KPLC previous year question papers

hello madam/sir
please i need previous year question papers of kpcl for the post of AE ELECTRICAL
please send me ssoon as possible
here my mail idallavigowda80@gmail.com

You are looking for Karnataka power corporation limited exam question paper, here I am giving;

The chronological order of strokes in a four stroke petrol engine is:
1] Suction stroke, working stroke, compression stroke and exhaust stroke.
2] Suction stroke, compression stroke, working stroke and exhaust stroke.
3] Compression stroke, working stroke, suction stroke and exhaust stroke.
4] Compression stroke, suction stroke, working stroke and exhaust stroke.

The enthalpy of steam is defined as:
1] Difference of internal energy and product of pressure and volume.
2] Product of internal energy and pressure.
3] Sum of internal energy and product of pressure and volume.
4] Amount of heat change divided by the absolute temperature.

Which of the following operations can be performed using a drilling machine?
A. Reaming B. Countersinking C. Spot Facing D.
Thread tapping
1] Only A, B and D 2] Only B, C and D 3] Only A, B and C 4] All of
these

Which of the following are the advantages of impulse turbine over reaction turbines?
A. Occupies less space per unit power.
B. Compounding is not necessary for speed reduction as the rotor speeds are usually low.
C. Suitable for high power generation.
1] B and C only 2] A only 3] C only 4] A and C only

Maximum power transfer through line V1= 110 kv, V2= 100kv, X=22 ohm is
a 500 MW
b 500 KW
c 250 MW
d 250 KW
Ans: 500 MW

Q.Which type of power plant requires maximum expenditure
a Hydel power plants
b Nuclear power plants
c Thermal power plants
d Gas based power plants

Q.Base load of a power station stands for
a 2-4 hours/day
b 4-8 hours/day
c 8-12 hours/day
d 12-24hours/day
Ans: 12-24hours/day

Q.A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line to protect from
a surge high voltage
b Direct lightning strocks
c indirect lightnin strocks
d Switching over voltages
Ans: Direct lightning strocks

Q.A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line acts as
a acts as a phase wire
b acts as neutral
c acts as a transmission wire
d acts as ground wire

Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic amplifier
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) none of above

The inductance is not used in lag network because of
(a) big size
b) time delay and hysteresis losses
(c) high reactance
(d) none of these

Saturation in a stable control system can cause
(a) conditional stability
(b) over damping
(c) low level oscillations
(d) high level oscillations

Excessive noise in control systems can cause
a) reduction in bandwidth
(b) reduction in gain
(c) saturation in amplifying stages
(d) oscillations

The type-0 system has
(a) net pole at the origin
(b) no pole at the origin
(c) simple at one origin
(d) two poles at the origin

In control systems, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because
(a) noise is proportional to bandwidth
(b) it leads to low relative stability
(c) it leads to slow speed of response
(d) none of these

In most systems, an increase in gain leads to
(a) larger damping ratio
(b) smaller damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
(d) none of these

A step function is applied to the input of a system and output is of the form y = t, the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) not necessarily stable
(d) conditionally stable

The function of the safety resistor in ohm meter is to
(a) limit the current in the coil
(b) increase the voltage drop across the coil
(c) increase the current in the coil
(d) protect the battery

Which of the following instruments is free from hysteresis and eddy current losses?
(a) M.l. instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) electrodynamometer type instrument
(d)all of these

The dielectric loss of a capacitance can be measured by
(a) Wien bridge
(b) Owen bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Maxwell bridge

Reed frequency meter is essentially a
(a) recording system
(b) deflection measuring system
(c) vibration measuring system
(d) oscillatory measuring system

In measurements made using a Q meter, high impedance elements should preferably be connected in
(a) star
(b) delta
(c) series
(d) parallel

A digital voltmeter measures
(a) peak value
(b) peak-to-peak value
(c) rms value
(d) average value

1. Pick out the one which does not belong to majority of items i.e; the odd thing
a. Leaf spring suspension
b. Coil spring suspension
d. Air suspension
Ans : A

2. Which of the following factors is not related to the effect of independent front suspension
a. Reducing the unsprung masses
b. Reducing tyre wear
d. Elimination of gyroscopic couples
Ans : D

3. The main function of the suspension system is best described as
a. Reducing the body movement
b. Reducing the accelerations to which the body is subjected
Ans : A

4. Helper springs are usually used
a. In heavy vehicles in suspension system to obtain a two stage spring rate
b. In vehicles to improve the load capacity of suspension system
d. To stiffen the suspension
Ans : A

5. Parts of the brake system include brake-shoes and
a. Master brake cylinder
b. Engine cylinders
Ans : C

6. In the power steering assembly having four valves, two distribution and two reaction during neutral, or straight- ahead driving, all four valves are
a. Fully closed
b. Partly open
Ans : C

7. As the steering wheel is turned a worm gear on steering shaft causes the end of the ………….. to swing toward one side or the other of the car
a. King pin
b. Steering gear
Ans : C

8. On the coaxial steering gear, the gear housing is lubricated
a. From the hydraulic system
b. From the worm housing
Ans : A

9. Turning the adjustment screw to make the over centre adjustment causes
a. End-wise movement of the ball nut
b. End-wise movement of the Pitman shaft
d. End-wise movement of steering shaft
Ans : A

10. Air resistance to a car at 20 km/hr is R .The air resistance at 40 km/hr would be
a. R
b. 2R
d. R2
Ans : C

11. Which one of the following is not apart of the chassis
a. Wheels
b. Front axle
d. Passenger seats
Ans : D

12. In the linkage type of power steering system, the piston rod is attached at one end to
a. A tie rod
b. A connecting rod
Ans : B

13. In the linkage type of power steering system, the swinging end of the pitman arm actuates
a. A spool valve
b. A tie rod
d. An idler lever
Ans : B

14. In the constant control power steering unit the spool valve is moved by
a. A pivot lever
b. A valve rotor
Ans : B

15. In the coaxial power steering unit, the spool valve
a. Rotates
b. Moves end-wise
Ans : A

16. In the Saginaw rotary valve unit, rotation of the valve spool from the neutral position results in application of hydraulic oil pressure from the oil pump to one or the other and of the
a. Pitman arm
b. Connecting rod
d. Disc clutch
Ans : C

17. In the Saginaw in line unit, end-wise movement of the valve spool is caused by reaction between the
a. Worm and ball nut
b. Piston and valve
Ans : B

18. In the Saginaw in line power steering unit, the valve spool is centered in neutral by
a. Centering springs
b. Oil pressure
d. Torsion bar
Ans : D

19. Three types of oil pumps used in power steering system are vane, roller and
a. Shoe
b. Slipper
Ans : C

20. The two basic types of power steering system are
a. Integral and valve
b. Booster and power
Ans : C

21. In the steering gear of the linkage connecting to the wheel, steering knuckle, a gear sector, stud or toothed roller is meshed with
a. A worm
b. A ball bearing
Ans : A

22. The steering gear is a device for converting the rotary motion of the steering wheel into
a. To and fro movement
b. Up and down movement
Ans : A

23. In the steering gear, a gear sector or toothed roller is meshed with
a. A Worm
b. A ball bearing
d. Steering wheel
Ans : A

24. The only time the steering wheel requires replacement would be
a. Wheel bearing replacement
b. An accident
Ans : B

25. As the steering wheel is turned a worm gear on the steering shaft causes the movement of the
a. King pin
b. Steering gear
Ans : C

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

I have applied for the Karnataka Power Corporation Limited Junior Engineer exam of Electrical so can you please provide me the previous year question paper of this exam so I can prepare from it?

As you need the Karnataka Power Corporation Limited (KPCL) Electrical exam Question Paper for Assistant and Junior Engineer post so here I am sharing the same

1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
a) Short lines only
b) Medium lines only
c) Long lines only
d) Any line
Ans: Long lines only

2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of
a) BJT and MOSFET
b) FCT and GTO
c) SCR and MOSFET
d) SCR and BJT
Ans: BJT and MOSFET

3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the
following conditions should be satisfied?
a) Half –controlled bridge, a < 90°, source of e.m.f. in load b) Half-controlled bridge, a > 90°,
source of e.m.f. in load
c) Full-controlled bridge, a > 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
d) Full-controlled bridge, a < 90°, source of e.m.f. in load Ans: Full-controlled bridge, a > 90°,
source of e.m.f. in load

4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching
application?
a) Power MOSFET
b) BJT
c) SCR
d) UJT
Ans: Power MOSFET

KPCL Question Papers
1. A 1.6 m3 capacity tractor loaded works at a site with an effective per-round-trip time of 64
seconds. Effective delivery of
excavated material is 90%. If utilization is 50 minutes per hour working, what will be the
productivity in a 4-hour shift?
(a) 253 m3
(b) 262 m3
(c) 270 m3
(d) 282 m3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Equipment) (Category)
A. Derrick crane 1. Excavating equipment
B.Hoe 2. Hauling equipment
C. Clamshell 3. Hoisting ‘equipment
D. Dumper Truck 4. Vertical lifting equipment
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
3. A 1.75 m3 capacity tractor loader has forward loaded speed of 240 m/min, returning unloaded
speed of 300 m/min and operates at
80% of the specified speed. It hauls earth over a distance of 60 m with fixed time per trip being 25
seconds. What is its effective
cycle time?
(a) 54.25 seconds
(b) 55.50 seconds
(c) 56.75 seconds
(d) 58.75 seconds
Ans. (d)
4. Which one of the following relates to determination of critical path in PERT?
(a) Event oriented slack
(b) Activity oriented float
(c) Event oriented float
(d) Activity oriented slack
Ans. (a)
5. In order to achieve a safe compressive strength of 20 kg/cm2 in a brick masonary, what should
be the suitable range of crushing
strength of bricks?
(a) 35kg/cm2 to 70 kg/cm2
(b) 70 kg/cm2 to 105 kg/cm2
(c) 105 kg/cm2 to 125 kg/cm2
(d) More than 125 kg/cm2
Ans. (b)
6. What is the requirement of water (expressed as % of cement w/w) for the completion of
chemical reactions in the process of
hydration of OPC?
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 15 to 20%
(c) 20 to 25%
(d) 25 to 30%
Ans. (c)
7. Which factors comprise maturity of concrete?
(a) Compressive strength and. flexural strength of concrete /
(b) Cement content per cubic metre and compressive strength of concrete
(c) Curing age and curing temperature of concrete
(d) Age and aggregate content per cubic metre of concrete
Ans. (c)
8. What is the minimum value of individual tests results (in N/mm2) for compressive strength
compliance requirement for concrete
M20 as per codal provision?
(a) fck 1
(b) fck 3
(c) fck 4
(d) fck 5
Ans. (c)
9. For what reason is it taken that the nominal maximum size of aggregate may be as large as
possible?
(a) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the cement required and so higher the strength.
(b) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, smaller is the cement requirement for particular water
cement ratio and so more
economical the mix.
(c) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, lesser are the voids in the mix and hence also lesser the
cement required.
(d) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the surface area and better the bond between
aggregates and cement, and so higher
the strength.
Ans. (d)
10. What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm2)?
(a) 0.5 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.25
(c) 1.25 to 1.5
(d) 1.5 to 1.75
Ans. (b)
11. What is the treatment for making timber fire- resistant?
(a) ASCU treatment
(b) Abel’s process
(c) Creosoting
(d) Tarring
Ans. (b)
12. How is the process of treatment of wood using a preservative solution and forcing air in at
pressure designated?
(a) Ruping process
(b) Lawri process
(c) Full cell process
(d) Empty cell process
Ans. (d)
13. Modular bricks are of nominal size 20 × 10 × 10cm and 20% of the volume is lost in mortar
between joints. Then what is the
number of modular bricks required per cubic meter of brick work?
(a) 520
(b) 500
(c) 485
(d) 470
Ans. (d)
14. A solid metal of uniform sectional area throughout its length hangs vertically from its upper
end. Devails of the bar are:
length = 6m, material density = 8 × 10-5 N/mm3 and B =2 × 1o5 N/mm2. What will be the total
elongation of the bar in mm?
(a) 288/104
(b) 48/104
(c) 144/104
(d) 72/104
Ans. (d)
15. What is the representative geometric mean size of an aggregate sample if its fineness modulus
is 3.0?
(a) 150 µm
(b) 300 µm
(c) 600 µm
(d) 12 µm
Ans. (c)
16. A square steel bar of 50 mm side and 5m long is subjected to a load where upon it absorbs a
strain energy of 100 J. What is
its modulus of resilience?
(a) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
(b) 125 mm3/Nmm
(c) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
(d) 100 mm3/Nmm
Ans. (a)
17. What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the characteristic compressive strength of
concrete (fck) for M25 grade concrete?
(a) 0.08
(b) 0.11
(c) 0.14
(d) 0.17
Ans. (c)
18. Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of
concrete?
(a) Compression test
(b) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
(c) Split test
(d) Tension test
Ans. (b)
19. Which one of the following is correct regarding the most effective requirements of durability in
concrete?
(a) Providing reinforcement near the exposed concrete surface
(b) Applying a protective coating to the exposed concrete surface
(c) Restricting the minimum cement content and the maximum water cement ratio and the type of
cement
(d) Compacting the concrete to a greater degree.
Ans. (c)
20. What is the radius of Mohr’s circle in case of bi-axial state of stress?
(a) Half the sum of the two principal stresses
(b) Half the difference of the two principal stresses
(c) Difference of the two principal stresses
(d) Sum of the two principal stresses
Ans. (b)
21. A square beam laid flat is then rotated in such a way that one of its diagonal becomes
horizontal. How is its moment capacity
affected?
(a) Increases by 41.4%
(b) Increases by 29.27%
(c) Decreases by 29.27%
(d) Decreases by 41.4%
Ans. (d)
22. A timber beam is 100 mm wide and 150 mm deep. The beam is simply supported and carries a
central concentrated load W. If the
maximum stress in shear is 2 N/mm2, what would be the corresponding load W on the beam?
(a) 20 kN
(b) 30 kN
(c) 40 kN
(d) 25 kN
Ans. (c)
23. A 40 mm diameter shaft is subjected to a twisting moment M2. If shear stress developed in
shaft is 5 N/mm2,.What is the value of
the twisting moment?
(a) 628.8 Nm
(b) 328.4 Nm
(c) 62.8 Nm
(d) 30.4 Nm
Ans. (c)
24. A fixed end beam of uniform cross-section is loaded uniformly throughout the span. What is the
proportion of the bending
moment at the centre to the end moment considering only elastic conditions?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
Ans. (b)
25. Steel of yield strength 400 MPa has been used in a structure. What is the value of the maximum
allowable tensile strength?
(a) 240 MPa
(b) 200 MPa
(c) 120 MPa
(d) 96 MPa
Ans. (a)

For the complete question paper here is the attachment;

Attached Files Available for Download

	KPCL Question Papers 1.pdf (35.5 KB, 24 views)
	KPCL Question Papers 2.pdf (42.6 KB, 23 views)
	KPCL Question Papers 3.pdf (42.7 KB, 26 views)

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member