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1. If you want to reform education, you will begin at—
(A) Primary Level
(B) Secondary Level
(C) Graduate Level
(D) All of these
Ans. (C)

2. Ideal education is helpful in the following—
(A) A person’s livelihood
(B) A person’s self-dependence
(C) Enhancement in a person’s prestige
(D) Making a person into an intellectual
Ans. (B)

3. If you win a lottery, what will you do with the money?
(A) Purchase a house
(B) Visit tourist places
(C) Purchase a car
(D) Open a school
Ans. (D)

4. Following is a mean of ‘Distance Education’—
(A) Television
(B) Radio
(C) Newspaper
(D) Magazines
Ans. (A)

5. Why is the knowledge of first-aid essential for a teacher?
(A) Students may need first-aid any time
(B) Teacher needs it for his own health
(C) For the treatment of children, when they get injured in sports ground
(D) It increases the knowledge of a teacher
Ans. (A)

6. Adult education is for—
(A) Illiterate adults
(B) School going adults
(C) Normal adult people
(D) All of these
Ans. (A)

7. When your student performs well you will—
(A) Express your happiness
(B) Admire him
(C) Feel jealous
(D) Remain quiet
Ans. (B)

8. Generally, if students are informed about their performances soon after the examination is over, it is effective in—
(A) Humiliating them
(B) Punishing them
(C) Tempting them
(D) Strengthening their inspiration
Ans. (C)

9. What should be done to maintain discipline among students?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
Ans. (B)

10. Which quality is most important for students?
(A) Hard work
(B) Obedience
(C) Humility
(D) Independent thinking
Ans. (D)

11. What will you do if your students do not take interest in studies?
(A) You will take interest in your teaching
(B) You will make your teaching more interesting
(C) You will give examples of meritorious students
(D) You will try to know the reason for lack of interest
Ans. (D)

12. Generally, it is believed that a teacher should be with the students.
(A) Strict and unapproachable
(B) Strict and introvert
(C) Respectable, but friendly
(D) Independent and approachable
Ans. (C)

13. If a student is not able to answer in your class then you will—
(A) Ask another student to answer
(B) Ask easier question
(C) Punish him
(D) Ask him to sit down
Ans. (A)

14. What will be your reaction when an otherwise punctual student comes late in your class?
(A) You will ignore it
(B) You will try to know the reason for coming late
(C) You will scold him before other students in the class
(D) Ask him to leave the class
Ans. (B)

15. If a student avoids meeting others then—
(A) He should be left alone
(B) He should be involved in group activities
(C) He should be asked to meet others
(D) He should be compelled to meet his classmates
Ans. (B)

16. You worship God because—
(A) Your friends tell you to do so
(B) It gives you inner strength
(C) You have religious atmosphere at home
(D) You fear God
Ans. (B)

17. Which of the following is most appropriate about your honesty?
(A) I am the most honest person
(B) I have done all my tasks with a sense of duty
(C) I never accepted any gift for any work
(D) I have turned down so many tempting offers
Ans. (B)

18. If a person talks bad about your parents before you, what will you do?
(A) Tell him to shut up
(B) Listen him carefully
(C) Break relationship with him
(D) Join him in this act
Ans. (A)

19. What is the most effective way to reform the aggressive behaviour of a child?
(A) He should be kept in isolation
(B) Reasons for this behaviour should be investigated
(C) He should be punished severely
(D) He should be ignored
Ans. (B)

20. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of school on time?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
Ans. (D)

21. What should a teacher do when examinations are near?
(A) Complete the syllabus by calling students at his home
(B) Complete the syllabus by devoting extra time in school
(C) Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
(D) Help them solving with important questions
Ans. (B)

22. How will you resolve you differences with your colleague?
(A) By arguing before other colleagues
(B) Complain to the Principal
(C) Resolve it mutually by trying to know the reason for this
(D) By ridiculing him
Ans. (C)

23. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher?
(A) His authority on his subject
(B) His being social
(C) His attractive personality
(D) His being rich
Ans. (A)

24. All teachers in school should be punctual because—
(A) This will make students also punctual
(B) Students will understand the importance of time
(C) This will inculcate good habit in students
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)

25. There is fear of social-evils affecting the schools. What will be your attitude to prevent it?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Similar to other teachers
(D) Indifferent
Ans. (A)

Reasoning


1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?

ACE, FGH, ?, PON

(A) KKK

(B) JKI

(C) HJH

(D) IKL

Ans. (A)

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?

(A) Script

(B) Pen

(C) Paper

(D) Book

Ans. (B)

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?

(A) Furniture

(B) Forest

(C) Fire

(D) Carpenter

Ans. (D)

4. acme : mace :: alga: ?

(A) glaa

(B) gaal

(C) laga

(D) gala

Ans. (D)

5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?

(A) UTOPTU

(B) UOTUPT

(C) TUOUTP

(D) TUOTUP

Ans. (D)

6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is

related to—

(A) Teacher

(B) School

(C) Student

(D) Tuition

Ans. (C)

7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—

S, V, Y, B, ?

(A) C

(B) D

(C) E

(D)G

Ans. (C)

8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following

series?

3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20

(A) 11

(B) 10

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans. (D)

9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.

AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?

(A) IYZ

(B) HWX

(C) IWX

(D) JWX

Ans. (C)

10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following

series?

1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?

(A) 48

(C) 52

(B) 49

(D) 56

Ans. (B)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the

other three.

11. (A) Bokaro

(B) Jamshedpur

(C) Bhilai

(D) Agra

Ans. (D)

12. (A) January

(B) February

(C) July

(D) December

Ans. (B)

13. (A) Bible

(B) Panchsheel

(C) Geeta

(D) Quran

Ans. (B)

14. (A) Star

(B) Sun

(C) Sky

(D) Moon

Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following

would be the 14th letter from your left?

(A) N

(B) L

(C) O

(D) None of these

Ans. (D)

16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is

12th from the left?

(A) V

(B) T

(C) W

(D) Y

Ans. (B)

17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is

10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?

(A) V

(B) X

(C) W

(D) I

Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a

certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to

that group?

18. (A) Green

(B) Red

(C) Colour

(D) Orange

Ans. (C)

19. (A) Rabbit

(B) Crocodile

(C) Earthworm

(D) Snail

Ans. (A)

20. (A) Polo

(B) Chess

(C) Ludo

(D) Carrom

Ans. (A)

21. (A) Sun

(B) Universe

(C) Moon

(D) Star

Ans. (B)

22. (A) Cheese

(B) Milk

(C) Curd

(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)

23. (A) Carrot

(B) Radish

(C) Potato

(D) Brinjal

Ans. (D)

24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is

‘prohibition’ written in that code?

(A) NOITIBIHORP

(B) IHORPBITION

(C) ITIONBIHOTP

(D) IHORPBNOITI

Ans. (D)

25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a

code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?

(A) VSS

(B) URR

(C) VTT

(D) UTF

Ans. (C)

26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be

written in the same code as—

(A) CBIECD

(B) CIBCED

(C) CBICED

(D) CIBECD

Ans. (B)

27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801,

then the code for BETTER is—

(A) 213310

(B) 213301

(C) 123301

(D) 012334

Ans. (A)

28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue,

blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a

certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?

(A) Blue

(B) Fish

(C) Rain

(D) Pink

Ans. (C)

29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He

again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In

which direction he is walking now?

(A) East

(B) West

(C) North

(D) South

Ans. (B)

30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn

with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards

left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?

(A) East

(B) West

(C) North

(D) South

Ans. (D)

31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is

taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the

tallest?

(A) Manish

(B) Pushpa

(C) Namita

(D) Nageena

Ans. (A)

32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as

Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks

than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in

the descending order of marks?

(A) Meena

(B) Rupali

(C) Raj

(D) None of these

Ans. (C)

33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or

daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the

girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?

(A) Sister in law

(B) Grand daughter

(C) Daughter in law

(D) None of these

Ans. (B)

34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has

neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit

and Billoo?

(A) Uncle—Nephew

(B) Father—Daughter

(C) Father—Son

(D) Grandfather—Grandson

Ans. (C)

35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a

weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who

was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the

application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and

disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the

application was received by the inward clerk?

(A) Tuesday

(B) Earlier week’s Saturday

(C) Wednesday

(D) Monday

Ans. (C)

36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I

learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10

: 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?

(A) 2 : 20 a.m.

(B) 3 : 30 a.m.

(C) 3 : 55 p.m.

(D) 3 : 20 p.m.

Ans. (D)

37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those

who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition

and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?

(A) 44

(B) 40

(C) 50

(D) 55

Ans. (D)

38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they

interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is

Indra’s position from the left?

(A) 21st

(B) 19th

(C) 23rd

(D) 20th

Ans. (D)

39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are

immediately preceded by 7?

8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Ans. (A)

40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are

immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?

6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Ans. (C)

41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—

(A) MENOPM

(B) MENOMP

(C) NJOGPM

(D) MNJOPM

Ans. (D)

42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be

coded

in the same manner as—

(A) CJCEFQPYWC

(B) CJGERQTYVG

(C) CNCERQPCRG

(D) GJGAVMTYVC

Ans. (D)

43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..

(A) Drink

(B) Fish

(C) Wash

(D) Swim

Ans. (B)

44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………

(A) Injure

(B) Peel

(C) Prick

(D) Attack

Ans. (B)

45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are

there in that row?

(A) 26

(B) 32

(C) 24

(D) 35

Ans. (D)

46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked

17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are

after her in the rank?

(A) 26

(B) 12

(C) 10

(D) 33

Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related

to …….

(A) Education

(B) Teacher

(C) Student

(D) Class

Ans. (D)

48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is

related to………

(A) Coin

(B) Money

(C) Cheque

(D) Rupee

Ans. (D)

49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………

(A) Ear

(B) Hearing

(C) Noise

(D) Commotion

Ans. (B)

50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………

(A) Present

(B) Future

(C) Today

(D) Hopeless

Ans. (B)

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in

ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending

order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number

from your right ?

479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Ans : (C)

2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in

which direction of P ?

(A) North

(B) North-East

(C) South

(D) South-East

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the

questions that follow—

On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below

facing the North.

(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.

(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B

(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.

(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.

3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many

metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all

through ?

(A) 120

(B) 150

(C) 170

(D) 230

Ans : (D)

4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E

?

(A) 53

(B) 78

(C) 92

(D) 120

Ans : (C)

5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) E

Ans : (A)

6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife

said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the

opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?

(A) North

(B) West

(C) South

(D) East

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of

numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.

7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)

(A) (8, 14, 22)

(B) (10, 15, 25)

(C) (6, 12, 23)

(D) (12, 17, 26)

Ans : (D)

8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)

(A) (4, 11, 14)

(B) (9, 12, 15)

(C) (8, 13, 18)

(D) (6, 9, 12)

Ans : (A)

9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)

(A) (21, 35, 52)

(B) (18, 42, 65)

(C) (16, 40, 72)

(D) (13, 30, 58)

Ans : (C)

10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)

(A) (84, 67, 52)

(B) (52, 25, 17)

(C) (70, 49, 36)

(D) (65, 45, 21)

Ans : (A)

1. Given set : (246, 257, 358)

(A) (233, 343, 345)

(B) (273, 365, 367)

(C) (143, 226, 237)

(D) (145, 235, 325)

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements

followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which

the statements are logically related.

12. (1) All books are having pages.

(2) All kings are having pages.

(3) All kings are books.

(4) Some heavy things are having pages.

(5) Some heavy things are books.

(6) Some books are heavy.

(7) Some heavy things are having pages.

(A) 1, 2, 3

(B) 6, 1, 4

(C) 4, 6, 1

(D) 1, 5, 7

Ans : (D)

13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.

(2) All cricket players are athletes.

(3) Some athletes play cricket.

(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.

(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.

(6) All athletes are vegetarians.

(A) 1, 2, 5

(B) 3, 4, 1

(C) 1, 5, 2

(D) 2, 5, 6

Ans : (A)

14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.

(2) No man is a grandmother.

(3) Some men do not cook well.

(4) All those who cook well are men.

(5) No one who cooks well is a man.

(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.

(7) Some men are not grandmothers.

(A) 2, 6, 5

(B) 2, 5, 6

(C) 1, 4, 2

(D) 6, 4, 7

Ans : (B)

15. (1) Looting is a crime.

(2) Some crooked people are criminals.

(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.

(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.

(5) All criminals are looked down in society.

(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.

(A) 1, 4, 6

(B) 3, 6, 2

(C) 1, 2, 6

(D) 3, 4, 2

Ans : (D)

16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.

(2) Some men are those who have patience.

(3) No man is a woman.

(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.

(5) Some who are successful in life are men.

(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.

(A) 1, 3, 6

(B) 4, 2, 6

(C) 1, 5, 3

(D) 2, 4, 5

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question

and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the

data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answers—

(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the

question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to

answer the question;

(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the

question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to

answer the questions;

(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not

sufficient to answer the question;

(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to

answer the question.

17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?

I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.

II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.

Ans : (C)

18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?

I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the

number of girls in that class.

II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and

their average age is 19 years.

Ans : (B)

19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?

I. A is taller than C.

II. B is taller than C and D.

Ans : (C)

20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year

?

I. The month begins on Monday.

II. The month ends on Wednesday.

Ans : (D)

21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?

I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.

II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a

statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An

assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to

consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the

assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has

decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.

Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market

during this season.

II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.

III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop

immediately after harvest.

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I and II are implicit

(C) Only II and III are implicit

(D) All are implicit

Ans : (D)

23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a

need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of

scientific discoveries in daily life.

Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able

to earn their livelihood.

II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.

III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage

themselves in self employment.

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only III is implicit

(C) Only I and III are implicit

(D) None is implicit

Ans : (A)

24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided

to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.

Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.

II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.

III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.

(A) All are implicit

(B) Only II and III are implicit

(C) Only I and II are implicit

(D) None is implicit

Ans : (C)

25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper,

visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.

Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after

seeing the name in the advertisement.

II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.

III. People may come to see the product.

(A) All are implicit

(B) None is implicit

(C) Only II and III are implicit

(D) Only I and II are implicit

Ans : (A)

26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to

refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.

Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.

II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.

III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.

(A) All are implicit

(B) None is implicit

(C) Both II and III are implicit

(D) Both I and II are implicit

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are

followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right

although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark

your answers as under—

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If both I and II follows.

(D) Neither I nor II follows.

27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.

2. All machines are wheels.

Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.

II. All hands are wheels.

Ans : (B)

28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.

2. Some leaves are red.

Conclusions :

I. Some buds are red.

II. Some leaves are not buds.

Ans : (B)

29. Statements :

1. Some stones are shells.

2. All shells are pearls.

Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.

II. All pearls are shells.

Ans : (A)

30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.

2. Green is pink and yellow is red.

Conclusions :

I. Yellow is brown.

II. Pink is blue.

Ans : (C)

31. Statements :

1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.

2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.

Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.

II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a

particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The

following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.

Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689

Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689

Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689

Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689

Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689

Step IV is the last step of input.

32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the

following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?

(A) II

(B) III

(C) IV

(D) I

Ans : (B)

33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the

following input ?

Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857

(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 6

Ans : (A)

34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?

Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358

(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358

(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358

(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358

(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358

Ans : (C)

35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth

step ?

Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977

(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977

(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977

(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977

(D) Can’t be determined

Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?

Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549

(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549

(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549

(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549

(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below it—

(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They

are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.

(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.

(3) The Manager D is married to A.

(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.

(5) B is the mother of F and E.

(6) There are two married couples in the family.

(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.

37. What is the profession of E ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Engineer

(C) Manager

(D) Psychologist

Ans : (B)

38. How is A related to E ?

(A) Brother

(B) Uncle

(C) Father

(D) Grandfather

Ans : (D)

39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?

(A) One

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Two

Ans : (B)

40. What is the profession of A ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Lawyer

(C) Jeweller

(D) Manager

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?

(A) AB

(B) AC

(C) AD

(D) AE

Ans : (C)

42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a

group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Papaya

(B) Mango

(C) Jackfruit

(D) Watermelon

Ans : (C)

43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their

positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does

not belong to that group ?

(A) SPEAK : PZVKH

(B) HUSKY : BPGFS

(C) BRAIN : MRZIY

(D) BREAK : PZVIY

Ans : (B)

44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way

while one is different. Find out which one is different ?

(A) DJWR

(B) EKXR

(C) KQDX

(D) AGTN

Ans : (A)

45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a

certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) GWOURV

(B) LZKMSU

(C) SFXPMG

(D) JOEHNP

Ans : (C)

46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all

pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in

which the words are differently related.

(A) Watt : Power

(B) Ampere : Current

(C) Pascal : Pressure

(D) Radian : Degree

Ans : (D)

47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series

starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series

observes this rule ?

(A) ONLKI

(B) OMKIG

(C) OMJFA

(D) OIGDC

Ans : (C)

48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered

position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in

alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X

and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?

(A) E

(B) O

(C) T

(D) I

Ans : (D)

49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which

the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?

(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the

dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

(1) Dissipate

(2) Dissuade

(3) Disseminate

(4) Distract

(5) Dissociate

(6) Dissect

(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5

(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4

(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2

Ans : (A)

51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are

followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule

?

(A) SUXADF

(B) RVZDFG

(C) HKNGSW

(D) RVZDHL

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are

coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given

in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in

the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find

out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the

code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—

Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)

NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)

UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)

PIN (5) (10) (5)

PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)

OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)

ONE (0) (5) (0)

CUT (5) (10) (5)

SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)

DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)

52. VINA

(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)

(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)

(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)

(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)

Ans : (B)

53. AGE

(A) (0) (15) (0)

(B) (15) (15) (15)

(C) (0) (10) (10)

(D) (0) (5) (0)

Ans : (D)

54. PEAR

(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)

(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)

(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)

(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)

Ans : (A)

55. TIN

(A) (0) (5) (0)

(B) (5) (0) (5)

(C) (0) (10) (0)

(D) (5) (10) (5)

Ans : (D)

56. UNIT

(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)

(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)

(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)

(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)

Ans : (C)

57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5

are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth

digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right

?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Ans : (C)

58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are

substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R.

The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2.

What number is assigned to K ?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 7

(D) 11

Ans : (B)

59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise

of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial

order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the

3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?

8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 4

Ans : (D)

60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number

after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after

reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?

645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans : (A)


1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?

(A) Barnard’s Star

(B) Sirius A

(C) Alpha Centauri A

(D) Proxima Centauri

Ans : (D)

2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute

approximately—

(A) 5•8%

(B) 4•5%

(C) 2•59%

(D) 1•2%

Ans : (C)

3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—

(A) Chess

(B) Hockey

(C) Badminton

(D) Bridge

Ans : (A)

4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—

(A) Orissa

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Karnataka

Ans : (D)

5. Balance of Payments means—

(A) Difference between export and imports

(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters

(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists

(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States

Ans : (A)

6. A light year is equivalent to about—

(A) 365 days

(B) Six million miles

(C) Six billion miles

(D) Six trillion miles

Ans : (D)

7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—

(A) Slovakia

(B) Scandinavia

(C) Netherlands

(D) Australasia

Ans : (B)

8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—

(A) Sonar

(B) Radar

(C) Laser

(D) Maser

Ans : (A)

9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to

ammend Constitution ?

(A) 376

(B) 370

(C) 368

(D) 390

Ans : (C)

10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?

(A) Dawn

(B) Deluxe

(C) Demor

(D) Dewey

Ans : (D)

11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—

(A) N. R. Finsen

(B) T. A. Edison

(C) J. L. Baird

(D) Berliner

Ans : (B)

12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?

(A) Love

(B) Peace

(C) Prophecy

(D) Medicine

Ans : (C)

13. NASA’s new space telescope is—

(A) Wise

(B) Rise

(C) Barack

(D) Telle

Ans : (A)

14. Bull fighting is the national game of—

(A) Italy

(B) Poland

(C) Spain

(D) Sudan

Ans : (C)

15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to

introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal

Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of

the book ?

(A) Sound of Hills

(B) Sparsh Ganga

(C) Heaven

(D) Amrit

Ans : (B)

16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her

contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?

(A) Ela Bhatt

(B) Jhumpa Lahiri

(C) Punam Suri

(D) Mandakni Apte

Ans : (A)

17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement

with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?

(A) February 28

(B) February 21

(C) February 11

(D) February 4

Ans : (D)

18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic

period was called—

(A) Bali

(B) Vidatha

(C) Varman

(D) Kara

Ans : (B)

19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—

(A) Red blood cells

(B) Neutrophils

(C) Lymphocytes

(D) Platelets

Ans : (C)

20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—

(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol

(B) Hyper text transfer protocol

(C) Higher transfer text protocol

(D) Higher text transfer protocol

Ans : (B)

(Quantitative Aptitude)

1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times

the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is:
(1) 4236 (2) 4306
(3) 4336 (4) 5336

2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is:
(1) 730/77 (2) 73/77
(3) 7.3/77 (4) 703/77

3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and

Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed

Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi?
(1) 55 (2) 65
(3) 62 (4) 70

4. The square root of 3 + “5 is :

(1) “3 /2 + 1/”2 (2) “3 /2 - 1/”2
(3) “5 /2 - 1/”2 (4) “(5/2) + “(1/2)

5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to

Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of

Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday?
(1) 36.50C (2) 360C
(3) 35.50C (4) 340C

6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits.

If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is:

(1) 72 (2) 32
(3) 27 (4) 23

7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C

joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C

now?
(1) 24 (2) 27
(3) 28 (4) 30

8. If 2^(2x-1) = 8^(3-x), then the value of x is:
(1) -1 (2) -2
(3) 2 (4) 3

9. A man’s basic pay for a 40 hours’ week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid

at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and

his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours):
(1) 52 (2) 56
(3) 58 (4) 62

10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3

successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of

40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees):
(1) 200 (2) 255
(3) 400 (4) 433

11. Rs. 600 are divided among A, B, C so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of

A’s share, Rs. 20 more that 2/7 th of B’s share and Rs. 10 more than 9/17

th of C’s may all be equal. What is A’s share (in Rupees)?
(1) 150 (2) 170
(3) 200 (4) 280

12. A, B, C started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 :

5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as

C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the

end of the year was:
(1) 5 : 6 : 10 (2) 6 : 5 :10
(3) 10 : 5 : 6 (4) 4 : 3 : 5

13. If 9 men working 71/2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20

days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day

to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as

much as 3 men of the former type?

(1) 91/2 (2) 11
(3) 121/2 (4) 13

14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After working

at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the

remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill

the cistern is:
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 16 (4) 18

15. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in

the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be

100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?
(1) 111 (2) 123
(3) 127 (4) 129

16. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as

to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 4 (4) 6

17. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit

and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in

kg.) sold at 18% profit is:

(1) 560 (2) 600
(3) 400 (4) 640

18. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070

after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:
(1) 8800 (2) 8890

(3) 8920 (4) 9040

19. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of

it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an

embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:

(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3
(3) 3/4 (4) 3/5

20. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of

46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:

(1) 11 (2) 13

(3) 15 (4) 17


ANSWERS

1. (4), 2. (2), 3. (1), 4. (4), 5. (2) 6. (3), 7. (1), 8. (3), 9. (2),

10. (2) 11. (1), 12. (1), 13. (3), 14. (2), 15. (1) 16. (4), 17. (2), 18.

(3), 19. (2), 20. (4)


NUMERICAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?

(A) 13.14

(B) 12.96

(C) 12.43

(D) 13.34

(E) None of these

2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?

(A) 867.8

(B) 792.31

(C) 877.5

(D) 799.83

(E) None of these

3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921

(A)20.2

(B) 24.2

(C)23.1

(D) 19.2

(E) None of these

4.576÷ ? x114=8208

(A)8

(B)7

(C)6

(D)9

(E) None of these

5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?

(A)9

(B)6

(C)7

(D)8

(E) None of these

6. ?125÷5x ?=6265

(A)1253

(B) 1250

(C)1245

(D) 1550

(E) None of these

7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?

(A)7182

(B) 7269

(C)7260

(D) 7240

(E) None of these

8.384×12×2=?

(A)9024

(B) 9216

(C)6676

(D) 6814

(E) None of these

9.6534÷40÷33=?

(A)3.06

(B) 5.25

(C)4.82

(D) 6.12

(E) None of these

10. ?2704 x ?2209=?

(A)1996

(B)2444

(C)2452

(D)1983

(E)None of these


11.2536+4851—?=3450+313

(A)3961

(B)4532

(C)3624

(D)4058

(E) None of these

12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?

(A)7512

(B) 9746

(C)6523

(D) 8024

(E) None of these

13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750

(A)73

(B)89

(C)82

(D)75

(E) None of these

14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?

(A)1824

(B) 1902

(C)1829

(D) 1964

(E) None of these

15. 486+32×25—59=?

(A) 514

(B) 528

(C) 599

(D) 507

(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4

(A)4.4

(B)3.2

(C)2.1

(D) 3.7

(E) None of these

17. 1008÷36=?

(A)28

(B) 32.5

(C)36

(D) 22.2

(E) None of these

18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?

(A)40.04

(B) 46.18

(C)44.08

(D) 43.12

(E) None of these

19. 65%of 320+?=686

(A) 480

(B) 452

(C)461

(D) 475

(E) None of these

20. 83250÷?=74×25

(A)50

(B) 45

(C)40

(D) 55

(E) None of these

21. ?7744=?

(A)88

(B)62

(C)58

(D)78

(E)None of these

22.35%of ?=242

(A)729

(B)652

(C)693

(D)759

(E) None of these

23. 1256+4813+765=?

(A)5642

(B) 5876

(C)6788

(D) 6878

(E) None of these

24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2

(A) 81

(C) 27

(B) 9

(D) 64

(E) None of these

25. 432+2170+35=?

(A)494

(B) 475

(C)481

(D) 469

(E) None of these

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of

the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then

which will be the largest number?

(A) 65

(B) 52

(C) 79

(D) 63

(E) None of these

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of

8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount

and at the same rate and same time?

(A)Rs. 349.92

(B) Rs. 300

(C)Rs. 358.92

(D) Rs. 400

(E) None of these

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length

is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the

area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original

rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?

(A)45 cms.

(B)40 cems.

(C)50 cms.

(D)55 cms.

(E)None of these


29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number

formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,

then what will be the original number?

(A)28

(B) 48

(C)39

(D) 93

(E) None of these


30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.

If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the

resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?

(A)5/18

(B)6/13

(C)13/6

(D)7/12

(E) None of these

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.

What is the number?

(A) 70

(B) 75

(C) 69

(D) 85

(E) None of these

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs

were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12

each. What will be the percentage

profit?

(A) 25

(B) 15

(C) 13

(D) 17

(E) None of these

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number

series given below?

25, 34, 52,79, 115,?

(A)160

(B) 140

(C)153

(D) 190

(E)None of these

34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the

following question ?

?/144= 49 /?

(A)95

(B) 76

(C)82

(D) 84

(E)None of these

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of

the smallest and the largest numbers?

(A)158

(B) 148

(C)168

(D) 198

(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on

travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.

What is Ajay’s income?

(A) Rs. 60,000

(B) Rs. 80,500

(C) Rs. 60,700

(D) Rs. 70,500

(E) None of these

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be

arranged ?

(A) 150

(B) 240

(C) 120

(D) 200

(E) None of these

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a

flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of

the remaining part of the park?

(A)984 Square m

(B) 789 Square m

(C) 1014 Square m

(D) 1024 Square m

(E) None of these

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost

of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540,

then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A)47m

(B) 39m

(C)52m

(D)40m

(E) None of these

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order

of their values, which one will be fourth?

(A)4/5

(B)5/4

(C)9/5

(D)8/5

(E) 7/2

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7

respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14

respectively. What is the difference between their ages?

(A)9 years

(B) 4 years

(C)5 years

(D) 7 years

(E) None of these


42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many

days will 18 men complete the same work?

(A)16 days

(B) 20 days

(C)26 days

(D) 30 days

(E) None of these

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the

circumference of the circle?

(A)29.2 cm

(B) 28.9 cm

(C)30.8 cm

(D) 40.2 cm

(E) None of these

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay

joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush

joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they

made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?

(A) Rs. 5,500

(B) Rs. 6,000

(C) Rs. 6,600

(D) As. 5,900

(E) None of these

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are

42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?

(A)60 years

(B) 49 years

(C)45 years

(D) 58 years

(E) None of these

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes

and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom

which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty

initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank

(leakage is still there) ?

(A) 8 minutes

(B) 7 minutes

(C) 10 minutes

(D)15 minutes

(E) None of these

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?

(A) Rs. 690

(B) As. 520

(C) Rs. 517.5

(D) Rs. 499.2

(E) None of these

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25

persons, then how much would each person get?

(A) Rs. 2,54,876

(B) Rs. 2,34,68

(C) Rs. 3,74,20

(D) Rs. 1,95,62

(E) None of these

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are

drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is

white?

(A) 71/190

(B) 121/190

(C) 91/190

(D) 93/190

(E) None of these

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what

will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?

(A) Rs. 1,320

(B) Rs. 1,500

(C) Rs.1,150

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these


ANSWERS:

1 - D 2 - C 3 - B 4 - A 5 - D 6 - A 7 - E 8 - B 9 - E 10 - B 11 - C 12

- D 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B

16 - B 17 - A 18 - C 19 - E 20 - B 21 - A 22 - C 23 - E 24 - B 25 - A 26

- A 27 - B 28 - C 29 - C 30 - D 31 - B 32 - D 33 - A 34 - D 35 - C 36 -

A 37 - E 38 - A 39 - D 40 - B 41 - E 42 - C 43 - C

44 - A 45 - B 46 - A 47 - A 48 - B 49 - E 50 - D

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

I am interested in the field of teaching and for this I have decided to give the KVS PGT exam looking for the PGT (Post Graduate Teachers) previous year question papers in PDF format. Will you please provide me papers also suggest me books for prep?

As per your request here I am providing you the details about this exam and also providing you the PGT (Post Graduate Teachers) previous year question papers in PDF format.

KVS PGT Exam Pattern

The examination will be conducted in two papers

Part-I
Part-II

Both Paper having Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
The test will be 03 hours of duration

Part-1 – this Section Paper Consists of 30 Question (Hindi – 15 Marks, English- 15 Marks )

Part-2 – In this Section Paper Consists of 120 Question
(Current Affair- 40 Marks, Reasoning- 40 Marks, Teaching Methodology – 40 Marks )

Weightage of Marks:

The final selection of the candidates will be made on the basis of the marks obtained by the candidates in the part 2 of the paper and interview.

Written Part 2 Exam: 70%
Interview Part of Exam: 30%

KVS PGT paper1
1. Absenteeism can be tackled by :
(1) teaching (2) punishing the students (3) giving the sweets (4) contacting the parents
2. Discipline means: (1) strict‐behaviour (2) severe punishment (3) obedience (4) going by the rules
3. If any girl child does not corne to school regularly you will
(1) no bother (2) struck off her name (3) complain to the Principal (4) meet the parents and en‐ courage them .
4. In co‐education you want't to : (1) make separate rows of boys and girls (2) you give preference to
boys over girls
(3) you. give preference to none (4) you deal according to need
5. One of the basic priniclples of socializing Individuals is : (1) religion (2)
caste (3) educational (4) imitation
Directions (6‐10) : Which of the' skills do you consider most essential for a teacher?
6. (1) Oration skills (2) Listening skills (3) Managerial skills, (4) Teaching skills
7. (1) encourage children to search for knowledge (2) have all the information for the children
(3) ability to make children memorize materials (4) enable children to do well in tests
8. (1) identify gifted children (2) have an understanding of all children abilities (3) identify children with
learning disabilities (4) none of the above
9. (1) _ ability to help children understand texts thoroughly (2) ability to help children do all the
exercises (3) ability to raise possible actions from the texts (4) ability to help children from their own
opinions on the text
10. (1) to communicate well {2) to use difficult language (3) to impress students (4) to read out the
textbook
11. Success in developing values is mainly dependent upon: (1) government (2) society (3) family (4)
teacher
12. Good reading aims at developing: (l) understanding (2) pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4) increasing
factual knowledge
13. The primary duty of a teacher is to be responsible to his/her: (1) family (2) students (3) society (4)
nation
14. Which of the following is not related to educational achievement? (1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3)
Practice (4) Self learning
15. One of,the students of a class hardly talks in the class. How would you encourage him to express
himself?
(1) By orgariising discussions
(2) By encouraging children to take part in classroom activities
(3) By organizing educational games/ programmes in which ‐ children feel like speaking‐
(4) By giving good marks to those who express them'selves well
Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5. 3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1, 11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3
EVS‐Part
1. Which are air pollutants?
(a) aerosols (b) sewage
(c) DDT (d) fertilizers
2. Which of the following does not cause soil erosion?
(a) wind (b) overgrazing
(c) sun (d) water
3. Acid rain is due to:
(a) combustion of fossil fuels (b) oil slick
(c) oxides of sulphur (d) nuclear wars
4. Among the most harmful non-biodegradable waste is: (a) cow dung (b) plastics
(c) garbage (d) radioactive waste
5. An example of a renewable resource is:
(a) clay t (b) sand
(c) water (d) fossil fuels
6. Which one of the following is a non-biodegradable waste? (a) manure ' (b) cow durig (c) plastics (d)
garbage
7. The main source of water is:
(a) rivers (b) rain
(c) ponds (d) canals
8. Pollution is not caused by the use of:
(a) solar energy (b) wood
(c) petrol (d) unsaturated hydrocarbons
9. Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is destroyed by: (a) HC1 (b) smog (c) chlorofluorocarbons (d)
SO,
10. The gas associated with global warming is:
(a) C02 (b) H2S
(c) CH4 (d) S02
11. In water pollution, industries are said to be the:
(a) line sources (b) point sources
(c) area sources (d) none of these
12. Which of these is a non-renewable resource?
(a) coal (c) water
(b) forest (d) turtle
13. Which of these is biodegradable?
(a) cow dung (c) coke cans
(b) polythene (d) DDT
Answers:
1. (a); 2. (c); 3. (c); 4. (d); 5. (c); 6. (c); 7. (b); 8. (a); 9. (c); 10. (a); 11. (a); 12. (a); 13. (a).
Child Development and Pedagogy Question Paper
1. Most important work of teacher is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
2. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment
4. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas
5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
6. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession
7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them
10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure
12. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development
16. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors
18. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
19. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all
20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do
?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class
21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
22. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education
26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
27. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A)


Books for preparation:


KVS (Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan) PGT (Snatkottar Shikshak) Chayan Pariksha


KVS (Kendruya Vidyalaya Sangathan) PGT (Post Graduate Teacher) Selection Examination


Please find the below attachment to download the PGT (Post Graduate Teachers) previous year question papers in PDF format.

Attached Files Available for Download

	KVS PGT paper11.pdf (130.2 KB, 27 views)
	KVS PGT paper12.pdf (195.1 KB, 29 views)
	KVS PGT paper13.pdf (251.2 KB, 25 views)

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member