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Old June 4th, 2014, 03:41 PM
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Default Re: IIT JAM M.Sc Biotechnology question papers

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1. Lysine is an amino acid with three ionizable groups. These are the α-COOH, α-amino and
ε-amino groups with pKa values of 2.2, 9.2 and 10.8, respectively. The isoelectric point
(pI) for lysine is
(A) 5.7
(B) 6.5
(C) 9.2
(D) 10.0
2. Which of the following pair of vitamins participates as cofactors in the cellular oxidationreduction
(A) Pyridoxine and folate
(B) Riboflavin and cobalamine
(C) Ascorbate and nicotinamide
(D) Thiamine and pantothenate
3. Erythrocyte glucose transporter specifically transports glucose down its concentration
gradient and exhibits hyperbolic saturation kinetics. This is an example of
(A) Active mediated transport
(B) Passive mediated transport
(C) Non-mediated transport
(D) Group translocation
4. The oligosaccharide part of glycoproteins is either N-linked or O-linked. The amino acid
residues through which these oligosaccharides are attached to polypeptide are
(A) Asn and Thr
(B) Asp and Ser
(C) Ser and Lys
(D) Gln and Ser
5. Choose the right combination of components required to set up a polymerase chain
reaction from the following
(A) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA ligase
(B) Template DNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA ligase
(C) Template RNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA polymerase
(D) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA polymerase
6. The DNA restriction site recognized by the enzyme Hind III is –
AAGCTT . Which of the
following sequence contained in a double stranded DNA is cut by Hind III?
(A) Only Q
(B) Both Q and R
(C) Only R
(D) All of them
7. A bacterial culture contained 32x106 cells after 2.5 hours of exponential growth. If the
doubling time was 30 min, what was the initial population number in this culture?
(A) 20x104 cells
(B) 10x105 cells
(C) 40x105 cells
(D) 16x106 cells
8. The correct match between Group I and Group II is
Group I Group II
P. Amphotericin B 1. Reverse transcriptase inhibition
Q. Azidothymidine (AZT) 2. Sterol binding and disruption of membrane
R Nalidixic acid 3. Blocks glycosylation
S. Tunicamycin 4. DNA gyrase inhibition
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
9. Most accurate method to determine the molecular weight of a given polypeptide is
(A) Gel permeation chromatography
(C) Analytical ultracentrifugation
(D) MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry
10. The quantity of bacteriophages in a given sample is best given as
(A) Colony forming units (CFU)
(B) Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
(C) Plaque forming units (PFU)
(D) Lethal dose 50% (LD50)
11. Inter-conversion of glucose and fructose occurs with an equilibrium constant of 1.0.
Glucose isomerase catalyzes this reaction. The final concentration of fructose at
equilibrium from 40 mM glucose is
(A) 40 mM
(B) 20 mM
(C) 10 mM
(D) 0 mM
12. Cori cycle integrates body metabolism to
(A) resynthesize glucose from lactate in the liver
(B) oxidize acetyl CoA in the muscle
(C) generate urea in the kidney
(D) generate glucose from acetyl CoA in the liver
13. In a molecule of glycogen we find
(A) one reducing end and one non-reducing end
(B) many reducing ends and one non-reducing end
(C) one non-reducing end and many branch points
(D) one reducing end and many non-reducing ends
14. ABO blood group classification is based on the surface antigen of erythrocytes. The
nature of this antigen is
(A) peripheral membrane protein
(B) integral membrane protein
(C) sphingoglycolipid
(D) glycoprotein
15. The citric acid cycle is a metabolic device to oxidize acetyl CoA and conserve the
liberated free energy for ATP generation. In this cycle there are
(A) two decarboxylations and two oxidations
(B) two decarboxylations and four oxidations
(C) one decarboxylation and three oxidations
(D) one decarboxylation and one oxidation
16. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, doubling the amount of enzyme leads to a change in
which of the following?
(A) Vmax
(B) kcat
(C) kcat/Km
(D) Km
17. Growing E. coli cells, when shifted from 37°C to 20°C, maintain their membrane fluidity
by modifying the following parameters
(A) Fatty acid chain length and sterol content
(B) Fatty acid chain length and unsaturation
(C) Fatty acid unsaturation and sterol content
(D) E. coli cannot maintain membrane fluidity
18. Discharge of proton concentration gradient across membrane is coupled to the formation
of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This process occurs in which of the
P. Oxidative phosphorylation
Q. Substrate level phosphorylation
R. Photophosphorylation
S. Protein phosphorylation
(A) Q and S
(B) Q and R
(C) P and Q
(D) P and R
19. Forging of an ecosystem on which of the following is an example of ‘primary
P. Freshwater lake
Q. Bare rock
R. Sand-dune
S. Abandoned field
(A) P,R,S
(B) P,Q,S
(C) P,Q,R
(D) Q,R,S
20. Gardeners pinch off the tips of plants to stimulate their side growth. Which one of the
following is implicated in this phenomenon?
(A) Abscisic acid
(B) Auxin
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Gibberellin
21. Pure plasmid DNA was isolated from a bacterium. Restriction enzyme digestion of this
plasmid with either Bam HI or Eco RI resulted in two DNA fragments. A double
digestion of the same plasmid with both these enzymes resulted in three DNA fragments.
From this we can conclude that the isolated plasmid DNA is
(A) Double stranded and linear
(B) Double stranded and circular
(C) Single stranded and linear
(D) Single stranded and circular
22. The taxonomic resolution between Archaea and Eubacteria was highlighted using the
following by Carl Woese
(A) Serological techniques
(B) Protein electrophoresis patterns
(C) Gram staining
(D) rRNA studies
23. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the nature of viroids and
(A) Viroids are DNA and prions are RNA
(B) Viroids are protein and prions are RNA
(C) Viroids are RNA and prions are protein
(D) Both are made of protein
24. How many types of leukocytes are present in the mammalian circulatory system?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
25. Choose the combination of statements that are correct for the cerebrum of the human
P. It is the largest part of brain
Q. Controls the pituitary hormone secretion
R. Involved in coordinating the movements of the body
S. Receives and processes the sensory information
(A) PQ
(B) QR
(C) PS
(D) QS
26. The synthesis of proteins requires 20 standard amino acids in the living systems.
However, some organisms use selenocysteine as an additional amino acid for
synthesizing proteins. Selenocysteine is biosynthesized from
(A) Cysteine
(B) Serine
(C) Threonine
(D) Proline
27. A mRNA coding for a secretory protein, when translated using free ribosome under in
vitro conditions, resulted in a 40 kDa protein. The same mRNA when translated using the
rough endoplasmic reticulum resulted in a 36 kDa protein. The difference in the
molecular weight of the two polypeptides is due to the loss of a
(A) 2 kDa peptide from N-terminus and a 2 kDa peptide from the C-terminus
(B) 1 kDa peptide from N-terminus and a 3 kDa peptide from the C-terminus
(C) 4 kDa peptide from the N-terminus
(D) 4 kDa peptide from the C-terminus
28. Which of the following can be used for transferring the DNA into the host cells?
P. Transformation
Q. Sonication
R. Transfection
S. Electroporation
(A) Only P can be used
(B) Only Q & R can be used
(C) Only Q, R & S can be used
(D) Only P, R & S can be used
29. Choose the statement that is NOT correct for the cytoskeletal protein actin
(A) α-actins are found in various types of muscles
(B) Polymerization of pure actin in vitro requires GTP
(C) Actin filaments have a slow growing minus end and a fast growing plus end
(D) Cytochalasins are the inhibitors for actin polymerization
30. Mast cells contain vesicles that store large amounts of histamine. After staining with
eosin, these vesicles are stained red in colour. Identify which of the following interactions
is involved between histamine and eosin?
(A) Hydrophobic interaction
(B) Electrostatic interaction
(C) Covalent bonding
(D) Hydrogen bonding
31. A culture of the Bacillus brevis when transferred to moisture free conditions
(A) utilizes glucose as the only carbon source
(B) undergoes division thus increasing it’s number
(C) undergoes sporulation
(D) all of the above are observed
32. The purification of an antigen using the corresponding antibodies conjugated to
agarose is an example of
(A) Affinity chromatography
(B) Gel filtration chromatography
(C) Ion exchange chromatography
(D) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
33. Choose the correct match from A, B, C & D
Group I Group II
P. 5’ capping of mRNA 1. 5-methyl guanosine
Q. Ribozyme 2. Polyadenylate transferase
R. Promoter 3. Spliceosome
S. Poly-(A)+ tail 4. 7-methyl guanosine
5. RNA polymerase
6. Catalytic RNA
7. Polyadenylate polymerase
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-1 P-4 P-1 P-4
Q-6 Q-6 Q-5 Q-3
R-5 R-5 R-3 R-6
S-2 S-7 S-7 S-2
34. Choose the correct match from A, B, C & D
Group I Group II
P. IgA 1. Basophils
Q. IgE 2. δ heavy chain
R. IgG 3. Secretory component
S. IgM 4. Pentamer
5. Crosses placenta
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-3 P-3 P-2 P-2
Q-1 Q-5 Q-3 Q-1
R-5 R-2 R-5 R-3
S-4 S-1 S-4 S-5
35. Choose the correct combination of statements from the following for MHC II protein
P. Has α1, α 2, β1 and β 2 domains
Q. α 1 and β 1 are the polymorphic domains
R. Involved in presenting antigen to cytotoxic T cells
S. Only α chain is glycosylated
(A) QR
(B) RS
(C) PS
(D) PQ
36. Identify the amino acid with uncharged polar side chain
(A) Proline
(B) Tryptophan
(C) Glutamine
(D) Arginine
37. The A260/A280 ratio of a DNA sample was observed to be 1.2. An increase in this ratio
can be obtained by subjecting the DNA sample to
(A) phenol extraction
(B) trichloroacetic acid treatment
(C) butanol extraction
(D) all of the above can be used
38. Which of the following statements is FALSE for the nitric oxide gas?
(A) An intracellular signaling molecule
(B) Deamination of histidine results into nitric oxide production
(C) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase to produce cGMP
(D) Can be produced by activated neutrophils
39. G-proteins are involved in relaying signals through G-protein linked receptors. Which
of the following forms of G-protein is considered to be in active state?
(A) G-protein - ADP
(B) G-protein - ATP
(C) G-protein - GDP
(D) G-protein - GTP
40. Choose the correct match from A, B, C & D
Group I Group II
P. Epinephrine 1. Uterine contractions
Q. Parathormone 2. Water resorption
R. Oxytocin 3. Ca2+ uptake
S. Luteinizing hormone 4. Glycogen breakdown
5. Thyroid hormone synthesis
6. Progesterone secretion
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-1 P-5 P-5 P-4
Q-2 Q-6 Q-2 Q-3
R-5 R-1 R-3 R-1
S-6 S-2 S-4 S-6
41. The ‘A’ fragment of diphtheria toxin catalyzes the addition of an ADP-ribose group to the
eukaryotic elongation factor EF-2. The source for the ADP-ribose group is
(C) NAD+
42. The nucleotide sequence of DNA involved in binding to a transcription factor can
be determined by
(A) DNA footprinting
(B) S1 nuclease treatment
(C) DNA fingerprinting
(D) Northern hybridization
43. A culture of Mycobacterium leprae was subjected to alkaline ethanol extraction prior
to acid fast staining. The colour of the culture following staining will be
(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue
44. The primer of the lagging strand during DNA replication is removed by
(A) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
(B) DNA primase
(C) 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
(D) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
45. Compare the CH3-C bond lengths in propene with that of ethane
(A) bond length shorter in propene
(B) bond lengths are equal
(C) bond length longer in propene
(D) bond lengths cannot be compared
46. 2,4-Dimethylcyclobutane-1,3-dicarboxylic acid is optically inactive because it has
(A) plane of symmetry
(B) centre of symmetry
(C) the capability of rotating plane polarized light
(D) neither a plane nor a centre of symmetry
47. Compare the pKa values of the following acids:
(i) formic acid (ii) acetic acid (iii) monochloroacetic acid (iv) dichloroacetic acid
(A) (iv) < (iii) < (i) < (ii)
(B) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(C) (i) < (ii) < (iii) > (iv)
(D) (iv) < (iii) < (i) < (ii)
48. Excess Br2 water reacts with salicylic acid: predict the product
Br Br
Br Br
Br Br
49. By heating a mixture of methylamine and chloroform with ethanolic KOH a typical
product is produced. Hydrolysis of the product with HCl gives back methylamine.
Identify the typical product?
(B) (CN)2
(C) N2H4
50. What organic compound would be obtained when diazonium sulfate solution is boiled or
steam distilled?
(A) aniline
(B) biphenyl
(C) phenol
(D) benzoic acid
51. To determine the strength of glycine in water a mixture of an aqueous solution of glycine
and formalin is titrated against standard NaOH because
(A) basic character of the amine group of glycine is suppressed
(B) nitrogen is removed from glycine
(C) formalin stabilizes the zwitterionic form of glycine
(D) a new inner salt of glycine results
52. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) forms a chelate compound with Mg(II) ion in
water at pH 10. How many ring structures are produced surrounding the Mg(II) ion by the
EDTA molecule?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 2
53. K4[Fe(CN)6] produces intense blue coloured compound with Fe(III) ions in solution. The
colour is due to
(A) crystal defects in the blue compound
(B) d-d transition in Fe(III) ions only
(C) the electron transfer from one oxidation state of iron ion to the other
(D) evolution of solvated electron in aqueous medium
54. The stretching frequency for free CO molecule is ~2143 cm-1. In Fe(CO)5 molecule the
stretching frequency for CO becomes
(A) ~2240 cm-1
(B) ~2030 cm-1
(C) remain unchanged
(D) cannot be predicted
55. The degree of hydration for the compounds NaCl, KCl, MgCl2 and BaCl2 follows the
(A) MgCl2>BaCl2KCl
(B) MgCl2NaCl=KCl
(C) NaCl>KCl>BaCl2>MgCl2
(D) MgCl2>BaCl2>NaCl>KCl
56. Yellow CrO4
2- is easily converted to orange Cr2O7
2- by any acid. This transformation is
(A) dimerisation reaction
(B) disproportionation reaction
(C) oxidation reaction
(D) reduction reaction
57. Upon mixing and aqueous solution of blue CuSo4 solution with excess KCN, which on of
the following complex compound is produced?
(A) K4[Cu(CN)4]
(B) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(C) K4[Cu(CN)6]
(D) [Cu(CN)2(OH)2]
58. Consider the cyclic process ABCA on a sample of 2.0 mol of an ideal gas as shown in
The temperatures of the gas at A and B are 300 K and 500 K, respectively. A total of
1200 J heat is withdrawn from the sample in the process. Find the work done by the gas
in part BC (R = 8.3 J/mol-K)
(A) 4520 J
(B) 0
(C) -4520 J
(D) -9000 J
59. If heat is supplied to an ideal gas in an isothermal process
(A) the gas will do positive work
(B) the internal energy of the gas will increase
(C) the gas will do negative work
(D) the said process is not possible
60. The flow of solvent molecules from pure solvent side to the solution side takes place
during osmosis. This causes a decrease in the difference of chemical potential of solvent
on either side
(A) hydrostatic pressure increases on either sides
(B) false
(C) chemical potential has no role to play
(D) true
61. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The first excitation potential of the
hydrogen atom is
(A) higher than 13.6 eV
(B) lower than 13.6 eV
(C) same
(D) twice the ionization energy
62. Under standard condition can KMnO4 produce O2 from water in the presence of a mineral
acid? (Given half cell potential 1.51 V for MnO4
-/Mn2+ and O2/H2O in acid 1.22 V)
(A) the reaction is not possible
(B) the reaction needs air
(C) the reaction is possible
(D) the reaction needs photon
63. The hydrolysis of ethyl acetate by acetic acid produced in the reaction also catalyzes the
reaction. If the initial concentration of ethyl acetate is ‘a’ and that of acetic acid is ‘b’ &
‘x’ is the amount of ethyl acetate hydrolyzed at time ‘t’. The rate of reaction will be
(A) k(a+x)(b+x)
(B) k(a-x)(b+x)
(C) k(a-x)(b-x)
(D) k(a+x)(b-x)
64. On passing monochromatic light through a 0.04 molar solution in a cell of 1 cm path
length, the intensity of the transmitted light was reduced to 50%. Calculate the molar
extinction coefficient of the solute in the solution (given log 2 = 0.3010).
(A) 0.75 liter mol-1 cm-1
(B) 75 liter mol-1 cm-1
(C) 750 liter mol-1 cm-1
(D) 7.5 liter mol-1 cm-1
65. Kilowatt-hour is the unit of
(A) Power
(B) Energy
(C) Current
(D) Voltage
66. The dimensional formula of surface tension in terms of the dimensions of mass (M),
length (L) and time (T) is
(A) MT-2
(B) MLT-2
(C) MT-1
(D) ML-1T-2
67. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) Light rays travel through vacuum.
(B) Gamma rays travel through vacuum.
(C) Sound waves travel through vacuum.
(D) Sound waves travel through solids.
68. A body moves from A to B in a straight line with a uniform speed of 60 m/s and returns
to B with a uniform speed of 40 m/s. The average speed of the body for the complete
motion is
(A) 50 m/s
(B) 45 m/s
(C) zero
(D) 48 m/s
69. Two particles have their masses and the kinetic energies both in the ratio 1:2. Then the
ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths will be
(A) 1:2
(B) 1:4
(C) 2:1
(D) 4:1
70. Four equal resistances are connected in such a way that they form a square loop. If the
value of each resistance is R, the resistance between any two diagonally opposite points
will be
(A) R 2
2 2
(D) R
71. One kilogram of cotton and one kilogram of iron have the same weight. If they are placed
on an equal-arm balance kept in air, which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Both the arms will be at the same level.
(B) The arm with the cotton will be at the lower level.
(C) The arm with the iron will be at the lower level.
(D) The arms keep oscillating.
72. A radioactive material containing N0 number of nuclei at time t=0 decays with a decay
constant λ. The number of nuclei that will undergo decay in time t is
(A) t e N λ
(B) λt e N −
(C) ( ) t e N λ − − 1 0
(D) t N λ 0
73. An alternating current t I I ω sin 0 = , where ω is the angular frequency, is passed through a
resistor whose resistance is R. The thermal energy developed in the resistor during one
time period (T) of the alternating current is
(A) RT I 2
0 RT I
(C) zero
0 RT I
74. Impurity energy levels in the case of an n-type semiconductor are situated
(A) Just above the top of the valence band.
(B) Just below the bottom of the conduction band.
(C) Exactly at the middle of the gap between the valence and conduction bands.
(D) Within the conduction band.
75. The separation between the slits in the Young’s double slit apparatus is 0.1 mm. If the
wavelength of light used is 500 nm, the separation between the successive bright fringes
of the interference pattern obtained on a screen kept at a distance of 1 m from the slits is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 5 mm
(D) 2.5 mm
76. If the radii of orbits of two planets around the sun are in the ratio 1:4, their time periods of
revolution about the sun will be in the ratio
(A) 1:8
(B) 1:6
(C) 1:4
(D) 1:2
77. The ratio of the molar heat capacities at constant pressure and at constant volume
( v p C C ) of a diatomic gas at room temperature is
(A) 5/2
(B) 7/5
(C) 7/2
(D) 5/3
78. The radii of curvature of a biconvex lens are 24 cm each. If the refractive index of the
material of the lens is 1.6, the focal length of the length is
(A) 20 cm
(B) zero
(C) 7.5 cm
(D) 12 cm
79. Total internal reflection occurs when
(A) Light enters a rarer medium from a denser medium and the angle of incidence is
more than the critical angle.
(B) Light enters a denser medium from a rarer medium and the angle of incidence is
more than the critical angle.
(C) Light enters a rarer medium from a denser medium and the angle of incidence is
less than the critical angle.
(D) Light enters a denser medium from a rarer medium and the angle of incidence is
less than the critical angle.
80. A uniform solid sphere of a conducting material is given a charge +Q. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?
(A) No work needs to be done to move a unit positive charge on the surface of the
(B) Electrostatic potential at the centre of the sphere is zero.
(C) Electric field at the centre of the sphere is zero.
(D) Electric field is zero everywhere inside the sphere.
81. A solid block of a material floats in water (density of water = 1 g/cm3) with 60 % of its
volume submerged in water. If it floats in an oil with 90 % of its volume submerged, the
density of the oil is
(A) 0.67 g/cm3
(B) 0.50 g/cm3
(C) 1.50 g/cm3
(D) 1.00 g/cm3
82. Two infinitely long straight wires carrying steady currents I1 and I2 in the same direction
are kept parallel to each other, with a distance of separation d between them. Then,
(A) There is no force between the wires.
(B) There is a repulsive force between the wires.
(C) There is a force parallel to the wires, between them.
(D) There is a force of attraction between the wires.
83. If the points (x, 0.1), (2, 3) and (4, 5) are collinear, then the value of x is
(A) –1.1
(B) –0.9
(C) 0.9
(D) 1.1

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