap to be good.
Assumptions : I. When the mango crop is abundant, the prices go down.
II. The lower the selling price, the inferior is the quality of the commodity.
122. Statement : Although more amenities have been provided the fares have not been raised.
Assumptions : I. Fares are dependent on amenities provided.
II. Fares are independent of amenities provided.
123. Statement : “Wanted unmarried, presentable, matriculate girls between 19 and 22 able to
speak fluently in English to be trained as receptionists”.
Assumptions : I. Fluently in English is a pre-requisite for good performance as
receptionist.
II. Height does not matter in performing as receptionist.
124. Statement : Ten candidates who were on the waiting list could finally be admitted to the
Course.
Assumptions : I. Wait listed candidates do not ordinarily get admission.
II. A large number of candidates were on the waiting list.
125. Statement : In Mumbai railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach
their places of work on time.
Assumptions : I. Railway train is the most affordable mode of transport available in the
suburbs of Mumbai.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.

Questions 126 – 130: In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (1), (2), (3), (4) and
(5) is correct answer and indicate if on the answer sheet.
Given answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Given answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Given answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Given answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Given answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
126. Statements : Some phones are cells. All cells are batteries.
Some batteries are tools.
Conclusions : I. Some tools are cells.
II. Some batteries are phones.
127. Statements : All numbers are letters. Some letters are words.
Some words are symbols.
Conclusions : I. Some symbols are letters.
II. Some words are numbers.
128. Statements : All keys are cards. All cards are looks.
No keys are doors.
Conclusions : I. No lock is door.
II. Some locks are doors.
129. Statements : Some stars are plants. Some plants are trees.
All trees are flowers.
Conclusions : I. Some flowers are plants.
II. Some flowers are stars.
130. Statements : Some books are papers. All papers are files.
All files are records.
Conclusions : I. Some records are books.
II. Some files are papers.

ANSWERS
61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (4)
69. (1) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (5) 76. (5)
77. (4) 78. (5) 79. (2) 80. (1) 81. (5) 82. (1) 83. (5) 84. (5)
85. (5) 86. (2) 87. (5) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (5) 91. (3) 92. (3)
93. (4) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (5) 99. (1) 100. (1)
101. (3) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (4) 105. (5) 106. (4) 107. (4) 108. (3)
109. (3) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (1) 113. (2) 114. (5) 115. (5) 116. (5)
117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (2) 120. (4) 121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (5) 124. (4)
125. (4) 126. (2) 127. (4) 128. (4) 129. (1) 130. (5)


Questions 131 – 135: Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percent increase in Profit of three Companies over the years
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Year
Percentage Rise
Company A Company B Company C

131. What is percent increase in Profit of Company C in the year 2005 from the previous year?
(1) 10 (2) 45 (3) 5 (4) 25 (5) None of these
132. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the graph?
(1) Company C made the highest profit in the year 2005.
(2) The profit made by Company A in the year 2003 and 2004 was the same.
(3) Average profit made by company B over the years is more than the average profit made by
Company A over the years.
(4) Percent increase in profit of Company B in the year 2003 was less than its percent increase in
profit in the year 2002.
(5) None of these
133. What is the percent increase in percent increase in profit of Company C in the year 2004 from the
previous year?
(1) 25 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (5) None of these
134. What is the approximate average of the percent increase in Profit of Company A over the years?
(1) 22 (2) 37 (3) 48 (4) 26 (5) 42
135. If the profit of Company B in the year 2006 was Rs. 3.22 lakhs, what was its profit in the year?
(1) Rs. 3.1 lakhs (2) Rs. 3.08 lakhs (3) Rs. 2.3 lakhs
(4) Rs. 2.94 lakhs (5) None of these

Questions 136 – 140: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of Males (M) and Females (F) working in different
Departments of different Organizations
HR Accounts IT Marketing Production R & D Department
Organization M F M F M F M F M F M F
P 28 36 43 32 33 36 22 25 44 11 42 40
Q 25 28 32 20 38 36 23 20 48 8 38 40
R 26 34 40 21 30 32 18 16 53 12 36 39
S 22 26 35 20 49 46 26 15 58 10 34 38
T 18 24 36 16 50 48 24 21 56 12 38 32
U 20 32 30 28 45 48 28 19 52 15 40 29

136. Number of males working in the Accounts department of Organization Q form what percent of the total
number of people working in that Organization from all departments together? (rounded off to the
nearest integer)
(1) 9 (2) 15 (3) 4 (4) 19 (5) None of these
137. What is the respective ratio of total number of females working in the HR and Production departments
of Organization R to the total number of females working in the IT and R & D departments of
organization S?
(1) 18 : 23 (2) 42 : 23 (3) 21 : 43 (4) 23 : 18 (5) None of these
138. What is the total number of people working in the IT and Production department of Organization U?
(1) 186 (2) 128 (3) 160 (4) 153 (5) None of these

139. What is the average number of males working in the Marketing department of all organizations
together?
(1)
3
1 26 (2)
2
1 27 (3)
3
1 20 (4)
2
1 23 (5) None of these

140. Which Organisation has the highest number of females working in it from all departments together?
(1) S (2) P (3) U (4) R (5) None of these

Questions 141 – 145: In these questions symbols #, @, $, *, % are to be used with different meanings as
follow:
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
In each question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two
conclusions I & II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s) is /are
definitely true.

Mark answer (1) , If only conclusion I is true; mark answer (2) , if only conclusion II is true; mark answer
(3), if either conclusion I or II is true; mark answer (4), if neither I nor II is true and mark answer (5), if
both conclusions I and II are true.
141. Statements : T @ J, J * M, M $ B
Conclusions : I. T # M
II. J $ B
142. Statements : R # F, F @ K, K $ V
Conclusions : I. R # v
II. V # F
143. Statements : E @ A, A % F, F $ Q
Conclusions : I. E @ Q
II. Q * A
144. Statements : L # M, M % D, D * Q
Conclusions : I. M # Q
II. Q @ L
145. Statements : W $ F, F @ H, H # R
Conclusions : I. W # R
II. W $ R

Questions 146 – 150: In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of
number codes numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4). The group of letters is to be coded with the number codes and the
condition given below. The ‘serial number of the number combination’, which correctly represents the letter
group, is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct your answer is (5) i.e. ’None of these’.
Letters : D J K Q H V N E B A
Number Codes : 3 9 7 6 4 8 2 1 5 0
Condition : If the first of the last letter or both in the letter group is/are a vowel then the
same is/are to be coded by symbol #.
146. EHNDJV : (1) #42389 (2) 142398 (3) #42398 (4) 14239# (5) None of these
147. KQDJNH : (1) 763942 (2) 736924 (3) #36924 (4) #63924 (5) None of these
148. AJNVQE : (1) #9286# (2) 09286# (3) #92861 (4)092861 (5) None of these
149. QHJVND : (1) 648923 (2) 649823 (3) #49823 (4) 64892# (5) None of these
150. JKEDHA : (1) 97#34# (2) 971340 (3) 971430 (4) 97134# (5) None of these

Questions 151 – 155: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements number I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statement and ____
Given answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Given answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.
Given answer (3) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
Given answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Given answer (5) I the data both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
151. How is P related to Q?
Statements : I. Mother of P is daughter of R.
II. R is sister of Q
152. Among five friends A, B, C, D & E who is the youngest?
Statements : I. B & D are older than C & E.
II. C is older than only E
153. Tower R is in which direction with respect to Q?
Statements : I. M is to the East of Q and to the North of R
II. L is to the west of R and to the South of Q.
154. How many children are there in the row of children facing North?
Statements : I. Kavitha is twelfth from the left end of the row and is seventh to the right
of Nisha.
II. Nisha is twentieth from the right end of the row.
155. How many sons does ‘D’ have?
Statements : II. T & M are only brothers of R who is daughter of D.

Directions for questions 156 – 160: In each questions below, there are five problem figures. One of the
answer figures into the sequence as the sixth figure. Find out this figure. The number of this answer figure is
your answer.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161. What will be the circumference of a circle with area equal to 98.56 sq.m?
(1) 32.4 m. (2) 48.2 m. (3) 56.4 m.
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
162. What will be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 2,750/- @ 14 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3
years?
(1) Rs. 1.254.115 (2) Rs. 1.626.182 (3) Rs. 1, 324,246
(4) Rs. 1,482,184 (5) None of these
163. A 280 metres long train crosses a platform thrice it s length in 50 seconds. What is the speed of the
train in kms/hr.?
(1) 82.38 (2) 80.64 (3) 60.48 (4) 64.86 (5) None of these
164. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TEENAGE’ be arranged?
(1) 840 (2) 5040 (3) 1680 (4) 2520 (5) None of these
165. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days and 18 women can complete the same work in 32
days. 12 men and 6 women work together for 16 days. If the remaining work was to be completed in 2
days, how many additional men would be required besides 12 men and 6 women?
(1) 16 (2) 64 (3) 24 (4) 48 (5) None of these

Questions 166 – 170: What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
166. 3 860000 = ?
(1) 75 (2) 80 (3) 110 (4) 125 (5) 95
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES

167.
8
5 1 +
3
1 5 +
5
2 2 ?
(1) 15 (2) 4 (3) 19 (4) 125 (5) 21
168. 8769 ÷ 82 ÷ 4 = ?
(1) 27 (2) 44 (3) 428 (4) 12 (5) 512
169. 2% of 45.999 × 16% of 83.006 = 116.073
(1) 6 (2) 24 (3) 19 (4) 30 (5)11
170. 12.998 × 27.059 × 17.999?
(1) 6020 (2) 6330 (3) 6800 (4) 6540 (5) 6150

Questions 171 – 175: The first figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the
second figure. Similarly one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the second
figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the
question mark.

171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Questions 176 – 180: Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
176. What is the difference between the total number of men and the total number of women from all
colonies together?
(1) 250 (2) 0 (3) 100 (4) 50 (5) None of these
177. What is the average number of children from all colonies together?
(1)
3
1 708 (2)
2
1 622 (3)
3
1 683 (4)
2
1 712 (5) None of these
178. Total number of members from Colony F from approximately what percent of the total number of
members from all colonies together?
(1) 22 (2) 8 (3) 13 (4) 29 (5) 26
179. What is the respective ratio of number of men to the number of women of Colony E?
(1) 8 : 3 (2) 13 : 11 (3) 6 : 5 (4) 7 : 6 (5) None of these
180. Number of children from Colony B form what percent of the total number of members of that Colony?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 14 : 26 (2) 13 : 19 (3) 12 : 64 (4) 15 : 38 (5) 14 : 83

Questions 181 – 185: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Seven Officers A, B, C, D, E, F & G travel to different places – Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Pune,
Tirupati and Ahmedabad. Each of them is working in different departments – Accounts, Personnel, Marketing,
HR, Computers, PR and Security. The order of persons, places and departments is not necessarily the same.
B travels to Delhi and works in Personnel department. C goes to Hyderabad but does not work in Accounts or
computers. E does not travel to Kolkata or Tirupati and works in HR, F goes to Ahmedabad and works in
Marketting G works in Security Department but does not go to Kolkata or Bangalore. A goes to Tirupati, The
one goes to Kolkata does not work in Accounts.

181. G goes to which place?
(1) Tirupati (2) Ahmedabad (3) Delhi (4) Pune (5) None of these
182. Who works in Accounts department?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) C or D (5) None of these
183. C works in which department?
(1) Computers (2) Accounts (3) PR
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
184. Who works in Computer department?
(1) D (2) C (3) A (4) G (5) None of these
185. Who goes to Bangalore?
(1) D (2) E (3) F (4) D or E (5) None of these

Questions 186 – 190: In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right
should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Questions 191 – 200: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The __(191)__ of evil, as well as the approach to dealing with evil is __(192)__ In Eastern and Western
religious traditions and culture. The East __(193)__ that it is God’s job to deal with evil. The individual has
__(194)__ to do with it; he can only pray. It is the God who will take action to oust evil from our midst. In
certain religions there are specific deities responsible for __(195)__ evil forces. So the power of prayer is
appreciated; __(196)__ needs only to pray and deities will take care.
The Eastern approach will doubtless seem __(197)__ if not completely incomprehensible in the West
__(198)__ there is a much more action-oriented approach to dealing with evil. It is viewed as the __(199)__ of

the individual to take action against evil and to deal __(200)__.
191. (1) Concept (2) interaction (3) sublimation (4) influence (5) remedy
192. (1) similar (2) illogical (3) different (4) analogous (5) potential
193. (1) declines (2) describes (3) suspects (4) ignores (5) believes
194. (1) everything (2) nothing (3) lot (4) responsibility (5) hesitation
195. (1) invoking (2) stabilizing (3) mobilizing (4) counteraction (5) instigating
196. (1) one (2) which (3) who (4) he (5) deity
197. (1) reasonable (2) emotional (3) rationalistic (4) realistic (5) odd
198. (1) though (2) because (3) where (4) as (5) when
199. (1) monopoly (2) prerogative (3) right (4) responsibility (5) desire
200. (1) regularly (2) firmly (3) haphazardly (4) politely (5) decently

ANSWERS
131. (1) 132. (2) 133. (1) 134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (1) 137. (5) 138. (3)
139. (4) 140. (2) 141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (5) 144. (2) 145. (5) 146. (2)
147. (2) 148. (4) 149. (2) 150. (2) 151. (5) 152. (4) 153. (3) 154. (5)
155. (2) 156. (4) 157. (1) 158. (5) 159. (4) 160. (5) 161. (5) 162. (3)
163. (2) 164. (1) 165. (2) 166. (5) 167. (4) 168. (1) 169. (3) 170. (2)
171. (4) 172. (1) 173. (2) 174. (1) 175. (3) 176. (2) 177. (1) 178. (3)
179. (5) 180. (4) 181. (4) 182. (5) 183. (3) 184. (1) 185. (2) 186. (4)
187. (4) 188. (2) 189. (2) 190. (4) 191. (1) 192. (3) 193. (5) 194. (2)
195. (4) 196. (1) 197. (5) 198. (3) 199. (4) 200. (2)
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Old May 5th, 2014, 08:20 PM
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Default MHT CET previous year question papers

Will you please give me the MHT CET previous year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
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Old May 10th, 2014, 12:54 PM
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Default MHT CET previous year question papers

Will you please give me the MHT CET previous year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
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