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Old May 28th, 2014, 04:57 PM
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Default Re: Graduate Management Admission Test previous year question papers free download

As you want to get the Graduate Management Admission Test previous year question papers so hre is the information of the same for you:

Verbal Section
This question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath
the sentence you will find five ways of rephrasing the underlined part. The first of these
repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose
option A, else pick one of the others.
1. John and Tim went to the bank and he made a deposit.
A. he
B. they
C. it
D. their
E. you
2. Although the average Girl Scout joins the organization at age 14, they have
already been Brownies for several years.
A. they have already been Brownies
B. they were Brownies
C. she has already been a Brownie
D. she had already been a Brownie
E. she was in the Brownies
3. In 1980, the Netherlands agreed to limit fishing in certain Atlantic Ocean beds,
but in 1981, they terminated the agreement.
A. they terminated the agreement.
B. they decided to terminate the agreement.
C. it terminated the agreement.
D. it was terminated.
E. it decided the agreement was terminated.
4. While brokers, as a rule, are not permitted to know executive access codes, in
many instances they are widely known.
A. they are widely known
B. they are widely known to be
C. they are widely known by many
D. the codes are able to be widely known
E. the codes are widely known
5. Despite seeming tame and intelligent, the state troopers had no choice but to shoot
the loose Gorilla.
A. Despite seeming tame and intelligent
B. Despite a tame and intelligent appearance
C. Although appearing to be tame and intelligent
D. Although it seemed tame and intelligent
E. However tame and intelligent in appearance
6 . The number of workers have increased steadily each year.
A. have increased steadily
B. steadily have increased
C. have been increasing steadily
D. has increased steadily
E. has steadily been going through an increase
7. The commercial airliner flew too close to the military base, an act that the army
saw as a violation of its air space.
A.as
B. as if it was
C. to be
D. that it was
E. for

The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading
the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions
following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
8. For the past five years, US consumption of eggs has decreased. The National
Egg Council plans to reverse this trend by launching an advertising campaign
extolling the healthful benefits of eggs.
Which one of the following, if true, will provide the strongest support for the
National Egg Council’s plan?
A. Eggs are a good source of protein.
B. Many former egg eaters now make omelets using egg
substitutes.
C. Most people stopped eating eggs because they thought eggs
were unhealthy.
D. Eggs contain unhealthy levels of cholesterol.
E. Eggs substitute makers launched an extensive marketing
campaign six years ago.
9. In an effort to reduce the amount of fat and the number of calories that they
consume, many citizens of the United States are making significant changes in
their diets. For them staying in shape and looking fit now take precedence over
eating foods that are filling and that taste good. It is likely that if they maintain
these new priorities with consistent regard for other health issues, the length and
quality of their lives will increase significantly.
Which one of the following is an assumption upon which the argument is based?
A. Eating foods that are filling and tastes good is inconsistent with
staying in shape and looking fit.
B. Controlling the quality of one’s life requires more than mere
dietary adjustments.
C. A combination of diet and exercise is necessary if one wishes to
stay in shape and look fit.
D. Many citizens of the United States have only recently discovered
the importance of diet to living a longer, healthier life.
E. Staying in shape and looking good are current goals for most
citizens of the United States.
10. Singing in the Rain Umbrella Corp. plans to institute a marketing campaign in
which it sells umbrellas at the exits of subway stations during rainy weather. The
umbrellas will be sold at a price that is slightly higher than normal. The company
thinks the sales of these higher – priced umbrellas will be greater than normal
sales of umbrellas, because the purchasers of these umbrellas will be forced to
buy them if they do not want to get wet.
The author assumes which of the following about the purchasers of the umbrellas
in predicting the sales of the umbrellas?
A. Customers who do not feel immediate pressure to purchase will
not do so.
B. Normally priced umbrellas are not profitable for singing in the
Rain Umbrellas Corp.
C. Very few people buy Singing in the Rain’s normally priced
umbrellas.
D. Singing in the Rain Umbrellas Corp. will have to stop selling
normally priced umbrellas when it starts selling higher priced
umbrellas.
E. Most potential customers of Singing in the Rain’s higher priced
umbrellas will not have acquired an umbrella previously.
11. A leading cement manufacture has been having problems processing manufacturing
and delivery records since it expanded its operations. To solve this problem it plans to
install a new platform on its central computing system which will run its tracking program
five times faster than the current system does.
Which one of the following castes the most serious doubt on the manufacture’s
plan?
A. Not all computer platforms can make the company’s tracking programs
run more quickly
B. The cost of the new computer platform will require the cement
manufacture to raise prices for its products.
C. The cement company’s computer system does not have the capability to
run the new platform and cannot be updated.
D. The company has been increasing the sales of cement by 1.5 percent a
month for the past 18 months.
E. A completely new computer system could make the program run 6 times
faster than it does currently.
12. Critics insist that government regulation of business has made it more difficult for
American businesses to operate profitably and has destroyed their ability to compete
with foreign producers of consumer goods. This argument is not compelling.
Government regulation of business was never as active in this nation as it was between
the years 1975 and 1985, and in those years the average net worth of American family
increased more than it had in any previous decade.
The author’s argument would be most seriously weakened if it were true that
A. 80 percent of all businesses started during the decade 1975-1985 lost
money in their first year.
B. More businesses declared bankruptcy during the period 1975-1985 than
in any previous decade.
C. During the decade 1975-1985, America imported more consumer goods
than it exported.
D. The increase in net worth of average American families during the years
1975-1985 was largely due to an increase in the value of residential
homes.
E. The average interest rate charged on business and home mortgage loans
was higher during the decade 1975-1985 than it had been in any previous
decade.
13. A recession is not caused by any economic force other than nation wide loss of
confidence. If the economy is perceived as being unstable, banks are
conservative in lending money, investors take fewer risks and hence economic
growth is slowed.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above.
A. A recession is getting effected by the response of the Federal Reserve’s
setting of interest rates.
B. A recession can be brought on by the failure of a major bank that had been
loaning money.
C. Slowed economic growth is not the only result of a recession.
D. When investors begin taking greater risks it is enough to stimulate economic
growth.
E. It is a fallacy to assume that economic growth is necessary for economic
stability.
14. In an effort to increase revenues, Sky Air recently partnered with several airlines
to create a joint frequent-flier program. In the new program, miles earned on all
partner airlines can be combined for reward tickets valid on any airline in the
partnership. Sky Air’s CEO cites a recent increase in the number of passengers
on all the partner airlines as evidence that the new frequent-flier program is
having the desired effect. Industry analysts doubt the CEO’s claim.
Which of the following, if true, best supports the analysts’ positions?
A. Air travel tends to be seasonal, with more passengers traveling during
warmer months and holiday periods.
B. The recent increase in passenger rates for all the partner airlines was
predicted by the lowest rates of air travel in the last decade.
C. Many travelers achieved reward tickets more quickly under the new
frequent-flier program and redeemed them recently for free travel.
D. Travelers redeemed frequent-flier rewards on Sky Air’s partners more
frequently than on Sky Air.
E. A study of frequent-flier programs showed that they generally result in
increased long-term airline revenues.

This question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined.
Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of rephrasing the underlined part.
The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the
original is best, choose option A, else pick one of the others
15. Neither my mother nor my father, both of whom are English professors, agree
with my contention that James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
A. Both of whom are English professors, agree with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
B. Both of whom are English professors, agrees with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
C. Both of whom are English professors, agree with my contention that
Ulysses, a novel by James Joyce is overrated.
D. Each of whom is an English professor, agree with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
E. English professors the both of them agrees with my contention that
James Joyce’s novel Ulysses is overrated.
16. A number of military personnel who served in Operation Desert Storm has
encountered a series of unexplainable symptoms that were attributed to Gulf War
syndrome.
A. has encountered a series of unexplainable symptoms that were attributed
to
B. has unexplainably encountered a series of symptoms that have been
attributed as
C. have encountered a series of unexplained symptoms that have been
attributed as
D. have encountered a series of unexplainable symptoms that have been
attributed to
E. have encountered unexplainably a series of symptoms that were
attributed as
17. Although Smith once championed the charity, he changed his mind after journalist
linked its origin to a corrupt individual.
A. once championed the charity
B had once championed the charity
C has once championed the charity
D was a champion of the charity
E championed the charity at one time
18. A swarm of desert honeybees, a phenomenon seen by few of the select scientists
and entomologists, occur when a portion of the colony leave the current nest to find a
new home.
A. few of the select scientists and entomologists, occur when a portion of the
colony leave
B. a select few scientists and entomologists, only occurs when portions of the
colony leaves
C very few selected scientists and entomologists, occur when portions of the
colony leave
D. only very few selected scientists and entomologists, occurs when a portion of
the colony leaves
E. only a select few scientists and entomologists, occurs when a portion of the
colony leaves
19. During the State of the Union address every February the president announced the
amount of the new programs the administration planned to create and the amounts of
money it invested in each one.
A. announced the amount of the new programs the administration planned to
create and the amounts of money it invested in each one
B. announced the amount of the new programs the administration had created
and the amount of money that was invested in each one
C. announces the number of the new programs the administration plans to create
and the amount of money to be invested in each one
D. announces the amount of the new programs created by the administration and
the amount of money invested in them
E. had announced the administration’s plans for a number of new programs and
the amounts of money that were to be invested in them
20.Of the numerous decisions facing the Supreme Court this term, the question of an
individual’s right to die is for certain the more perplexing.
A. the question of an individual’s right to die is for certain the more perplexing
B. it seems certain that the more perplexing is the question of an individual’s right
to die
C. the question of an individual’s right to die is certainly the most perplexing
D. it seems certain the question of an individual’s right to die is the most
perplexing
E. the question of an individual’s right to die is certainly the more perplexing
21. In response to losing a significant part of its market share to a competitor, the soft
drink company has cut costs by withholding executive bonuses, changed their
advertising agency, and have redesigned the company logo.
A. changed their advertising agency, and have
B. changing their advertising agency, as well as
C. has changed its advertising agency, and
D. and changed its advertising agency, and has
E. changed its advertising agency, and
22. Now even directors of off- Broadway productions, desperate for actors who are
talented, charismatic, and aspiring more to a solid career in the theater than to the
lucrative rewards and stardom proffered by movie moguls and studios, are turning to
independent casting directors for guidance in assembling their casts.
A. are talented, charismatic, and aspiring
B. are talented, who have charisma, and who are aspiring
C. have talent and are charismatic and aspire
D. are talented and have charisma, and whose aspirations are
E. are talented and charismatic, and who aspire
23. The Supreme Court can effectively rule on a case in two ways, either by
deciding to hear the case and handling down its judgment, or rather to simplify
refuse to hear the case at all.
A. either by deciding to hear the case and handing down its judgment, or
rather to simplify refuse
B. either by deciding to hear the case and handing down its judgment, or
by simplify refusing
C. by either deciding to hear the case and hand down its judgment or to
simplify refuse
D. to hear a case and to hand down its judgment, or to refuse simply
E. either by deciding to hear the case and hand down its judgment, or the
simple refuse
24. The establishment of land trusts in New England has been praised not
because of its restricting overdevelopment but because it allows the inheritance by
future generations of the property.
A. not because of its restricting overdevelopment but because it allows the
inheritance by future generations of
B. because of not only is restricting overdevelopment and also allows the
inheritance by future generations of
C. because it does not only restrict overdevelopment, it also allows future
generations for inheriting
D. because of not only the restrictions on over development but also
because future generations can inherit
E. Not only because it restricts overdevelopment but also because it
allows future generations to inherit
25. Some students of literary criticism consider the theories of Blaine to be a huge
advance in modern critical thinking and question the need to study the discounted
theories of Rauthe and Wilson.
A. to be a huge advance in modern critical thinking and question
B. as a huge advance in modern critical thinking and question
C. as being a huge advance in modern critical thinking and questioned
D. a huge advance in modern critical thinking and question
E. are a huge advance in modern critical thinking and questioned
26. One of the possible results of the further depletion of the ozone in the atmosphere
would be a sharp increase in the demand for sunscreens. Many of the ingredients in
sunscreens are natural, and the demand for these products will require strict
conservation laws. This will represent the victory for those who desire greater protection
for the environment.
Which one of the following best states the conclusion in the passage above?
A. Industries that produce ozone-depleting chemicals should be encouraged to
continue doing so.
B. Regulation of ozone-depleting chemicals should be handled on a federal level.
C. The natural ingredients in sunscreen products should be replaced by synthetic
substitutes.
D. The effects of ozone depletion on the environment are not categorically negative.
E. The few positive effects of ozone depletion are far outweighed by the myriad
negative effects.
27. The American division of the Acme running shoe company should begin
marketing running shoes with double-thick soles. Acme’s Swedish division is
selling a large number of these items, and is enjoying its most profitable quarter
ever.
Which of the following is an assumption made by the author of the argument
above?
A. Acme’s Brazilian division is also selling a large number of
running shoes with double-thick soles.
B. Swedes and Americans have similar tastes in music.
C. Acme is the only running shoe company that manufacturers
double-thick soles.
D. The running shoe market in America tends to follow the same
trends as does the market in Sweden.
E. Acme has experienced financial troubles in the last three
quarters.
28. Currently about 70 percent of all urban households recycle some portion of their
garbage, 25 percent more than did ten years ago. This increase can be
attributed , in part , to the fact that a larger portion of the population is now under
the age of 47.
Of the following, which can be most properly inferred from the passage
above?
A. Of those who currently recycle, at least 70 percent recycle less than 25
percent of what is potentially recyclable.
B. Younger people are generally more conscientious about waste disposal
than are older people.
C. People under the age of 47 are more likely to recycle than are their older
counterparts.
D. The overall population has risen by at least 25 percent in the past ten
years.
E. People currently over the age of 47 recycled more often ten years ago.
29. State colleges have lower tuitions than do private colleges because many of
their operating costs are covered by federal and state funds.
Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made
above?
A. Private colleges have higher operating costs than do state
colleges.
B. Many more people matriculate at state colleges than do at
private colleges.
C. Tuition fees and operating costs are directly related.
D. the cost of attending state college is always more than the cost
of
attending private college.
E. If private colleges are to lower their tuitions , they must receive
outside support.
30. Many people feel that hard work deserves a reward. However, this is not true.
Hard work should be its own reward, because such work intrinsically gives the
worker satisfaction when it is performed satisfactorily.
The author of the argument draws his or her conclusion by
A. Claiming than what is commonly believed is false for that very
reason.
B. Pointing out the inconsistencies in a counterargument.
C. Challenging the definition of the word “reward” as something
extrinsic to a task.
D. Repeating a premise that was previously stated.
E. Allowing a counterclaim to weaken his or her argument.
31 . If we reduce the salaries of our employees, then profits will increase by 35 percent.
Because we must increase our profits, it is clear that employee salaries must be
reduced.
Which of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the argument
above?
A. If I eat less food, I will lose weight. Since I started skipping breakfast, I
have lost ten pounds.
B. If I work four more hours each week, I will earn enough money to afford
a new hobby. Because I would like a new hobby, I will collect coins.
C. If god does not exist, then there is no basis for morality. Because some
actions are morally wrong, God must exist.
D. If there is an economic recession, then salaries will be reduced.
Because salaries are not decreasing, there is not an economic
recession.
E. If there were more commercials, the number of television watchers
would decline. Because the number of television watchers should be
reduced, the number of commercials should be increased.

This question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined.
Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of rephrasing the underlined part.
The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think
the original is best, choose option A, else pick one of the others
32. As we traveled the back roads of Arkansas, each of us were equipped with a
canteen, a knife, and a compass.
A. Each of us were equipped
B. Equipping ourselves
C. Every one of were equipped
D. Each of us was equipped
E. Equipped as we are
33. The best labor negotiators are the ones that have the ability of settling even the
most irreconcilable stalemates.
A. The ones that have the ability of settling even
B. Them that are able even to settle
C. Those who have the ability to settle even
D. Those that are able to even settle
E. The ones who have the ability of even settling
34. Many small companies expand their client bases not so much by aggressive
marketing as by networking and word of mouth.
A. So much by aggressive marketing as by
B. As much with marketing aggressively as with
C. Much by aggressive marketing that instead by
D. So aggressively with marketing but with
E. In marketing aggressively but rather in

Reading Comprehension
The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading the
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the
passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Until recently corporate ideology in the United States
has held that bigger is better. This traditional view of the
primacy of big, centralized companies is now being
challenged as some of the giants of American business
5. are being out formed by a new generation of smaller,
streamlined business. If it was the industrial revolutions
that spawned the area of massive industrialize companies,
then perhaps it is the information revolutions of the 1990s
that is spawning the area of the small company.
10. For most of this century, big companies dominated an
American business scene that that seemed to thrive on its own
Grandness of scale. The expansion westward, the growth
of railroad and steel industries, an almost limitless
supply of cheap raw materials, plus a populations boom
15.That provided an ever increasing demand for new products
(although not cheap source of labor) all coincided to
encourage the growth of large companies.
But rapid developments in the market place have begun
to change the accepted rules of business and have under-scored
20. the need for fast reaction times. Small companies without
huge overhead and inventory, can respond quickly to a
technologically advanced age in which new products
and technologies can become outmoded within a year
of their being brought to market.
25. Of course, successful emerging small companies face a
potential dilemma in that their very success will tend to turn
them into copies of the large corporate dinosaurs they are now
supplanting. To avoid this trap, small companies may look to
the example of several CEOs of large corporations who
30. have broken down their sprawling organizations into small
semi-independent divisions capable of making their way
into the twenty first century.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
Present evidence that resolves a contradiction in business theory
Discuss reasons why an accepted business pattern is changing
Describe a theoretical model and method whereby that model can be
tested.
Argue that a traditional ideology deserve new attentions
Resolve two conflicting explanations for a phenomenon
2. The author’s attitude toward emerging small companies is one of the
Disappointment
Optimism
Uncertainty
Criticism
Elation
3. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of
the passage?
A conventional model is described and an alternative is introduced.
An assertion is made and general supporting example is given.
Two contradictory points of view are presented and evaluated.
A historical overview is given to explain a phenomenon.
A new theory is described and then qualified.

Passage 2
One recent example of industrial hyper growth has taken place in the
recycling industry, led by the rapid expansion of the recycled paper market.
Though many laws were enacted in the late 1980s to encourage
(and in some cases require) the collection of waste paper for recycling,
there were not, at that time, companies with sufficient capacity to recycle
it all. Consequently the collected paper accumulated in storage, usually
at the expense of the recycling companies, thereby adding to their overhead
and squeezing their already thin profit margins.
Today a different situation exists. Fifty-seven new paper mills have been
built since 1991, and of these, at least twenty-nine use recycled fiber.
This surge in capacity has resulted in a concurrent rise in profits. The price per
Ton of waste paper has quadrupled in the past year, as have the prices of
corrugated cardboard and used newsprint. Trash haulers have benefited from
these conditions by combining their trash hauling and recycling operations.
Recycling centers are connected both to the clients to whom they sell end- products and to those from whom they collect refuse; thus, the company gets
paid twice for the same trash, once for hauling the waste and once for selling the
usable material. Industry profits have increased more than tenfold during this period. As
the industry has become more competitive, some haulers have chosen to rebate a
portion of this money to their clients in the hopes of ensuring their loyalty.
1. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the increase in
profits in the trash hauling business?
(A) Haulers' ability to sell both services and products.
(B) Money offered by haulers to preferred customers.
(C) Foresight exhibited by the leaders of the industry.
(D) Haulers' willingness to adapt technology to a changing industry.
(E) Passage of stricter environmental legislation.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the price of waste paper
(A) will increase steadily over the next few years
(B) will increase as more companies get involved in the industry
(C) is closely related to the availability of trash haulers
(D) is not as important to trash haulers as the price they charge for hauling waste
(E) is sometimes set by the weight of the product
3. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following?
A. Competition between trash haulers and recyclers will prevent the recycled paper
industry from reaching its full economic potential.
B. Pressure from anti-environmental groups has increased pressure on the government
to oppose recycled paper initiatives.
C. The recycled paper industry may continue to grow at its present rate as long as the
industry remains profitable.
D. The profit-seeking of recyclers have overshadowed environmental concerns in the
recycled paper industry.
E. Government negligence prevented the recycled paper industry from becoming
successful until the early 1990’s.
4. According to the passage, all of the following are results of the increase in the number
of new mills using recycled finer except
A. The price of waste paper has risen dramatically.
B. Trash haulers are earning increased revenues.
C. Profits at recycling centers have increased more than tenfold.
D. The price of corrugated cardboard has risen.
E. Trash haulers have been forced to compete with recyclers.

Answer key:
1. (B). Who made a deposit? You can’t tell. They is the only pronoun that creates a clear
reference and agreement.
2. (C). Use the 2/3 split. The pronoun refers to the average Girl Scout, so it should be
she. Eliminate (A) and (B). One difference among the others is has vs. had. vs. was. The
verb tense needs to be consistent with joins, so use has and choose (C).
3. (C). They Netherlands is an it (as is the United States) not a they. Eliminate (A) and
(B). (D) terminates the Netherlands, always a bad idea. (E) is passive, so choose the
active (C).
4. (E). Step 1: The 2/3 split shown in italics (which doesn’t happen on the real test) is
they vs. the codes. You want the codes because they is ambiguous; it could refer to
brokers or codes. Step 2: Eliminate (A), (B), and (C). Step 3: The difference between (D)
and (E) is able to be. Codes aren’t able (only people are), so choose (E).
5. (D). (A) has a misplaced modifier because it suggests that the troopers were tame
and intelligent. (B), (C), and (E) change the words around a little , but they still repeat
this error.(D) fixes the misplaced modifier by turning the phrase into a clause. The
pronoun it is okay because the only noun it could match is the loose gorilla.
6. (D). Subject is The number, which is singular (a number is plural). Eliminate (A), (B),
and (C). (D) is shorter and simpler than (E).
7. (A). The idiom is see/saw…as and only (A) gets it right.
8. (C). Support for the argument are the identifying words. C: Increase egg consumption
with health ads. P: None worth mentioning. A: Health is an issue for potential egg-eaters.
(A) and (B) aren’t bad, but they require you to infer a connection between eggs, health,
and consumers’ concerns rather than stating it outright. (C) clearly shows consumers are
concerned with eggs’ health effects. (D) weakens the argument. (E) is out of scope.
9. (A) ID the question: Assumption is an obvious key word. Work the argument: C: If
people maintain the new priorities (changes in diet), the length and quality of their lives
will increase. P: People are making changes to their diets (a subsidiary conclusion)
because they’d rather be fit than eat foods that are filling and taste good. Gap: better
diet——longer life and changes to diet——filling, good-tasting foods. POE:
(B) is irrelevant. If anything, this weakens by suggesting that changes in diet aren’t
enough. (C) is irrelevant. This goes along with the general idea, but it’s not strictly
necessary. In (D), the time of discovery is irrelevant. In (E), the goals of most citizens are
irrelevant. You’re only interested in the people who are acting on their goals. (A) fills in
the assumption needed to make the subsidiary conclusion true. If eating filling, goodtasting
foods is inconsistent with staying in shape and looking fit, people who want to
stay in shape and be fit are willing to give them up. They will maintain good habits
and live longer, better lives.
10. (A) ID the question: Assume is an obvious key word. Work the argument: C: Sales of
umbrellas at subway exits while it’s raining will be greater than normal sales. P: People
will be forced to buy umbrellas if they don’t want to get wet. A: They don’t have
umbrellas with them. They are unwilling to get wet. POE: In (B), profitability of normally
priced umbrellas is irrelevant. In (C), sales of normally priced umbrellas are irrelevant.
(D) doesn’t deal with the issue. (E) looks good, but it’s not right. Potential customers
might have umbrellas, but the issue is whether they have an umbrella with them. (A)
makes the link. If it’s raining and you don’t have an umbrella, you feel the pressure to
make a purchase. On some assumption questions, you may have a lot of difficulty
spotting the necessary assumption due to the way the answers are worded. This is
particularly true with answer choices containing negative words such as not and never.
One way to check whether an answer choice is a necessary assumption is to negate, or
reverse, that answer. If the negation would weaken the argument, that answer is a
necessary assumption.
11. (C ) ID the question: The keys words are casts the most doubt. Work the argument:
C: The company will install the faster platform on its computer system. P: The company
can’t process its records fast enough anymore. Gap: New platform——fixing current
problems. A: (1) Speed won’t compromise accuracy; (2) the computer can run the
program. (C) attacks assumption #2. (B) strengthens the argument; (A) is irrelevant
(what if the platform the company has in mind can do the job?). (D) only addresses the
company’s expansion, and (E) is irrelevant.
12. (D) ID the question: The key words are most seriously weakened. Work the
argument: C: The idea that government regulation hinders profits is invalid. P: From
1975–1985, when government regulation was very active, the average net worth of
American families rose. Gap: Business profits——families’ net worth. A: The profitability
of businesses caused the average net worth of American families to rise. (D) provides an
alternate reason why families were richer. (A) Is 80% better or worse than normal?
Irrelevant. (B) Isn’t strong enough because it doesn’t list bankruptcies as a percentage of
the whole. (C) Is out of the scope. If (E) were true, how would average net worth of
families rise?
13. (D) Identify the question: The key word is strengthen. Work the argument: C: A
recession is caused only by a national loss of confidence. P: If people think the economy
is sluggish, they won’t invest. (D) strengthens the link between investor confidence and
economic growth by stating that greater investment strengthens the economy. (A) and
(B) weaken the conclusion by offering other causes for a recession. (C) is backward; we
don’t care what recessions cause; we care what causes a recession. In (E), economic
stability is never mentioned.
14. (D) Read the question carefully. It asks you to support the analyst’s position, not the
CEO’s. The analysts argue that the CEO is wrong to say that increase in passengers on
partner airlines is evidence that the program is working to increase revenues. P: The
joint frequent flier program allows miles earned on partner airlines to be combined for
reward tickets on any airline. There’s been an increase in the number of passengers on
the partner airlines. You need to show that the frequent flier plan is NOT increasing
revenues for Sky Air. POE: (A) is irrelevant. (B) is irrelevant. (C) goes along the CEO’s
position, not that of the analysts. (E) supports the CEO’s position. Only (D) supports the
analysts’ position.
15. (B) Another common subject-verb agreement issue arises when a sentence has a
compound subject. The split is agree/agrees. With neither...nor, the verb agrees with the
subject closest to it, so father is the subject. Eliminate choices with plural verbs. (A), (C),
and (D) are out. Choice (E) contains awkward, unidiomatic wording (English professors
the both of them). (B) is the answer.
16. (D) The number/a number is an ETS favorite. A number is plural; eliminate (A) and
(B). The next split is attribute...as/attribute...to. The idiom is attribute to, so (C) and (E)
are out. (D) is the answer.
17. ( B) The tense shifts in the answer choices. Two events happened in the past, and
one happened earlier than the other did (Smith championed the charity, and then he
changed his mind). The past perfect tense is best to convey this meaning. (A), (C), (D),
and (E) don’t use the correct tense. Choose (B).
18. (E) This example has modifier problems because only moves around in the answer
choices and because of the select/selected split. Only should emphasize a select few
scientists . However, it’s probably easier to work the subject-verb error first. Start with the
leave/leaves or occur/occurs split. The subject, swarm, is singular. Eliminate (A) and (C)
because occurs is plural. Eliminate (B) because portions does not agree with leaves.
The choice between (D) and (E) comes down to meaning. Selected means a group
chosen by someone, while select means a special group. (E) is better at conveying the
meaning of a small group of scientists who have been lucky enough to witness the
swarm.
19. (C ) The errors are tense (announce/announces/had announced) and quantity words
(amount/number). Programs are countable and should be modified by number. Eliminate
(A), (B), and (D). Since the action occurs every February, it’s ongoing, and present tense
is best. Eliminate (E).
20(C ) There’s a comparative vs. superlative split (more/most). The sentence compares
more than two things (Numerous decisions), so choose most. Eliminate (A), (B), and (E).
(D) is unidiomatic and unnecessarily wordy, so (C) is the best answer.
21( E) This one is tricky because withholding is a red herring. The three verbs are cut,
changed, and redesigned.
(A) and (B) have pronoun trouble because company is singular; therefore, the proper
pronoun is it. (C) and (D) aren’t parallel. (E) is the answer.
22. ( E) Ideally, you want the list to have three adjectives. However, there’s no form of
aspiring that fits in the sentence. You’re left looking for the answer that sucks the least.
You can keep the two adjectives and refer to aspire separately. (A), (B), and (D) are not
parallel, and the two and’s in (C) are redundant. For parallel construction in lists, use the
“apples to apples, oranges to oranges” mnemonic.
23. (B) The either/or option of deciding or refusing needs parallel construction. (A), (C),
and (E) are not parallel. (E) uses the gerund form the refusing, which is not parallel to
the verb deciding. (D) does not make the options clear. (B) keeps by deciding and by
refusing parallel.
24. (E) This example serves as a lead-in to idiom errors. Not only...but also demands
parallel construction. (B) and (C) don’t have the correct idiom. (A) and (D) are not
parallel. (E) keeps restricts and allows parallel.
25. (D) The idiom is consider…(nothing), so eliminate everything but (D). The changing
prepositions at the beginning of each answer are the giveaway.
26. (D) THE Results aren’t all bad because they will require stricter conversation laws.
Use POE to eliminate the other answers. (A) The author never encourages ozone
depletion. Also, should is extreme. (B) Level of government is never mentioned. Also,
should is extreme. (C) Synthetics aren’t mentioned and should is extreme. (E) The
relative positive/ negative balance is not mentioned and far outweighed is extreme.
27. (D) Conclusion: The American division should sell the thick- soled shoes. Premise:
The thick- soled shoes are selling like crazy in Sweden. Assumption: Americans and
Swedes have comparable tastes in shoes.
28.(C ) The second sentence connects the propensity to recycle to age. So,( c)is true.
(A) We don’t know anything about the potential amount of recycling . (B) Waste disposal
is too general; we only know about recycling. (D) We don’t know about overall
population, only the age distribution within the population . (E) We don’t know about
these people in the past.
29. (C) State colleges can lower their tuition costs because the federal and state funds
cover some of the colleges’ costs. The two must therefore be related. (A) fits with the
real world, but the argument never mentions it. (B) never mentioned. (D) never
mentioned , and always is extreme.( E) might seem to make sense , but we don’t know
private colleges raise their funds. If they were to lower tuition, they could make up for it
firing teachers or making other cutbacks.
30.(C ) The author’s impression of a reward is different from the more widely held belief.
In the author’s estimation, a job well done is the reward. Extrinsic to the task means that
the work isn’t enough. You need to get a prize.
31. (E) C: Employee salaries must be reduced. P: We want to increase profits. If we
reduce salaries, profits will increase. In its general form the argument says, “If A,
then B. Want B, so do A.” (A), (B), and (C) don’t match. (D) might look attractive
because it mentions salaries. However, don’t be drawn to answer choices that
use words or topics similar to those in the question. In fact, they’re usually
wrong. (E) matches. C: The number of commercials should be increased. P: The
number of television watchers should be reduced. If there were more
commercials, the number of television watchers would decline.
32.(D)Each is a singular pronoun, so each…. were doesn’t agree;(A) dies. (C) has the
same problem, because every is also singular.( B) and (E) create sentence fragments
without a main subject/ verb arrangement.
33.(C) Get rid of (A) right away, because the ones is awkward. The idiom is ability to,
not ability of. Use the 2/3 split and get rid of (A) and (E) .When you refer to people, it’s
proper to use who, not that; eliminate (B) and (D). (D) also has a split infinitive (which
we’ll also talk about later.
34. (A) The idiom is not so much_____ as ______, and (A) is parallel; not so much
by…as by.

Answer for RC 1
1 (B). Make a map of the passage. There are no contradictions that are being talked
about, so A is out. The passage is not testing any model hence C is out. D is a trap
answer it talks about “traditional ideology” while the passage is about “corporate
ideology” and traditional views. Option E is out as no conflicting explanation for a
phenomenon has been discussed in the passage.
2 (B). Option (E) is out as too extreme. The author’s attitude is not critical or negative
hence options (A) and (D) are out. (C) is a trap answer as it uses language from the
passage – dilemma .
3 (A). Option (B) is out as the author is not asserting himself. Option C is not correct as
there are no evaluations being made. (D) is a trap answer as it talks about historical
overview . A student would be attracted to this answer as the first paragraph talks about
traditional view, gives dates and events etc. ( E ) is again not the correct option as no
new theory is being described.

Answers for RC 2
1. (A). Look for the cause of increased profits for trash haulers. This is discussed in lines
16-22. (A) paraphrases the idea that the companies haul the trash (services) and sell the
recycled paper (products). (B) is a trap because preferred customers is a recognizable
phrase from a different part of the passage. (C), (D), and (E) are all out of scope.

2. (E). Look for the price of waste paper. It’s discussed in lines 14-16. In step 3, students
will answer that prices have increased a lot. (A) and (B) come close to that, but they
make predictions rather than describing the past. (C) and (D) are out of scope. (E) is true
(price per ton), even though it may seem trivial.

3.(C). (A) says the opposite of the passage: they cooperate more than they compete.
(B), (D), and (E) are all out of scope. (C) isn’t great, but it’s probably true (you gotta love
may) and consistent with the author’s description.

4. (E). With EXCEPT questions, find each of the wrong answers in the passage before
you cross them off. The remaining, correct answer may either contradict the passage or
just be out of scope. (A) is supported by lines 14-16. (B) is supported by lines 20-23. (C)
is supported by lines 22-23. (D) is supported by lines 15-16. (E) contradicts the idea of
cooperation between trash haulers and recyclers.

Question1
If –2 (A) 1 (B) -14 (C) -7 (D) 1 (E) -24 Question 2
a, b, and c are integers and a < b < c. S is the set of all integers from a to b, inclusive. Q is the
set of all integers from b to c, inclusive. The median of set S is (3/4)b. The median of set Q is
(7/8)c. If R is the set of all integers from a to c, inclusive, what fraction of c is the median of set
R?
(A) 3/8
(B) 1/2
(C) 11/16
(D) 5/7
(E) 3/4
Question 3
a, b, and c are positive integers. If a, b, and c are assembled into the six-digit number abcabc,
which one of the following must be a factor of abcabc?
(A) 16
(B) 13
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) none of the above
Question 4
The average of (54,820)2 and (54,822)2 =
(A) (54,821)2
(B) (54,821.5)2
(C) (54,820.5)2
(D) (54,821)2 + 1
(E) (54,821)2 – 1
Question 5
A certain club has exactly 5 new members at the end of its first week. Every subsequent
week, each of the previous week's new members (and only these members) brings exactly x new
members into the club. If y is the number of new members brought into the club during the
twelfth week, which of the following could be y?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 6:
DATA SUFFICIENCY PROBLEM
Directions: The data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1)
and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus
your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the
meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether
Choice: A statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;
Choice: B statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;
Choice: C BOTH statements (1) and (2) TO GETHER are sufficient to answer the question
asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient;
Choice: D EACH statement ALONE is suffi cient to answer the question asked;
Choice: E statements (1} and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question
asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
x is a positive number. If 9x + 9x+1 + 9x+2 + 9x+3 + 9x+4 + 9x+5 = y, is y divisible by 5?
1) 5 is a factor of x.
2) x is an integer.
Question 7
If the range of the set of numbers {150, 90, 125, 110, 170, 155, x, 100, 140} is 95, which of the
following could be x?
(A) 80
(B) 85
(C) 95
(D) 125
(E) 185
Question 8
Frances can complete a job in 12 hours, and Joan can complete the same job in 8 hours.
Frances starts the job at 9 a.m., and stops working at 3 p.m. If Joan starts working at 4 p.m. to
complete the job, at what time is the job finished?
(A) 6 p.m.
(B) 7 p.m.
(C) 8 p.m.
(D) 10 p.m.
(E) 12 p.m.
DATA SUFFICIENCY PROBLEM
Directions: The data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1)
and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus
your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the
meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether
Choice: A statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;
Choice: B statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question asked;
Choice: C BOTH statements (1) and (2) TO GETHER are sufficient to answer the question
asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient;
Choice: D EACH statement ALONE is suffi cient to answer the question asked;
Choice: E statements (1} and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question
asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Question 9
A, B, C, D, and E are airline pilots with very busy travel schedules. Given that D is able to meet at
any time that B cannot meet, do the schedules of A, B, C, D, and E allow three of these five
individuals to meet together for two uninterrupted hours?
(1) Pilots A and C, who cannot meet together, are not able to end any meeting during the AM
hours of any weekday.
(2) Pilots B and E, who can never meet for longer than 2 uninterrupted hours, are only available
to meet for two straight hours starting at 10:30 PM on any weekday and not ending during the AM
hours of any weekend day.
Question 10.
1/212 + 2/213 + 3/214 + 4/215 =
(A) 1/210
(B) 1/212
(C) 15/215
(D) 2/210
(E) 23/216
Question 11
11+22+33+...+1010 is divided by 5. What is the remainder?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
Question 12
If n is an integer greater than 0, what is the remainder when 912n+3 is divided by 10?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 7
(E) 9
Question13
Each of 435 bags contains at least one of the following three items: raisins, almonds, and
peanuts. The number of bags that contain only raisins is 10 times the number of bags that contain
only peanuts. The number of bags that contain only almonds is 20 times the number of bags that
contain only raisins and peanuts. The number of bags that contain only peanuts is one-fifth the
number of bags that contain only almonds. 210 bags contain almonds. How many bags contain
only one kind of item?
(A) 256
(B) 260
(C) 316
(D) 320
(E) It cannot be determined from the given information.
Question 14
What is the probability that and are reciprocal fractions?
(1) v, w, y, and z are each randomly chosen from the first 100 positive integers.
(2) The product (u)(x) is the median of 100 consecutive integers.
Question 15
If n is an integer greater than 5.3, then n! must be divisible by which of the following numbers?
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 14
Question 16
what is population of the village
1. 7/11 of the village comprises of married people
2. 200 widows comprises 10% of the singles population
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 17
The sum of the ages of A, B and C is 137 years. What is C’s age
1. the sum of the ages of A and C is 91 years
2. the sum of the ages of B and C is 104 years
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 18
Is the number x is divisible by 9.
1. The number x can be obtained by taking the difference between a number and
another one obtained by reversing the digits.
2. The sum of the digits of x is divisible by 9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 19
In an election how many votes are cast.
1. the winning candidate gets 54% of the total votes
2. the winning candidate wins by 800
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 20
Is y x
x
y
2 ) 1 ( 2 
1. 0 xy
2. 5 y x
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 21
Is
x
x
1

1. x >0
2. x < 2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 22
Is
5
1
x
1. x is positive
2. 5
1

x
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 23.
Is x x b a 
A. 0 , x b a
B. x x
b a
,
1 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question 24
A printer numbered consecutively the pages of a book, beginning with 1 on the first page. In
numbering the pages, he had to print a total of 187 digits. Find the number of pages in
the book.
A) 99 B) 98 C) 96 D) 97 E) 95
Question 25
In a drawer of shirts, 8 r blue, 6 r green, and 4 r magenta. If Mason draws 2 shirts at random,
what is the probability that at least one of the shirts he draws will be blue?
(A) 25/153
(B) 28/153
(C) 5/17
(D) 4/9
(E) 12/17
Question 26
x2
+2x-8 =
x 2-6x+8
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) x/3
(D) x+4
x-4
(E) x+8
x-8
Question 27
Which of the following CANNOT yield an integer when divided by 10?
(i) Product of two prime numbers
(ii) An integer less than 10
(iii) Sum of three consecutive integers
(iv) An odd integer
A. (i) & (iv) only
B. (ii) & (iv) only
C. (ii), (iii) & (iv) only
D. (iv) Only
Question 28
A number, K, is a positive integer with the special property that 3 times its unit is equal to 2 times
its 10 digit. How many such numbers exist between 10 & 99?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Question 29
If two digit integer M and N are positive and have same digits, but in reverse order, which of the
following cannot be the sum of M and N.
a) 181
b) 165
c) 121
d) 99
e) 44
Question 30
....
In the figure above, does x = 90?
(1) The length of AC is less than the length of BC.
(2) The length of AB is one-fourth the circumference of the circle.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Question: 31
In a group of 8 semifinalists, all but 2 will advance to the final round. If in the final round only the
top 3 will be awarded medals, then how many groups of medal winners are possible?
(A) 20
(B) 56
(C) 120
(D) 560
(E) 720
Question 32
The marks scored by a student in three subjects are in the ratio of 4: 5: 6. If the candidate scored
an overall aggregate of 60% of the sum of the maximum marks and the maximum mark in all
three subjects is the same, in how many subjects did he score more than 60%?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) None of the subjects
Question 33
There are 6 boxes numbered 1, 2,...6. Each box is to be filled up either with a red or a green ball
in such a way that at least 1 box contains a green ball and the boxes containing green balls are
consecutively numbered. The total number of ways in which this can be done is
(A) 5 (B) 21
(C) 33 (D) 60
(E) 40
Question 34
A vendor sells 60 percent of apples he had and throws away 15 percent of the remainder. Next
day he sells 50 percent of the remainder and throws away the rest. What percent of his apples
does the vendor throw?
(A) 17 (B) 23
(C) 77 (D) None of these
(E) 75
35. The product of two positive numbers is p. If each of the numbers is increased by 2, the new
product is how much greater than twice the sum of the two original numbers?
(A) p-2
(B) p
(C) p+2
(D) p+4
(E) 2p+4
36. If p and q are integers, such that p<0 I. 2p<2q
II. p2 III. p+q=0
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III
37. If 12(22)(35) is an integer, which of the following CANNOT be the value of p?
p
(A) 15
(B) 21
(C) 28
(D) 33
(E) 50
Solutions
Answer 1 (C). If we work with the two inequalities we subtract the max of 2nd from min
of 1st hence subtracting 11 from 3 gives us –8. Hence ineq. Should be –8 Answer 2 (C)
Since S contains only consecutive integers, its median is the average of the extreme
values a and b. We also know that the median of S is . We can set up and simplify
the following equation:
Since set Q contains only consecutive integers, its median is also the average of the
extreme values, in this case b and c. We also know that the median of Q is . We can
set up and simplify the following equation:
We can find the ratio of a to c as follows:
Taking the first equation,
and the second equation,
and setting them equal to each other, yields the following:
Since set R contains only consecutive integers, its median is the average of the extreme
values a and c: . We can use the ratio to substitute for a:
Thus the median of set R is . The correct answer is C.
Answer 3 (B)
This question looks daunting, but we can tackle it by thinking about the place values of
the unknowns. If we had a three-digit number abc, we could express it as 100a + 10b + c
(think of an example, say 375: 100(3) + 10(7) + 5). Thus, each additional digit increases
the place value tenfold.
If we have abcabc, we can express it as follows:
100000a + 10000b + 1000c + 100a + 10b + c
If we combine like terms, we get the following:
100100a + 10010b + 1001c
At this point, we can spot a pattern in the terms: each term is a multiple of 1001. On the
GMAT, such patterns are not accidental. If we factor 1001 from each term, the
expression can be simplified as follows:
1001(100a + 10b + c) or 1001(abc).
Thus, abcabc is the product of 1001 and abc, and will have all the factors of both. Since
we don't know the value of abc, we cannot know what its factors are. But we can see
whether one of the answer choices is a factor of 1001, which would make it a factor of
abcabc.
1001 is not even, so 16 is not a factor. 1001 doesn't end in 0 or 5, so 5 is not a factor.
The sum of the digits in 1001 is not a multiple of 3, so 3 is not a factor. It's difficult to
know whether 13 is a factor without performing the division: 1001/13 = 77. Since 13
divides into 1001 without a remainder, it is a factor of 1001 and thus a factor of abcabc.
The correct answer is B.
Answer 4 (D)
We can simplify this problem by using variables instead of numbers.
x = 54,820
x + 2 = 54,822
The average of (54,820)2 and (54,822)2 =
Now, factor x2 + 2x +2. This equals x2 + 2x +1 + 1, which equals (x + 1)2 + 1.
Substitute our original number back in for x as follows:
(x + 1)2 + 1 = (54,820 + 1)2 + 1 = (54,821)2 + 1.
The correct answer is D.
Answer 5 (D)
At the end of the first week, there are 5 members. During the second week, 5x new
members are brought in (x new members for every existing member). During the third
week, the previous week's new members (5x) each bring in x new members:
new members. If we continue this pattern to the twelfth week, we will see that new
members join the club that week. Since y is the number of new members joining during
week 12, .
If , we can set each of the answer choices equal to and see which one yields
an integer value (since y is a specific number of people, it must be an integer value). The
only choice to yield an integer value is (D):
Therefore x = 15.
Since choice (D) is the only one to yield an integer value, it is the correct answer.
Answer 6 (D)
The key to this problem is to recognize that in order for any integer to be divisible by 5, it
must end in 0 or 5. Since we are adding a string of powers of 9, the question becomes
"Does the sum of these powers of 9 end in 0 or 5?" If we knew the units digits of each
power of nine, we'd be able to figure out the units digit of their sum.
9 raised to an even exponent will result in a number whose units digit is 1 (e.g., 92 = 81,
94 = 6561, etc.). If 9 raised to an even exponent always gives 1 as the units digit, then 9
raised to an odd exponent will therefore result in a number whose units digit is 9 (think
about this: 92 = 81, so 93 will be 81 x 9 and the units digit will be 1 x 9).
Since our exponents in this case are x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, and x+5, we need to know
whether x is an integer in order to be sure the pattern holds. (NEVER assume that an
unknown is an integer unless expressly informed). If x is in fact an integer, we will have
6 consecutive integers, of which 3 will necessarily be even and 3 odd. The 3 even
exponents will result in 1's and the 3 odd exponents will result in 9's. Since the three 1's
can be paired with the three 9's (for a sum of 30), the units digit of y will be 0 and y
will thus be divisible by 5. But we don't know whether x is an integer. For that, we need
to check the statements.
Statement (1) tells us that 5 is a factor of x, which means that x must be an integer.
Sufficient.
Statement (2) tells us that x is an integer. Sufficient.
The correct answer is D: EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
Answer 7 (E).
They tell us the range of the set {150, 90, 125, 110, 170, 155, x, 100, 140} is 95. Since
the present range without is 80, x has to be either the highest or the lowest number in the
set. If x is the lowest number, it would be 170-95=75, but that’s not an option. Therefore
x has to be the highest number. 90+95=185.
Answer 8 (C).
Plug in for number of tasks to be completed before the job is done; let the job involve
making 24 widgets. Thus, Frances makes 2 per hour, and Joan makes 3 per hour. Frances
works for 6 hours, so she makes 12 widgets. Joan needs 4 hours to make the other 12
widgets; if she starts at 4 p.m. she will finish at 8 p.m.
Answer 9 (E).
This is a Yes/No data sufficiency question. The only way the statements will provide
definitive information is if they lead to a definite YES answer or if they lead to a definite
NO answer. (A "Maybe" answer means that the statements are not sufficient.
Statement (1) alone only provides us information about when A and C cannot meet. It
does not provide any information about when each of the pilots ARE able to meet. While
we know that A and C cannot meet together, it is possible that some combination of three
pilots would be able to meet together (such as ABD or CBE). Statement (1) alone
therefore does not provide enough information to be able to definitively answer this
question YES or NO.
Statement (2) alone provides us with specific information about when B and E can meet.
However we are not provided with information as to whether one of the other pilots --A,
C or D -- will be able to join them for the meeting. Thus, statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer this question
In analyzing statements (1) and (2) together, it is helpful to list the 10 possible ways that
3 of the pilots could meet:
1. ABC
2. ABD
3. ABE
4. ACD
5. ACE
6. ADE
7. BCD
8. BCE
9. BDE
10. CDE
Statements (1) and (2) taken together preclude pilots A or C from meeting with pilots B
and E. This is due to the fact that pilots B and E can only meet for two straight hours
from 10:30 PM to 12:30 AM starting on either Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, or
Thursday night while pilots A and C can never meet during the AM hours of any
weekday (leaving the 12:00 AM to 12:30 AM slot impossible). This eliminates 8 of the
10 possibilities (1, 2, 3, 5, 6 because A can't meet with B or E and 7, 8, 10 because C
can't meet with B or E.)
In addition, since pilot A cannot meet with pilot C, possibility 4 is also eliminated.
Thus, the only possibility that remains is #9: BDE. The question stem states that D is able
to meet at any time that B cannot. It may be tempting to use this information to conclude
that B and D are not able to meet together. However, while we know for sure that D is
able to meet at any time that B cannot, this does not preclude the possibility that D is
ALSO able to meet at times when B can meet. Given that we don't know whether or not
D can meet at the same time that B and E can meet - we do not have enough information
to evaluate whether pilots B, D, and E will be able to meet together.
Therefore, the correct answer is E: Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT
sufficient.
Answer 10 (A).
If we express the numerators as powers of 2, then we would get 1/212 + 2/213 + 22/214 +
23/215 which is equal to 1/212 + 1/212 + 1/212 + 1/212 which equals 4/212. This can be
further reduced to 22/212 = ½10.
Answer 11(C)
When a whole number is divided by 5, the remainder depends on the units digit of that
number.
Thus, we need to determine the units digit of the number 11+22+33+...+1010. To do so, we
need to first determine the units digit of each of the individual terms in the expression as
follows:
Term Last (Units) Digit
11 1
22 4
33 7
44 6
55 5
66 6
77 3
88 6
99 9
1010 0
To determine the units digit of the expression itself, we must find the sum of all the units
digits of each of the individual terms:
1 + 4 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 6 + 3 + 6 + 9 = 47
Thus, 7 is the units digit of the number 11+22+33+...+1010. When an integer that ends in 7
is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. (Test this out on any integer ending in 7.)
Thus, the correct answer is C.
Answer 12 (E).
Look for the pattern: 91=9. 92=81. 93=729. Multiply that by another 9. You’ll get
another no ending in 1. And so forth and so on. So the bottom line is that whenever 9 is
raised to an odd power, the units digit is 9. When it’s raised to an even power, the units
digit is 1. When you divide a number by 10, its remainder will always be its units digit.
No matter what value you plug in for n, we’re always going to be raising 9 to an odd
power, so the units digit and the remainder will both be 9.
Answer 13 (D)
This problem involves 3 overlapping sets. To visualize a 3 set problem, it is best to draw
a Venn Diagram.
We can begin filling in our Venn Diagram utilizing the following 2 facts: (1) The number
of bags that contain only raisins is 10 times the number of bags that contain only peanuts.
(2) The number of bags that contain only almonds is 20 times the number of bags that
contain only raisins and peanuts.
Next, we are told that the number of bags that contain only peanuts (which we have
represented as x) is one- fifth the number of bags that contain only almonds (which we
have represented as 20y).
This yields the following equation: x = (1/5) 20y which simplifies to x = 4y. We can use
this information to revise our Venn Diagram by substituting any x in our original diagram
with 4y as in the figure.
Answer 14(C).
In order for one number to be the reciprocal of another number, their product must equal
1. Thus, this question can be rephrased as follows:
What is the probability that = 1?
This can be simplified as follows:
What is the probability that = 1 ?
What is the probability that = wz ?
Finally: What is the probability that ux = vywz ?
Statement (1) tells us that vywz is an integer, since it is the product of integers. However,
this gives no information about u and x and is therefore not sufficient to answer the
question.
Statement (2) tells us that ux is NOT an integer. This is because the median of an even
number of consecutive integers is NOT an integer. (For example, the median of 4
consecut ive integers - 9, 10, 11, 12 - equals 10.5.) However, this gives us no information
about vywz and is therefore not sufficient to answer the question.
Taking both statements together, we know that vywz IS an integer and that ux is NOT an
integer. Therefore vywz CANNOT be equal to ux. The probability that the fractions are
reciprocals is zero.
The correct answer is C: Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to
answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
Answer 15 (C).
If n is greater than 5.3 then the smallest n! can be 6!. Since 6! =6*5*4*3*2*1, it is
definitely divisible by 12, because any n! bigger than 6 will include both a 6 and a 2, thus
making it a multiple of 12.Also, n! does not have to be divisible by anything greater than
6, so 7,11 and 13 are eliminated as are any multiples of those numbers, like 14.
Answer 16 (C).
The question here is to find out the population of the village. Statement (1) tells us that
7/11 of the village comprises of married people. So if the population of the village is x,
the no of married population is 7x/11. but this is absolutely not enough to get the total
population. So we have BCE. Now statement (2) tells that 200 widows comprise 10% of
the singles population. So the singles population is clearly 2000. so both the statements
(1) and (2) ALONE are not sufficient to answer the question. So now we combine both of
them. We get singles + widows + married = total population. Adding both statements we
get 2000+200+7x/11=x which gives us the total population of 6050 people. Therefore the
answer is (C).
Answer 17(C).
The question stem gives A+B+C=137. Now we look at the statement (1). It says A+C=91
which leads us to value of B=46. But it ALONE is not enough to get us the value of C.
Looking at statement (2) we get B+C=104 which leads us to value of A=33. This also
ALONE is not enough to get value of C. But both statements taken together will
definitely lead us to get the value of C from the question stem as 58. Therefore answer is
(C).
Answer 18(D).
We take the first statement and analyze it. Taking examples of 12 and 21 we get
difference of 9 that is divisible by 9. Again 13 and 31 gives difference of 18 divisible by
9. And so and so forth. So statement (1) ALONE is enough to answer the stem question.
So we have AD. Statement (2) gives us the divisibility rule of a number divisible by 9. So
it clearly answers the question asked in stem. So both statements ALONE are enough to
answer the question making (D) the right answer.
Answer 19(E).
The statement (1) here tells us that the winning candidate gets 54% of the total votes. But
this clearly is not enough to get the total vote count. So BDE. Statement (2) gives the
margin of victory but that too is not enough to answer the question involved. Even when
both the statements are taken together it leads us to nowhere. So some more data is
required to solve this problem clearly making (E) the right choice.
Answer 20(A).
If we expand the question stem we get ) 1 2 ( 2 x x
x
y
which can be reduced as xy +2y
+y/x. Now look at the statement (1). It tells that xy>0. If this is the case then surely the
whole equation becomes greater than 2y, which answers the question. So AD. Now
statement (2) gives us another equation that cannot help us solve the question asked in the
stem. So answer is (A).
Answer 21(E).
This is slightly tricky question. When square root of a number is involved the dividing
range becomes 0-1 or >1 since square root of a negative number is not included in
GMAT. So if a number is >1 then the question stem is true. And if the number is between
0-1 then the question stem is false. Statement (1) gives us the range as x>0 which takes
care of both our range. So nothing can be determined from this. So BCE. Statement (2)
tells us that x<2 which again covers both our range. So the answer is (E).
Answer 22(C).
To answer this question lets see the fact statements. Statement (1) says that x is +ve. This
ALONE is not enough to answer the stem question as x could be <1/5 and still be
positive. So BCE. Statement (2) can be transformed to the question stem but it could be
only true if x is positive. So clearly both the statements together will lead us to the answer
and hence (C).
Answer 23(E).
This question appears to be simple but it involves careful look at the question. The stem
question asks us for a relation. Statement (1) gives us the relation between a and b and
also the range of x. But the important point is that it has not given the range of a and b
whether they are positive or negative. Statement (2) also has the same problem as the
range for a and b are missing. So clearly answer is (E).
Answer 24(B).
The total number of digits is 187. The total number of single digit page numbers is
9(from 1 to 9). So subtracting this from 187 we get 178. After page number 9 we have 2
digit page numbers. So dividing this by 2 we get 89. So the total number of pages in the
book are 89+9=98.
Answer 25(E).
Remember that at least one is a clue, and when u see phrase, u need to find the
probability of getting everything except what u want (in other words, the probability of
getting any other color except blue), and then subtract that from 1. The formula for this
would be 1-(the probability of getting the other colors). 1-(10/18 * 9/17)=1-5/17=12/17.
Answer 26(D).
We don’t need to go about solving this question as per the REAL MATH way. We use
our technique. Whenever we see variables in the answer choice we just plug in!! Plug in
x=3, and the fraction becomes –7(target answer). Bingo!
Answer 27(D).
This question requires deep thinking in the sense that you have to look for the examples
to refute the statements. We will take one by one. If product of two prime numbers when
divided by 10 gives us an integer we can remove all answers containing (i). So we take 5
and 2. When multiplied and then divided by 10 we get an integer 1. So (i) is true. Get rid
of A. We move to (ii). Lets take 0. This when divided by 10 gives 0, which again is an
integer. So (ii) is also true. So get rid of B and C. Now we just need to verify D as it is the
obvious choice. Any odd integer when divided by 10 would always leave decimal and
never an integer. So D cannot be true. Hence it is the answer.
Answer 28(B).
Here’s another smart Question. It appears to be daunting but it’s not that tough. We start
with 1 at units place. When multiplied 3 times and then divided by 2 we get 1.5. So it is
ruled out. Next we try with 2. When we multiply by 3 we get 6 which when divided by 2
gives us 3.Bingo!! We get the first number 32. Similarly by trying out different numbers
at unit place we get other 2 numbers as 64 and 96(which are also multiples of 32 for
hint). So we get a total of 3 numbers between 10 and 99.
Answer 29(A).
Lets try this question by trial and error. Lets try to get all ans wers starting with smallest
value 44. It can be sum of 22 and 22. So (E) is ruled out. Now move to 99. It could be
sum of 54 and 45. So (D) goes. Next 121 could be written as 56 + 65. So even (C) goes.
Now try out 165. It could be the sum of 87 and 78. So after POE rest four (A) becomes
the answer, as it cannot be written as sum of desired combination.
Answer 30(B).
We need to see the fact statements. Statement (1) says that the length of AC is less than
the length of BC. This clearly leads us to nowhere. So BCE. Now the fact statement (2)
tells us that the length of AB is one- fourth the circumference of the circle, which clearly
leads us to know that it is not the diameter, it is just a chord. So the angle subtended is not
equal to 90 deg. So the answer is (B).
Answer 31 (B).
The entire discussion of rounds is a red herring. The question is asking for possible
combinations of the final 3, and it is possible for any of the original 8 contestants to have
advanced to the final round, thus we need to pick 3 out of 8, and order doesn’t matter.
8*7*6/3*2*1=56.
Answer 32(1).
Let the maximum in marks in each of the three subjects be 100.
Therefore, the candidate scored an aggregate of 60% of 3 * 100 = 60% of 300 marks =
180 marks.
Let the marks scored in the three subjects be 4x, 5x and 6x.
Then, 4x + 5x + 6x = 180
? 15x = 180 or x = 12.
Therefore, marks scored by the candidate in the three subjects are 4*12, 5*12 and 6*12
= 48, 60 and 72.
Hence, the candidate has score more than 60% in one subject.
Answer 33 (2).
If only one of the boxes has a green ball, it can be any of the 6 boxes. So, this can be
achieved in 6 ways.
If two of the boxes have green balls and then there are 5 consecutive sets of 2 boxes. 12,
23, 34, 45, 56.
Similarly, if 3 of the boxes have green balls, there will be 4 options.
If 4 boxes have green balls, there will be 3 options.
If 5 boxes have green balls, then there will be 2 options.
If all 6 boxes have green balls, then there will be just 1 option.
Total number of options = 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21
Answer 34 (2).
Let the number of apples be 100.
On the first day he sells 60% apples ie.,60 apples.Remaining apples =40.
He throws 15% of the remaining i.e., 15% of 40 = 6.Now he has 40-6 = 34 apples
The next day he throws 50% of the remaining 34 apples i.e., 17.
Therefore in all he throws 6+17 =23 apples.
Answer 35(D)
Plug in p=10. This can be written as the product of 2 and 5. Their sum is 7. Twice of it is
14. Increasing the original numbers by 2 we get the two numbers as 4 and 7. The product
of this is 7*4=28. So the difference between the product and the sum is 28-14=14.This is
our target answer. Plug in p=10 back in all the answer choices and look for the answer as
14. (D) is the answer.
Answer 36(A)
Variables in the answer choices, plug in!! lets plug in p=-2 and q=2. Now verify all the
choices given. We get II false. So all the answers which contain II should go. So (B), (C)
and (E) go. Since two answer choices remain we plug in once more. Put p=-2 and q=3.
Now we can see that III is false. So the answer is (A).
Answer 37(E)
Factor out the numerator (4*3)(2*11)(5*7). Now this fraction when divided by p would
get an integer only if p cancels out with some of the factors. So now lets try it with
different answer choices. Except for the (E) all other choices can be cancelled out. So
clearly (E) is the answer.
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  #3  
Old February 16th, 2015, 06:11 PM
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Default Re: Graduate Management Admission Test previous year question papers free download

Here I am providing the list of few questions of Graduate Management Admission Test exam question paper which you are looking for .

Question1
If –2 (A) 1 (B) -14 (C) -7 (D) 1 (E) -24 Question 2
a, b, and c are integers and a < b < c. S is the set of all integers from a to b, inclusive. Q is the
set of all integers from b to c, inclusive. The median of set S is (3/4)b. The median of set Q is
(7/8)c. If R is the set of all integers from a to c, inclusive, what fraction of c is the median of set
R?
(A) 3/8
(B) 1/2
(C) 11/16
(D) 5/7
(E) 3/4
Question 3
a, b, and c are positive integers. If a, b, and c are assembled into the six-digit number abcabc,
which one of the following must be a factor of abcabc?
(A) 16
(B) 13
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) none of the above
Question 4
The average of (54,820)2 and (54,822)2 =
(A) (54,821)2
(B) (54,821.5)2
(C) (54,820.5)2
(D) (54,821)2 + 1
(E) (54,821)2 – 1








For the question paper , here is the attachment
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf Graduate Management Admission Test exam question paper.pdf (80.3 KB, 27 views)
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