IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous year Question Papers

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1. Lysine is an amino acid with three ionizable groups. These are the α-COOH, α-amino and ε-amino groups with pKa values of 2.2, 9.2 and 10.8, respectively. The isoelectric point (pI) for lysine is
(A) 5.7
(B) 6.5
(C) 9.2
(D) 10.0

2. Which of the following pair of vitamins participates as cofactors in the cellular oxidationreduction reactions?
(A) Pyridoxine and folate
(B) Riboflavin and cobalamine
(C) Ascorbate and nicotinamide
(D) Thiamine and pantothenate

3. Erythrocyte glucose transporter specifically transports glucose down its concentration gradient and exhibits hyperbolic saturation kinetics. This is an example of
(A) Active mediated transport
(B) Passive mediated transport
(C) Non-mediated transport
(D) Group translocation

4. The oligosaccharide part of glycoproteins is either N-linked or O-linked. The amino acid residues through which these oligosaccharides are attached to polypeptide are
(A) Asn and Thr
(B) Asp and Ser
(C) Ser and Lys
(D) Gln and Ser

5. Choose the right combination of components required to set up a polymerase chain
reaction from the following
(A) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA ligase
(B) Template DNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA ligase
(C) Template RNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA polymerase
(D) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA polymerase

6. The DNA restriction site recognized by the enzyme Hind III is –
TTCGAA
AAGCTT .
Which of the following sequence contained in a double stranded DNA is cut by Hind III?
ATTCATGC ATGCGA (S) CTTATGC ATGCAAG (R)
CGAAATGC ATGCTT (Q) AAGATGC ATGCCTT (P)
(A) Only Q
(B) Both Q and R
(C) Only R
(D) All of them

7. A bacterial culture contained 32x106 cells after 2.5 hours of exponential growth. If the
doubling time was 30 min, what was the initial population number in this culture?
(A) 20x104 cells
(B) 10x105 cells
(C) 40x105 cells
(D) 16x106 cells

8. The correct match between Group I and Group II is

Group I Group II
P. Amphotericin B 1. Reverse transcriptase inhibition
Q. Azidothymidine (AZT) 2. Sterol binding and disruption of membrane
permeability
R Nalidixic acid 3. Blocks glycosylation
S. Tunicamycin 4. DNA gyrase inhibition
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
9. Most accurate method to determine the molecular weight of a given polypeptide is
(A) Gel permeation chromatography
(B) SDS-PAGE
(C) Analytical ultracentrifugation
(D) MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry
10. The quantity of bacteriophages in a given sample is best given as
(A) Colony forming units (CFU)
(B) Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
(C) Plaque forming units (PFU)
(D) Lethal dose 50% (LD50)
11. Inter-conversion of glucose and fructose occurs with an equilibrium constant of 1.0.
Glucose isomerase catalyzes this reaction. The final concentration of fructose at
equilibrium from 40 mM glucose is
(A) 40 mM
(B) 20 mM
(C) 10 mM
(D) 0 mM
12. Cori cycle integrates body metabolism to
(A) resynthesize glucose from lactate in the liver
(B) oxidize acetyl CoA in the muscle
(C) generate urea in the kidney
(D) generate glucose from acetyl CoA in the liver
13. In a molecule of glycogen we find
(A) one reducing end and one non-reducing end
(B) many reducing ends and one non-reducing end
(C) one non-reducing end and many branch points
(D) one reducing end and many non-reducing ends
14. ABO blood group classification is based on the surface antigen of erythrocytes. The
nature of this antigen is
(A) peripheral membrane protein
(B) integral membrane protein
(C) sphingoglycolipid
(D) glycoprotein
15. The citric acid cycle is a metabolic device to oxidize acetyl CoA and conserve the
liberated free energy for ATP generation. In this cycle there are
(A) two decarboxylations and two oxidations
(B) two decarboxylations and four oxidations
(C) one decarboxylation and three oxidations
(D) one decarboxylation and one oxidation

16. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, doubling the amount of enzyme leads to a change in
which of the following?
(A) Vmax
(B) kcat
(C) kcat/Km
(D) Km
17. Growing E. coli cells, when shifted from 37°C to 20°C, maintain their membrane fluidity
by modifying the following parameters
(A) Fatty acid chain length and sterol content
(B) Fatty acid chain length and unsaturation
(C) Fatty acid unsaturation and sterol content
(D) E. coli cannot maintain membrane fluidity
18. Discharge of proton concentration gradient across membrane is coupled to the formation
of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This process occurs in which of the
following?
P. Oxidative phosphorylation
Q. Substrate level phosphorylation
R. Photophosphorylation
S. Protein phosphorylation
(A) Q and S
(B) Q and R
(C) P and Q
(D) P and R
19. Forging of an ecosystem on which of the following is an example of ‘primary
succession’?
P. Freshwater lake
Q. Bare rock
R. Sand-dune
S. Abandoned field
(A) P,R,S
(B) P,Q,S
(C) P,Q,R
(D) Q,R,S
20. Gardeners pinch off the tips of plants to stimulate their side growth. Which one of the
following is implicated in this phenomenon?
(A) Abscisic acid
(B) Auxin
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Gibberellin
21. Pure plasmid DNA was isolated from a bacterium. Restriction enzyme digestion of this
plasmid with either Bam HI or Eco RI resulted in two DNA fragments. A double
digestion of the same plasmid with both these enzymes resulted in three DNA fragments.
From this we can conclude that the isolated plasmid DNA is
(A) Double stranded and linear
(B) Double stranded and circular
(C) Single stranded and linear
(D) Single stranded and circular

22. The taxonomic resolution between Archaea and Eubacteria was highlighted using the
following by Carl Woese
(A) Serological techniques
(B) Protein electrophoresis patterns
(C) Gram staining
(D) rRNA studies
23. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the nature of viroids and
prions?
(A) Viroids are DNA and prions are RNA
(B) Viroids are protein and prions are RNA
(C) Viroids are RNA and prions are protein
(D) Both are made of protein
24. How many types of leukocytes are present in the mammalian circulatory system?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
25. Choose the combination of statements that are correct for the cerebrum of the human
brain
P. It is the largest part of brain
Q. Controls the pituitary hormone secretion
R. Involved in coordinating the movements of the body
S. Receives and processes the sensory information
(A) PQ
(B) QR
(C) PS
(D) QS
26. The synthesis of proteins requires 20 standard amino acids in the living systems.
However, some organisms use selenocysteine as an additional amino acid for
synthesizing proteins. Selenocysteine is biosynthesized from
(A) Cysteine
(B) Serine
(C) Threonine
(D) Proline
27. A mRNA coding for a secretory protein, when translated using free ribosome under in
vitro conditions, resulted in a 40 kDa protein. The same mRNA when translated using the
rough endoplasmic reticulum resulted in a 36 kDa protein. The difference in the
molecular weight of the two polypeptides is due to the loss of a
(A) 2 kDa peptide from N-terminus and a 2 kDa peptide from the C-terminus
(B) 1 kDa peptide from N-terminus and a 3 kDa peptide from the C-terminus
(C) 4 kDa peptide from the N-terminus
(D) 4 kDa peptide from the C-terminus
28. Which of the following can be used for transferring the DNA into the host cells?
P. Transformation
Q. Sonication
R. Transfection
S. Electroporation
(A) Only P can be used
(B) Only Q & R can be used
(C) Only Q, R & S can be used
(D) Only P, R & S can be used

29. Choose the statement that is NOT correct for the cytoskeletal protein actin
(A) α-actins are found in various types of muscles
(B) Polymerization of pure actin in vitro requires GTP
(C) Actin filaments have a slow growing minus end and a fast growing plus end
(D) Cytochalasins are the inhibitors for actin polymerization
30. Mast cells contain vesicles that store large amounts of histamine. After staining with
eosin, these vesicles are stained red in colour. Identify which of the following interactions
is involved between histamine and eosin?
(A) Hydrophobic interaction
(B) Electrostatic interaction
(C) Covalent bonding
(D) Hydrogen bonding
31. A culture of the Bacillus brevis when transferred to moisture free conditions
(A) utilizes glucose as the only carbon source
(B) undergoes division thus increasing it’s number
(C) undergoes sporulation
(D) all of the above are observed
32. The purification of an antigen using the corresponding antibodies conjugated to
agarose is an example of
(A) Affinity chromatography
(B) Gel filtration chromatography
(C) Ion exchange chromatography
(D) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
33. Choose the correct match from A, B, C & D

Group I Group II
P. 5’ capping of mRNA 1. 5-methyl guanosine
Q. Ribozyme 2. Polyadenylate transferase
R. Promoter 3. Spliceosome
S. Poly-(A)+ tail 4. 7-methyl guanosine
5. RNA polymerase
6. Catalytic RNA
7. Polyadenylate polymerase
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-1 P-4 P-1 P-4
Q-6 Q-6 Q-5 Q-3
R-5 R-5 R-3 R-6
S-2 S-7 S-7 S-2
34. Choose the correct match from A, B, C & D

Group I Group II
P. IgA 1. Basophils
Q. IgE 2. δ heavy chain
R. IgG 3. Secretory component
S. IgM 4. Pentamer
5. Crosses placenta
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-3 P-3 P-2 P-2
Q-1 Q-5 Q-3 Q-1
R-5 R-2 R-5 R-3
S-4 S-1 S-4 S-5

35. Choose the correct combination of statements from the following for MHC II protein
P. Has α1, α 2, β1 and β 2 domains
Q. α 1 and β 1 are the polymorphic domains
R. Involved in presenting antigen to cytotoxic T cells
S. Only α chain is glycosylated
(A) QR
(B) RS
(C) PS
(D) PQ
36. Identify the amino acid with uncharged polar side chain
(A) Proline
(B) Tryptophan
(C) Glutamine
(D) Arginine
37. The A260/A280 ratio of a DNA sample was observed to be 1.2. An increase in this ratio
can be obtained by subjecting the DNA sample to
(A) phenol extraction
(B) trichloroacetic acid treatment
(C) butanol extraction
(D) all of the above can be used
38. Which of the following statements is FALSE for the nitric oxide gas?
(A) An intracellular signaling molecule
(B) Deamination of histidine results into nitric oxide production
(C) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase to produce cGMP
(D) Can be produced by activated neutrophils
39. G-proteins are involved in relaying signals through G-protein linked receptors. Which
of the following forms of G-protein is considered to be in active state?
(A) G-protein - ADP
(B) G-protein - ATP
(C) G-protein - GDP
(D) G-protein - GTP
40. Choose the correct match from A, B, C & D

Group I Group II
P. Epinephrine 1. Uterine contractions
Q. Parathormone 2. Water resorption
R. Oxytocin 3. Ca2+ uptake
S. Luteinizing hormone 4. Glycogen breakdown
5. Thyroid hormone synthesis
6. Progesterone secretion
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-1 P-5 P-5 P-4
Q-2 Q-6 Q-2 Q-3
R-5 R-1 R-3 R-1
S-6 S-2 S-4 S-6
41. The ‘A’ fragment of diphtheria toxin catalyzes the addition of an ADP-ribose group to the
eukaryotic elongation factor EF-2. The source for the ADP-ribose group is
(A) FAD
(B) FMN
(C) NAD+
(D) NADP+

42. The nucleotide sequence of DNA involved in binding to a transcription factor can
be determined by
(A) DNA footprinting
(B) S1 nuclease treatment
(C) DNA fingerprinting
(D) Northern hybridization
43. A culture of Mycobacterium leprae was subjected to alkaline ethanol extraction prior
to acid fast staining. The colour of the culture following staining will be
(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue
44. The primer of the lagging strand during DNA replication is removed by
(A) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
(B) DNA primase
(C) 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
(D) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
45. Compare the CH3-C bond lengths in propene with that of ethane
(A) bond length shorter in propene
(B) bond lengths are equal
(C) bond length longer in propene
(D) bond lengths cannot be compared


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IIT JAM Biotechnology Question Paper

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