Common Management Admission Test previous year question papers

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Direction (1 – 5) : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word is

wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Q.1)

(1) Preposterous (2) Disasterous

(3) Murderous (4) Onerous

Q.2)

(1) Severity (2) Cruelity

(3) Sincerity (4) Superiority

Q.3)

(1) Begining (2) Winning

(3) Mining (4) Running

Q.4)

(1) Complement (2) Compliment

(3) Supplement (4) Requirement

Q.5)

(1) Amelirate (2) Zealot

(3) Penetrate (4) Stain

Direction (6 – 15) : In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given

alternatives to the bold part as 1, 2 and 3 which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In

case no improvement is needed, you answer is ‘4’. Blacken the appropriate rectangle in the answer sheet.

Q.6) She teaches us grammar, isn’t it?

(1) isn’t she? (2) doesn’t she?

(3) doesn’t it? (4) no improvement

Q.7) The struggle for independent is gaining movement every day.

(1) motion (2) movement

(3) momentum (4) no improvement

Q.8) She is quite without affection and has no false pride.

(1) admiration (2) affliction

(3) affectation (4) no improvement

Q.9) I complimented Raju for his promotion.

(1) with (2) on

(3) about (4) no improvement

Q.10) The food tastes deliciously.

(1) delicacy (2) delicious

(3) badly (4) no improvement

Q.11) I have seen much of the plays of Shakespeare acted.

(1) a few (2) many

(3) most (4) no improvement

Q.12) I have bought this house in 1970 for Rs. Two lakhs.

(1) had bought (2) bought

(3) have been bought (4) no improvement

Q.13) To child died from jaundice.

(1) with (2) of

(3) by (4) no improvement

Q.14) I will phone you after I shall arrive.

(1) after I shall have arrived

(2) after I arrive

(3) after I arrived

(4) no improvement

Q.15) It’s high time you come to a decision.

(1) came (2) had come

(3) have come (4) no improvement

Direction (16 – 20) : In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the

four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active

Voice.

Q.16) You surprise me.

(1) I am to be surprised (2) You are surprised

(3) I am surprised (4) Me is surprised

Q.17) The boys killed the snake with a stick.

(1) The snake was killed by the boys with a stick.

(2) A stick was killed by the boys with a snake.

(3) A snake with a stick was killed by the boys.

(4) A snake is killed by the boys with a stick.

Q.18) Let me do this.

(1) Let us do this. (2) This be done by me.

(3) Let this be done by me. (4) Let do this.

Q.19) The tiger caught a fox.

(1) A fox has been caught by the tiger.

(2) A fox was caught by the tiger.

(3) A fox is caught by the tiger.

(4) A fox had been caught by the tiger.

Q.20) Someone has lit the fire.

(1) The fire was lit by someone.

(2) You are requested to light the fire by someone.

(3) The firs has been lit by someone.

(4) The fire had been lit by someone.

Direction (21 – 25) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.

The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their

proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct

answer and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

Q.21) 1. Once a week Deesa led Moti Guj, the elephant, down to the river.

P. After inspection the two would stand up.

Q. Then Deesa looked at his feet and examined his whole body for sores.

R. The animal knew it was time to return.

S. The elephant lay down on his side, while Deesa rubbed him with a coir scrubber.

6. Both the elephant and the trainer would return home.

(1) SQPR (2) QSRP

(3) QPRS (4) RQSP

Q.22) 1. Anna had longed to see her son.

P. “He will arrive at the station at 10 O’clock, she said to herself.

Q. She prepared herself for it.

R. She looked at the clock.

S. There were only five minutes left.

6. She rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach the station in time.

(1) QPRS (2) SPRQ

(3) PRQS (4) QSRP

Q.23) 1. Mr. Ramaswamy is a very strict man.

P. He earns nearly three thousand rupees a month.

Q. He also believes that it is foolish to waste one’s time or money.

R. He is not a poor man.

S. He believes that life means work only.

6. But he wants his children to lead a simple life.

(1) PSQR (2) SQRP

(3) RQPS (4) SRQP

Q.24) 1. It will be better.

P. to a few than enrol.

Q. to provide quality education.

R. them out as graduates.

S. en masse and churn.

6. after perfunctory teaching.

(1) QRSP (2) RSPQ

(3) QPSR (4) SRQP

Q.25) 1. ‘I was born here in the old city’ the girl told us.

P. her answer suggested that her family has roots.

Q. when we inquired.

R. as opposed to the modern towns that consist mostly of hotels.

S. and belongs to the traditional part where the temple are.

6. Some day people here are more ethnically pure.

(1) QPSR (2) SRPQ

(3) PSRQ (4) SRQP

ANSWERS


1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (224. (3)25. (1)


Direction (1 – 5) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.

The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their

proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct

answer and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

Q.1) 1. Making ourselves

P. our language

Q. part of growing into

R. masters of

S. is an important

6. full manhood or womanhood

(1) PSRQ (2) SQPR

(3) RPSQ (4) PRSQ

Q.2) 1. The very first battle they fought

P. and they had to fall back

Q. cross the border

R. was lost

S. letting the enemy

6. an enter the country

(1) RQSP (2) RPSQ

(3) QRPS (4) QPRS

Q.3) 1. A nation

P. the material assets it possesses

Q. is not made by

R. and collective determination

S. but by the will

6. of the people

(1) PQRS (2) QPSR

(3) RSPQ (4) SRPQ

Q.4) 1. When the Governor

P. the bell had rung

Q. justice should be immediately

R. he ordered that

S. found out why

6. done to the horse

(1) RSPQ (2) PQSR

(3) SPRQ (4) SQRP

Q.5) 1. When you ponder over

P. that the only hope

Q. you will realize

R. of world peace lies

S. the question deeply

6. in the United Nations



(1) QRSP (2) SPQR

(3) SQPR (4) RSPQ

Direction (6 – 15) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over

and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your

answer in the Answer Sheet.

The language problem is not solved by deciding the medium of instruction in the education institutions. The

problem is 81.

between State Governments still 82. At present, each State Government is 83 the process of 84 the 85 language

as the medium for 86 purposes. Then the need for a stable language for 87 communication 88. Moreover, the

Central Government shall 89 adopt a particular language for 90 own official work.

Q.6)

(1) communication (2) information

(3) intimation (4) decision

Q.7)

(1) stays (2) remains

(3) resides (4) rests

Q.8)

(1) into (2) through

(3) with (4) in

Q.9)

(1) adapting (2) imposing

(3) thrusting (4) adopting

Q.10)

(1) local (2) mother

(3) regional (4) foreign

Q.11)

(1) governmental (2) officious

(3) administrative (4) religious

Q.12)

(1) inter-state (2) regional

(3) international (4) intra-state

Q.13)

(1) come up (2) rises

(3) crops up (4) persists

Q.14)

(1) having to (2) have to

(3) had been (4) have been

Q.15)

(1) its (2) their

(3) our (4) his

Direction (16 – 25) : In the following passage, you have two brief passage with 5 questions following each

passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives

and blacken the appropriate rectangles in the Answer-sheet.

Passage - I



“The Law is an ass’, declared Mr. Bumble in “Oliver Twist”, and it often seems he was right. For punishment

does not always fit the crime and it rarely happens that a prison term reforms a criminal.”

Consider the following tow cases. The first one had happened in a village in Madural District. One Gopal One

Gopal Yadhav, a hard-core criminal undergoing life sentence in the Madural Prison came out on ball for two

days to perform the last rites of his mother. But he was rearrested on the same evening on the charges of

murdering his neighbour’s son the settle old scores.

The second case too came to Madural Court recently. Deserted by her husband a drunkard, his grief-stricken

wife mixed rate poison in the food and gave it to her four children aged between 1 ½ and 9 years. Before she

could swallow the same food she was unable to bear the pritiable sight of her children writhing in pain. She

rushed them to hospital where she disclosed everything. She was able to save the lives of the first three

children, but the law of the country awarded her tow years imprisonment (later commuted to one year) on the

charges of plotting to kill her children. Would you say women like here are a danger to the society? Would you

call them criminal? It is high time that we found other ways of registering our disapproval of wrong doing. To

imprison the bad is expedient – when they are dangerous. To imprison the mad and the merely sad, as we do, is

not only unnecessary, it is uncivilized.

Q.16) The writer says ‘The Law is an ass’ because

(1) it is as patient as an ass

(2) it does not punish the criminals severely

(3) punishments do not help to reform criminals

(4) criminals can escape punishment.

Q.17) Gopal Yadhav came out on ball

(1) in order to murder his enemy

(2) to cremate his mother

(3) so that he could be rearrested

(4) to see his four children undergoing treatment in the hospital

Q.18) The mother in the second case cannot be called a criminal because she

(1) rushed her children to the hospital

(2) mixed an ineffective poison in the food

(3) was able to save three out of four children

(4) was deserted by her husband.

Q.19) The writer argues that punishments for people like the woman in the second case are not necessary

because they

(1) don’t commit crimes frequently

(2) are less dangerous than other criminals

(3) represent poor society

(4) should not be clubbed with other criminals

Q.20) The main difference between the two case is

(1) the first is about a man and the other is about a woman

(2) the woman regrets what she has done, but not the man

(3) the man is a lifer but the woman is not

(4) the man and the woman belong to different communities

Passage - II

The United Nations Fourth World Women’s Conference had a colourful start at Beijing on September 4th. This

is the century’s most crucial conference which aimed at changing the status quo of women’s lives

characterized by inequality.

In a preliminary session, Ms. Aung Suu Kyi, the Nobel Peace Prize winner said that expanding women’s

power will bring greater peace and tolerance to the world.

“It is not the prerogative of men alone to bring light to this world. Women with their capacity for compassion

and self-sacrifice, with their courage and perseverance have done much to dissipate the darkness of intolerance

and hate”, said Ms. Suu Kyi.


In the afternoon session Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi, a Japanese delegate, launched a petition against beauty

pageants. “What right do men have to evaluate women in a few minutes? All women are beautiful. Beauty is

something different for everyone”, Ms Ayako Yamaguchi said.

“Beauty contests are used as trade and exploitation. The training is very vigorous but it is the organizers, not

the women, who get the full benefit”, said Ms Ranjana Bhargava. “After the competition, the women become

trapped and the abuse and the bad things begin. The women are tainted no one else will accept them”.

Q.21) The Women’s World Conference was very important because

(1) Ms Aung Suu Kyi has just been awarded the prestigious Nobel Peace Prize

(2) Ms Aung Suu Kyi was taking part in the Conference

(3) its main purpose was to change inequalities between men and women

(4) it was to protest against beauty contests

Q.22) Which of the following arguments of Ms Aung Suu Kyi is not true?

(1) Women also can bring greater peace to the world.

(2) Men cannot claim they have done more for peace.

(3) Women have the capacity for compassion and sacrifice.

(4) Men have done nothing to dissipate ignorance.

Q.23) The main emphasis in Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi’s argument is

(1) men have no right to judge women.

(2) men should be given more time to evaluate women.

(3) all women are beautiful in a way.

(4) beauty contests are not necessary.

Q.24) “Beauty is something different for everyone”.

This statement means

(1) beauty is certainly different from ugliness.

(2) beautiful women do not mingle with other women.

(3) beauty cannot be defined adequately.

(4) each woman is beautiful.

Q.25) “Colourful start” in the first sentence refers to

(1) participants who were all beautiful

(2) a lot of excitement and cheerfulness in the conference hall

(3) absence of black coloured girls

(4) flags of various colours outside the conference hall

ANSWERS
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3)5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (4)9. (4) 10. (3)

11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2)21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (2)


SECTION 'A'

Test of proficiency in English Language

DIRECTION : For each of the question from 1 to 3, choose the Word or Phrase that is similar

(a) Organised (b) Clumsy (c) Frantic (d) Thrilling

(a) Distract (b) Suppress (c) Discourage (d) Contaminate

(a) Control (b) Emit (c) Stir (d) Discard

DIRECTION : For each of the question from 4 to 6, choose the Word or Phrase that opposite

(a) Loathe (b) Despise (c) Adore (d) Abhor

(a) Normality (b) Restoration (c) Fertility (d) Praise

(a) Experienced (b) Inevitable (c) Industrious (d) Proper

DIRECTION : Relate the Ologies & Ographies in the following numbered questions from 7 to

(a) Study of hair (b) study of insects (c) Study of fishes (d) Study of dates


(a) Study of kidney (b) study of clouds

(c) Study of snakes (d) Study of liver

(a) Study of historical language (b) study of people

(c) Study of supernatural beings (d) Study of rocks

DIRECTION : An idiom and four and four possible meanings are given in questions from 10 to

12. Identify the closest meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices.

(a) To handle a situation calmly (b) To dispute over petty points

(c) Any easy task (d) To treat lightly

(a) Unable to perform (b) Make no impression

(c) Come to nothing (d) To fail

(a) Thoroughly (b) Continuously (c) Nothing (d) Completely

DIRECTION : Each question from 13 to 15 gives a sentence with a part of sentence underlined

that may contain an error. Four alternatives substitutes are given for the underlined portion.

Identify the choice that replaces the underlined part to form a logical and grammatically correct

13. He would not have failed if he had enough money

(a) if he had enough money (b) if he would have enough money

(c) if he would have had enough money (d) if he had had enough money

14. The professor asked her when will you submit her thesis.

(a) when will you submit her thesis

(b) when she would have submit her thesis


(c) When you will have submitted your thesis

(d) when she would submit her thesis

15. He tried his best to be punctual, but he was occasionally behind time.

(a) he was always lagging behind (b) he was seldom on time

(c) he was late on some occasions (d) he would be punctual

DIRECTION : In each of the following question 16 & 17, a capitalised pair of words is given,

followed by four numbered pairs of words. Three of the numbered pairs exhibit the same

relationship between the words as the capitalised pair of words. Identify the numbered pair

which does not exhibit the same relationship as the capitalised pair.

(a) draught : rain (b) anger : resentment (c) extinct : protect (d) error : diligence

(a) design : plan (b) draw : picture (c) print : book (d) paint : portrait

DIRECTIONS : A sentence is written in four different formats in questions 18 & 19. Only one

of them is grammatically correct. Mark the correct choices as your answer.

18. (a) I will meet you if you will come tommorrow.

(b) I will meet you if you have come tommorrow.

(c) I shall meet you if you come tommorrow.

(d) I shall meet you if you may come tommorrow.

19. (a) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crime.

(b) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crimes.

(c) Harsher punishment will not increase the number of crime.

(d) Harsher punishment will increase the crime number.

DIRECTIONS : Fill in the blanks in the given sentence so as to make it logically and

grammatically correct by chosing the correct word from the choices given, in questions 20 & 21.

20. ___________ about nine months ago, john was in excellent health.

(a) Until (b) In (c) At (d) As

21. Mental talents if buries and not used, ___________ to deteriorate.

(a) lead (b) get (c) tend (d) matter

DIRECTION : Each question 22 & 23 below gives a sentence followed by four answer choices.

From the choices provided, identify the one that best restates the given sentence and mark its

22. It might be truly said of him that he never sought nonour.

(a) It is true that he never sought nonour.

(b) The truth of him is that he never sought honour.

(c) Honour was not truly sought by him.

(d) He never truly sought honour.

23. I am afraid I did not make myself understood.

(a) I am afraid of not making myself undertood.

(b) I am afaraid I have not made myself understood.

(c) I am afraid I did not make myself undertsood.

(d) I am afaraid of not having made myself understood.

DIRECTION : A word and four jumbled choices are given in questions 24 & 25. One of the

choices, when properly arranged gives the word. Identify the correct choice.

(a) UQAVNHSI (b) CETAH (c) COTUH (d) TACSRCH

(a) TIAIRLSIC (b) BDCINREILE (c) ALCER (d) YNIMIAGAR

SECTION 'B'

Test of General Knowledge

26. The tusks of male elephant are

(a) premolar (b) molar (c) incisor (d) canine

27. In which year was the RBI nationalized ?

(a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1949

28. The Mauryan dynasty from 321 BC to 185 BC. The last Mauryan emperor was defeated by

Pushyamitra Sunga. Who among the following was the last Mauryan emperor ?

(a) Brihadratha (b) Asoka (c) Bindusara (d) Samprati

29. Which of the following books is not written by Shashi Tharoor ?

(a) Bookless in Baghdad (b) The Great Indian Novel

(c) Riot : A Novel (d) India : The Siege Within

30. When bullet is fired upwards vertically it gains in

(a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic energy (c) Speed (d)

31. How many players make up a team in a basketball game ?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

32. Who among the following is the director of the film Corporate ?

(a) Shekar Kapoor (b) Mahesh Bhatt

(c) Nagesh Kukanoor (d) Madhur Bhandarkar

33. The traditional new year celebrations of Bihu are associated with

(a) West Bengal (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Kerala

34. Who is the author of the book, Elizabeth Costello ?

(a) J.M. Coetzee (b) Peter Carey (c) Glunter Grass (d) Hari Junzru

35. Which is the solar system's fastest planet, which orbits the sun at nearly twice the speed of

(a) Venus (b) Mercury (c) Jupiter (d) Pluto

36. US President Barack Obama serced as United States Senator from January 4, 2005 to

November 16, 2008 from which of the following states ?

(a) Iowa (b) California (c) Illinois (d) New York

37. Who among the following owns The Taj Hotel, Mumbai which was recently attacked by

(a) Ratan Tata (b) Arun Sarin (c) KM Birla (d) Vijay Mallya

38. Which among the following is the most common element on earth ?

(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen

39. Which of the following nations gave women, the right to vote, first ?

(a) West Indies (b) United States of America

(c) India (d) New Zeland

40. What is the meaning of Veni, Vidi, Vici ?

(a) I come, I fought, I won (b) I came, I saw, I conquered

(c) I saw, I planned, I achieved (d) I saw, I fought, I won

41. The disease Swine Flu, is caused by which subtype of Influenza A virus ?

(a) H5N1 (b) H5N5 (c) H1M1 (d) H1N1

42. What are the Primary Colours ?

(a) Red, Blue amd Yellow (b) Red, Blue, Green

(c) Blue, Yellow, Brown (d) Blue, Brown, Black

43. The Narmada Valley Project is spread across three states. Which of the following is not a

(a) Maharashtra (b) Jharkhand (c) Gujarat (d) Madhya Pradesh

44. The PGA championship is associated with

(a) Bridge (b) Polo (c) Horse racing (d) Golf


45. Jeep, an automobile brand, is registered and owned by

(a) General Motors (b) Ford Motors

(c) Damiler Chrysler (d) Mahindra & Mahindra

46. What should be the minimum level of public share holding in listed companies under the

new SEBI guidelines issued in April 2006 ?

(a) 20% of total equity capital (b) 15% of total equity capital

(c) 25% of total equity capital (d) 30% of total equity capital

47. Which company is associated with the campaign, Tase Bhi, Health Bhi ?

(a) Glaxo Smith Kline (b) Dabur (c) Nestle (d)

48. The book, To Kill a Mocking Bird, is written by

(a) Harper Lee (b) Joseph Heller (c) Ken Casey (d) Ayn Rand

49. Spoil yourself, is the punch line of

(a) Tata Indigo (b) Tata Indica (c) Toyota Corolla (d) Toyota Camry

50. Lawrence J Ellison, one of the world's highest paid CEOs is heading __________

(a) IBM (b) Toshiba (c) Oracle (d) Wipro

Test of Reasoning and General Intelligence


Direction (Question No. 51 to 53) : Answer these question based on the information given

A visits Vizag where his brother P resides. P stays with his father Q and mother S. P's

grandfather, R also stays with him. P has two children B and C. B's husband is X. C is married to

Y, who is a wrestler. C's son T welcomed A on his visit.

(a) Niece (b) Nephew (c) Cousin (d) son

(a) Mother (b) Grandmother (c) Aunt (d) Cannot be determined

(a) Mother-in-law (b) Mother (c) Father-in-law (d) Cannot be determined

Direction (Question No. 54 to 56) : Answer these questions based on data given below :

“In a class of 70 students, 30 failed in mathematics and 35 failed in Statistics. Ten students


54. How many failed in both the subjects ?

55. How many students passed only in Mathematics ?

56. How many students passed in exactly one of the two subjects ?

Direction (Question No. 57 to 59) : Answer the questions based on the following data.

Puja, Kajol, Raj, Sanju, Teena and Uday sit round a hexagonal table in such a way that neither

Puja nor Raj sits opposite to Kajol and neither Teena nor Uday sits opposite to Sanju, wehereas

Raj sits to the immediate left of Sanju.

57. If Teena sits opposite to Raj, then which of the following must be true ?

(a) Puja is opposite to Sanju (b) Kajal and Uday sit opposite to each other

(c) Puja nd Uday sit opposite to each other (d) None of these


58. If Teena sits opposite to Kajol, then which of the following is definetely false ?

(a) Uday and Puja sit next to each other (b) Uday sits opposite to Raj

(c) Puja sits opposite to Sanju (d) Puja and Uday have only one person between them

59. If Puja sits to the immediate left of Raj, then

(a) Kajol sits opposite to Raj (b) Puja sits opposite to Sanju

(c) Kajol sits opposite to Sanju (d) Teena is opposite to Raj

Direction (Question No. 60 to 62) : Select the alternative that logically follows the two given

60. All Books are pages. All pages are boxes.

(a) All boxes are books (b) All books are boxes

(c) No books are boxes (d) Both (a) and (b)

61. No monkeys are apes. Some apes are chimpanzees


(a) Some chimpanzees are not monkeys (b) Some monkeys are not chimpanzees

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

62. No men are good. Some good people are saints.

(a) Some saints are not men (b) Some men are not saints

(c) All men are saints (d) None of the above

Direction (Question No. 63 to 65) : Find the odd one out.

63. (a) Income tax (b) Sales tax (c) Commercial tax (d) Professional tax

64. (a) Vishakapatnam (b) Bhilai (c) Rourkela (d) Vijayawada

66. A clock is so placed that at 2:00 p.m. the minute hand points towards north-west. In which direction

does the hour hand point at 6:00 p.m. ?

(a) North-West (b) West (c) North-East (d) South-East


67. One evening, two friends Vikas and Viju were talking to each other with their books towards each

other. If Vikas' shadow was exactly to the right of him, which direction was Viju facing ?

(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West

68. If 1 cm on map corresponds to an actual distance of 40 kms. And the distance on the map between

Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5 cms., the actual distance between them is :

(a) 375 Kms (b) 3750 Kms (c) 1500 Kms (d) 1375 Kms

69. Which if the following is the greatest ?

(a) 40% of 30 (b) 3/5 of 25 (c) 6.5% of 200 (d) (1/2)-4

70. After walking 10 Km, Rajesh turned right and walked 5 Km, then turned left and walked 1 Km. Now

he is moving towards south, From which direction did Rajesh start his journey ?

(a) North (b) South-west (c) East (d) West

71. Two indentical taps fill 2/5 of a tank in 20 minutes. When one of the taps goes dry in how many

minutes will the remaining one tap fill the rest of the tank ?

(a) 15 Minutes (b) 5 Minutes (c) 10 Minutes (d) 20 Minutes


72. If “SQUARE” = 87 and “RECTANGLE” = 94, then what is the value of “RHOMBUS” ?

(a) 96 (b) 94 (c) 89 (d) None of these

73. On what day of the week did India celebrate its first Republic Day i.e. 26th January, 1950 ?

(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday (d) None of these

74. Padma walks 10 Kms from north to south and turns left again walks 5 Kms. Then she turns left and

walks 8 Kms. In which direction is she positined now with reference to the starting point ?

(a) East (b) South-East (c) North (d) North-East

75. Find the next number in the series :

(a) 2868 (b) 2968 (c) 3072 (d) 3176


Test of Quantitative Analysis (Mathematical Skills)

76. If Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 2200 in two years under simple interest, what is the rate of interest per

77. Rahul borrowed Rs. 1,00,000 @ 8% p.a. compound interest, interest being compounded annually.

ow much should he repay at the end of the first year, so that by repaying Rs. 54,000 at the end of

the second year he can clear the loan ?

(a) Rs. 46,000 (b) Rs. 54,000 (c) Rs. 58,000 (d) Rs. 50,000

78. 6 litres of pure milk are added 10 litres of a mixture water and milk, with 40% milk. What is the

percentage of milk in the new solution ?

(a) 50% (b) 62.5% (c) 75% (d) 87.5%

79. The price of the product is decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. What is the change in

(a) Increased by 1% (b) Decreased by 1%

(c) No change in the price (d) None of these


80. The worth of a car depreciates by 4% every year. If the present worth of a car is Rs. 6.00.000, what

is its worth after four years (to the nearest thousands) ?

(a) Rs. 5,04,000 (b) Rs. 5,12,000 (c) Rs. 5,10,000 (d) Rs. 5,16,000

81. What is the area of the smallest square that can be formed with rectangles of dimensions 3 x 2 ?

82. Number “85” is divided into two parts, such that thrice the first part and twice the second part are in

the ratio of 18:5. Find the first part ?

83. A party is attended by a total of 60 persons. If the ratio of men and women is 3:2, how many more

must join the party such that the ratio becomes 7 : 3?

84. A group of five people can do a certain work in a certain number of days. If more people join the

group, they take 12 days less to do the same work. In how many days a group of three people

(a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 15 days (d) 50 days

85. A man leaves P and reaches Q in three hours at an average speed of 60 Kmph. What is the


(a) 180 Km (b) 150 Km (c) 300 Km (d) 250 Km

86. The sum of the first and the 9th of an arithmetic progression is 24. What is the sum of the first nine

(a) 216 (b) 108 (c) 54 (d) None of these

87. The sum of 20 terms of the series 12 + 22, 32 + 42, 52 + 62 is

(a) 210 (b) 519 (c) 190 (d) None of these

88. If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p-q = ?

89. In how many ways can 5 letters be posted in 3 post boxes, if any number of letters can be posted in

90. John starts work at 8:45 am and finishes at 5:15 pm. He has 90 minutes of breaks. How many hours


91. The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is 5 : 7 respectively. Four years hence the ratio

will become 3 : 4 respectively. What is the present age of Renu in years ?

92. A man brought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs. 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18 What

(a) 50% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 25%

93. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are supposed to do 7/11th of the work.

(a) Rs. 270 (b) Rs. 200 (c) Rs. 310 (d) Rs. 175

94. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm respectively what will be the area of the rhombus

(a) 35 sq.cm (b) 40 sq.cm (c) 30 sq.cm (d) 20 sq.cm

95. Brijesh was born on 17th August 1983 and the day was Friday. If Aryan was born on 27th March


(a) Thursday (b) Monday (c) Friday (d) Saturday

96. A person standing in a queue is 17th from the first and 13th from the last. How many peoples are

97. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours abd 20 hours respectively. Both together can fill it in :

(a) 12.5 hours (b) 17.5 hours (c) 8.57 hours (d) 15.57 hours

98. In a group of 15, 7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied either. How

many of these studied both Latin and Greek ?

99. Three is a safe with a 5 digit number as the key. The 4th digit is 4 greater than second digit, while

3rd digit is 3 less than 2nd digit. The 1st digit is thrice the last digit. There are 3 pairs whose sum

100. If 4563 = 5437 and 6647 = 3353, then 546 is

(a) 453 (b) 454 (c) 8445 (d) 9454

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Answered By StudyChaCha Member