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Old April 2nd, 2014, 01:29 PM
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I am looking for the previous year question papers of the MAT Examination?

MAT or the Management Aptitude Test is conducted, on all India basis in the months of May, September and December, by All India Management Aptitude Testing Service (AIMATS), New Delhi.

Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following correctly constitutes the three organs of the government?
(a) Executive, democracy and judiciary (b) Executive, legislature and judiciary
(c) Executive, bureaucracy and judiciary (d) Legislature, bureaucracy and democracy
2. Which of the following sources yields the maximum revenue to the Union Government?
(a) Income tax (b) Property tax (c) Excise duty (d) Customs duty
3. April 22 is observed every year as ___.
(a) Earth Day (b) World Environment Day
(c) World Health Day (d) World Haemophilia Day
4. Who is leading the LTTE delegation for the peace process with Sri Lanka?
(a) Vaiko (b) V. Prabhakaran (c) G. L. Peris (d) Anton Balasingham
5. Who was the first UN Secretary General?
(a) Trygve Lie (b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) U. Thant (d) Dr Boutros Boutros Ghali
6. The island of Perejil was recently in dispute between ___.
(a) Italy and Morocco (b) Spain and Morocco
(c) Ghana and Morocco (d) Spain and Ghana
7. NASDAQ is an acronym for
(a) The National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations.
(b) The National Association of Securities and Dealers Automatic Quotations.
(c) The National Association of Associated Securities and Dealers Quotations.
(d) The National Association of Securities Dealers and Accepted Quotations.
8. Which among the following countries does not have veto power in the UN Security Council?
(a) France (b) England (c) Germany (d) Russia
9. India is not the member of which of the following organizations?
(a) NAM (b) SAARC (c) ASEAN (d) Commonwealth
10. Where is the headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) situated?
(a) Vienna (b) New York (c) Abu Dhabi (d) Kuwait City
11. Deodhar Trophy, Rohinton Baria Trophy and Sheesh Mahal Trophy are associated with ___.
(a) football (b) cricket (c) hockey (d) badminton
12. Who is the winner of the Vyas Samman for the year 2002?
(a) Govinda Chandra Pandey (b) Ram Moorti Tripathi
(c) Dr Kailash Vajpayee (d) Kamleshwar
13. Which of the following represents the name of the mascot of the World Cup Cricket that took place in March
2003?
(a) Dazzler (b) Panda (c) Rhinto (d) Pincho
14. Uber Cup is associated with which of the following games.
(a) Hockey (b) Football (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton
15. With which of the following Articles of the Constitution would you associate the establishment of panchayats?
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 52 (d) Article 61

16. Approximately what percentage of the total GDP is contributed by the agriculture sector of India?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 30
17. Which of the following is a pharmaceutical company?
(a) TAG Heuer (b) Aventis (c) Cartier (d) Omega
18. ‘Kananaskis’ was the venue of the G-8 Summit that took place in 2002. This place is located in which of the
following countries?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) Canada (d) Australia
19. Which of the following represents the expansion of ‘T’ in C-DOT?
(a) Teleservices (b) Telecome
(c) Telecommunications (d) Telematics
20. Which among the following represents the number of member countries of the Commonwealth?
(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 54 (d) 62
21. ‘El Nino’ is a term you would associate with ___.
(a) astrology (b) meteorology (c) computers (d) psychology
22. Who among the following is the chief executive officer (CEO) of world’s largest software company Microsoft?
(a) Paul Allen (b) Bill Gates (c) John Sidgmore (d) Steve Balmer
23. Which of the following personalities would you associate with committee on taxes?
(a) Y. V. Reddy (b) Vijay Kelkar (c) N. K. Singh (d) M. S. Ahluwalia
24. Who is regarded as ‘The Father of Economics’?
(a) J. M. Keynes (b) J. K. Galbraith (c) Vernon Smith (d) Adam Smith
25. Who was appointed as the chairman of the 12th Finance Commission, recently?
(a) Dr Rakesh Mohan (b) Prof S. D. Tendulkar
(c) Dr C. Rangarajan (d) V. Kamesam
26. According to a recent report, the most competitive economy of the world is ___.
(a) Finland (b) USA (c) Singapore (d) Hong Kong
27. The disinvestment target of Government of India for 2002-03 is ___.
(a) Rs. 8,000 crore (b) Rs. 10,000 crore (c) Rs. 12,000 crore (d) Rs. 14,000 crore
28. The first person to walk in space is ___.
(a) Neil Armstrong (b) A. A. Leonov (c) Yuri Gagarin (d) Edwin Aldrin
29. By sex ratio we mean
(a) the number of females per 1,000 males.
(b) the number of males in the population per 1,000 female population.
(c) the number of married females in the population per 1,000 male population.
(d) the number of married males in the population per 1,000 female population.

30. Match the columns:
State Capital
(A) Uttaranchal 1. Ranchi
(B) Chhattisgarh 2. Dispur
(C) Jharkhand 3. Dehradun
(D) Assam 4. Raipur
(a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1 (d) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
31. Who among the following cannot be impeached?
(a) The President (b) The Vice President (c) The Chief Justice (d) The Governor
32. The number of members nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha is ___.
(a) two (b) eight (c) ten (d) twelve
33. Who among the following do not participate in the election for the President?
(a) The elected members of the Lok Sabha
(b) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states
(d) The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and state legislatures
34. Which of the following representative bodies cannot be dissolved?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly (d) State Legislative Council
35. Which of the following is the true index of economic growth?
(a) An increase in the per capita income at constant prices.
(b) An increase in the national income at current prices.
(c) An increase in the gross domestic product at constant prices.
(d) An increase in the gross domestic product at current prices.
36. World Human Rights Day is observed every year on ___.
(a) December 1 (b) December 8 (c) December 10 (d) December 16
37. What effect does an indirect tax have on a commodity?
(a) Increases its price (b) Reduces its price
(c) Increases its production (d) Keeps the price constant
38. The largest read daily in India is ___.
(a) The Times of India (b) The Hindustan Times
(c) Amar Ujala (d) Dainik Bhaskar
39. Which constitutional amendment is called the ‘Mini Constitution’?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 43rd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 45th Amendment
40. Which organization celebrated 150 years of its establishment in 2002?
(a) Post and Telegraph (b) Indian Railways
(c) Airport Authority of India (d) VSNL

Section – 2
Direction for questions 41 to 45: Read the passage, and answer the questions following
Not only mathematics is dependent on us and our thoughts, but in another sense, we and the whole universe of
existing things are dependent on mathematics. The apprehension of this purely ideal character is indispensable if we
are to understand rightly the place of mathematics as one among the arts. It was formerly supposed that pure reason
could decide in some respects as to the nature of the actual world: geometry, at least, was thought to deal with the
space in which we live. But we now know that pure mathematics can never pronounce upon the questions of actual
existence: the world of reason, in a sense, controls the world of facts, but it is not at any point creative of fact, and in
the application of its results to the world in time and space, its certainty and precision are lost among approximations
and working hypotheses. The objects considered by mathematicians have, in the past, been mainly of a kind suggested
by phenomena; but from such restrictions, the abstract imagination should be wholly free. A reciprocal liberty must
be accorded; reason cannot dictate to the world of facts, but the fact cannot restrict reason’s privilege of dealing with
whatever objects its love of beauty may cause to seem worthy of consideration. Here, as elsewhere, we build up our
ideals out of the fragments to be found in the world; and in the end, it is hard to say whether the result is a creation
or a discovery.
41. With which of the following would the author agree?
I. Mankind relies on mathematics for its very existence.
II. Geometry was believed to deal with space in which we live.
III. The world of reason has no control over the world of fact.
(a) Only I (b) I and III (c) Only III (d) I and II
42. What does ‘indispensable’ mean?
(a) Cannot be cured (b) Cannot be curtailed (c) Cannot be evaded (d) Cannot bear it
43. When the results of pure mathematics are applied to the universe of existing things,
(a) its findings no longer have complete certainty and preciseness.
(b) mathematics ceases to be a science.
(c) the abstract imagination of the mathematicians is free of restrictions.
(d) the nature of the actual world stands revealed.
44. According to Russell, ‘a reciprocal liberty’ must be obtained between
(a) mathematics and applied science.
(b) reason and facts.
(c) mathematical objects and objects created by abstract imagination.
(d) the study of pure mathematics and an application of its results.
45. The end-product of mathematics
(a) is a statement of what was previously unknown.
(b) is a creation of what did not exist earlier.
(c) is a discovery of previously unknown object.
(d) could possibly be either a creation or a discovery.
Direction for questions 46 to 50: Read the passage, and answer the questions following it.
One of the greatest public speaking failures of my career took place last summer at Valparaiso University, Indiana
where I addressed a convention of editors of college newspapers. I said many screamingly funny things but the
applause was dismal at the end. During the evening, I asked one of my hosts in what way I had offended the audience.
He replied that they had hoped I would moralize. They had hired me as a moralist.
So now when I speak to students, I do moralize. I tell them not to take more than they need, not to be greedy. I tell them
not to kill, even in self-defence. I tell them not to pollute water or the atmosphere.
I tell them not to raid the public treasury. I tell them not to commit war crimes or to help others to commit war crimes.
These morals go over very well. They are of course echoes of what the young say to themselves.

I had a friend from Schenectady visited me recently, and he asked me this, “Why are fewer and fewer young Americans
going into science each year?” I hold him that the young were impressed by the war crimes trials at Nuremberg. They
were afraid that careers in science could all too easily lead to the commission of war crimes. They don’t want to work
on the development of new weapons. They don’t want to make discoveries which will lead to improved weapons.
They don’t want to work for corporations that pollute water or atmosphere or raid the public treasury. So they go into
other fields. They become physicists who are so virtuous that they don’t go into physics at all.
At the University of Michigan, at Ann Arbor, the students have been raising hell about the university doing secret
government work. I go to talk with some of the students about the protests that had been made against the recruiters
of Dow Chemicals, manufacturers of napalm among other things.
I offered the opinion that an attack on a Dow recruiter was about as significant as an attack on the doorman or theatre
usher. I didn’t think the recruiter stood for anything.
I called attention to the fact that during the Dow protest at Harvard a couple of years back, the actual inventor of
napalm was able to circulate through the crowd of protestors unmolested. I didn’t find the fact that he was unmolested
reprehensible. I saw it as a moral curiosity. Though I did not mean to suggest to the students at Ann Arbor that the
inventor of napalm should have been given one hell of a time.
46. In this address at Valparaiso University, the author
(a) became the greatest public speaker of the summer.
(b) made the audience laugh a lot by screaming in a funny way.
(c) was dismayed by the audience at the end.
(d) felt that he did make a significant impression on the audience.
47. Moralists are
(a) young people who speak to themselves about water and atmospheric pollution.
(b) not fond of jokes made of sacrosanct things.
(c) opposed to taking up science as a career.
(d) concerned about hiring working to raid the public treasury.
48. The author’s perception is that young people
(a) like to hear lectures on morals.
(b) were so impressed by the Nuremberg trials that they gave up physics.
(c) would have been scientists but for the pollution created by science.
(d) do not like to kill even in self-defence.
49. The author regarded the inventor of napalm as
(a) morally reprehensible.
(b) someone who should have been attacked but was not.
(c) a person who was attacked by Harvard students.
(d) a moral curiosity.
50. It is implied from the author’s comments that the present-day students
(a) do not care much for scientific discoveries.
(b) prefer to be told what is right or wrong.
(c) lack a sense of discipline.
(d) lack a sense of humour.
Direction for questions 51 to 53: In the following questions, select the answer choice that provides the best meaning
of the word given.
51. ELICIT
(a) to act illegally (b) to deceive (c) to draw forth (d) to entreat

52. CULMINATE
(a) to slander (b) to reach a final effect (c) to overwhelm (d) to heap together
53. APPERTAIN
(a) to comprehend (b) to procure (c) to belong (d) to find out
Direction for questions 54 to 58: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate choices.
54. For almost seven years, Mrs Jacob ___ unable to move her head.
(a) was (b) looks (c) had been (d) is
55. Biofeedback training is based on the ___ that we can gain control on our bodily functions.
(a) understanding (b) aspect (c) feeling (d) premise
56. The sharp cracking of a twig mixed with a bird’s ___ made a great impact on him.
(a) cry (b) shriek (c) squawk (d) scream
57. It is possible to listen to ___ as well as to sound, just as it is possible to see both light and shadow.
(a) music (b) silence (c) instrument (d) voice
58. He prefers swimming ___ any other sport.
(a) than (b) over (c) to (d) against

Direction for questions 59 to 63: From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one
in the question.
59. wealth : poverty
(a) part : whole (b) good : excellent (c) prodigal : chary (d) wicked : sinful
60. misfortune : catastrophe
(a) miniature : big (b) limited : infinite (c) knowledge : learning (d) generosity : parsimony
61. molecule : atoms
(a) family : sisters (b) light : bulb (c) tissue : cells (d) body : limb
62. limp : walk
(a) flap : fly (b) run : race (c) stutter : talk (d) chew : digest
63. riddle : solve
(a) mirage : illusion (b) joke : amuse (c) tangle : unravel (d) target : aim
Direction for questions 64 to 68: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph, Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among
the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
64. A. It is turning off the tap.
B. And with no consensus of the exit policy, the government is damned if it supports loss-making units and
damned if it doesn’t.
C. The private sector did the same in the past because securing legal sanction for closure was virtually
impossible.
D. After years of funding the losses of public sector companies, the government is doing the unthinkable.
(a) DACB (b) CADB (c) DCAB (d) BDAC

65. A. Trade protocols were signed, the dollar as the medium of exchange was ignored, trade was denominated
in rupees and the exchange rate between the two countries was to be fixed outside the ambit of free
markets.
B. A young India, some years after independence fashioning her foreign policy of non-alignment, found it
prudent to stay close to the former Soviet Union.
C. Once upon a time there was a superpower named Soviet Union that attracted apprehension of the global
aspirations of the other superpower, the US.
D. One way of doing this was to evolve a bilateral relations in trade that could be called upon to provide a
buffer against the arm-twisting by the US.
(a) CBAD (b) BADC (c) BCAD (d) CBDA
66. A. I had heard that sort of thing before.
B. He said that his generation was the first to believe that it had no future.
C. A young American made earthling stopped by my house the other day to talk about some book of mine
he had read.
D. He was the son of a Boston man who had died an alcoholic vagrant.
(a) CDBA (b) ABCD (c) CBAD (d) ABDC
67. A. In 1995, that ratio has gone up to 60 per cent, an average annual growth of 8-10 per cent.
B. Fifty years ago, India’s roads carried 11 per cent of the goods traffic that moved.
C. Indian roads have emerged as a very important mode of transport.
D. That sounds good, but at the same time, the number of vehicles registered has gone up by 121 times in the
same period.
(a) ABCD (b) CDAB (c) CBAD (d) CABD
68. A. Siasat competes with Rehnuma and Munsif, both of are aggressive players.
B. As many as 25 per cent of the 0.3 million NRIs in the Gulf are estimated to be from Andhra Pradesh and
mostly Hyderabad.
C. The Urdu daily scenario of Hyderabad is very competitive.
D. For Siasat, an interesting outgrowth is its international presence.
(a) ABCD (b) CBDA (c) CADB (d) BCDA
Direction for questions 69 to 73: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath
each sentence four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among
the four options.
69. He considers me as a fool.
(a) I as a fool (b) me for a fool (c) I for a fool (d) me a fool
70. The accountant has all ready given the balance sheet.
(a) already given (b) already give (c) already make (d) allready given
71. Jack may be a better player to me.
(a) a better player than me (b) a better player than I
(c) the better player to me (d) the better player than I
72. He not only was competent but also intelligent.
(a) Not only he was competent (b) He was not only competent
(c) Not only was he competent (d) He was competent not only
73. There have been heavy rainfall yesterday.
(a) have been strong rainfall (b) has been strong rainfall
(c) has been heavy rainfall (d) was been heavy rainfall

Direction for questions 74 to 77: Choose the alternative that gives the closest meaning for the underlined expression.
74. Our plans were all set, and then she came along to upset the apple cart.
(a) to make apple pie (b) to bring a basket of apples
(c) to spoil our plans (d) to be clumsy
75. I still insist that Ryan is not as black as he is painted.
(a) not so tamed (b) not a good artist
(c) not pessimistic (d) not as bad as he is said to be
76. He chewed over the bizarre incident and decided to inform his uncle.
(a) slept over (b) overate (c) dreamed over (d) consider at length
77. His friends advised him to be fair and square in his dealings.
(a) careful (b) considerate (c) polite (d) upright

Direction for questions 78 to 80: Mark the alternative that has the opposite meaning of the word given in the
question.
78. audit
(a) check (b) bother (c) study (d) overlook
79. authenticate
(a) real (b) genuine (c) confirm (d) tenacious
80. avid
(a) eager (b) passive (c) interested (d) energetic







Here I am attaching the sample question papers of the MAT Exam:
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf MAT Exam Paper-.pdf (74.8 KB, 53 views)
File Type: pdf MAT Exam Paper=.pdf (118.8 KB, 44 views)

Last edited by Aakashd; June 7th, 2019 at 01:18 PM.
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  #2  
Old December 12th, 2014, 04:40 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Dec 2012
Default Re: MAT Exam previous Year Question Papers

As you want to get MAT exam question paper so here I am giving you some questions of that paper:

1. Which of the following best describes
‘procrastination’?
(1) linger on (2) stop
(3) delay (4) wait
2. Why is procrastination said to be a stumbling
block?
(1) It prevents fulfillment of goals.
(2) It hinders effectiveness and efficiency.
(3) It stops one from working.
(4) It makes one lazy.
Directions : Choose a word or phrase nearly
similar in meaning to the given word.
3. Self-esteem
(1) Self-respect (2) Dignity
(3) Decorum (4) Self-awareness
4. Sobriety
(1) Abstinence (2) Sober
(3) Moderate (4) Dry
Directions : A word in capital letters is followed
by four words. Choose the word that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
5. OBLOQUY
(1) praise (2) crue
(3) slander (4) dialogue
Directions : The sentence has four underlined
parts marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one
underlined part that must be changed for the
sentence to be correct.
6. The book is well-printed and attractively bound
A B
making altogether on attractive volume.
C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Directions : In the following question a related
pair of words is followed by four pairs of words.
Select the pair that best expresses a relationship
similar to that expressed in the original pair.
7. APHORISM : SENTENTIOUS : :
(1) criticism : redundant
(2) eulogy : laudatory
(3) adage : symbolic
(4) maxim : allegorical

MAT Question Paper

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
A few sample questions are given below for the
guidance of the candidates in the preparation. These
samples do not necessarily indicate either the types
or the difficulty levels of questions that can be in the
actual test. In general the preparation standard
expected is that of a graduate from an Indian
University having completed 10 + 2 + 3 pattern of
education. However, the knowledge level required
for attempting the section on Mathematical Skills is
that of 10th standard under Central Board of
Secondary Education.

SECTION I
LANGUAGE COMPREHENSION
Directions : Read the passage carefully to
answer the questions that follow.
Procrastination is a costly and draining problem for
all of us. The easiest way to deal with procrastination
is to never let it get started in the first place.
Procrastination plagues us all. More plans go astray,
more dreams go unfilled, and more time is wasted.
It is a major stumbling block for almost everyone
seeking to improve his use of time. For many, this
becomes an insidious habit that can ruin their
careers, destroy their happiness, and even shorten
their lives.
Procrastination is respectful of no one. All of us
suffer from it at one time or another. Procrastination
is doing low priority actions or tasks rather than
higher priority ones. It is straightening your desk
when you should be working on the report; watching
TV when you should be exercising; calling on the
friendly customer who buys very little when you
should be preparing a sales presentation for that
tough prospect who could buy much more; avoiding
a co-worker rather than telling him the bad news;
staying away from office to avoid disciplining a
subordinate; and postponing activities with your
children, because there always seems to be
something “more urgent”, until suddenly they’re
grown and you realize it’s too late to do any of the
things you’ve always talked about doing together.
1. Which of the following best describes
‘procrastination’?
(1) linger on (2) stop
(3) delay (4) wait
xxi

2. Why is procrastination said to be a stumbling
block?
(1) It prevents fulfillment of goals.
(2) It hinders effectiveness and efficiency.
(3) It stops one from working.
(4) It makes one lazy.

Directions : Choose a word or phrase nearly
similar in meaning to the given word.
3. Self-esteem
(1) Self-respect (2) Dignity
(3) Decorum (4) Self-awareness
4. Sobriety
(1) Abstinence (2) Sober
(3) Moderate (4) Dry

Directions : A word in capital letters is followed
by four words. Choose the word that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
5. OBLOQUY
(1) praise (2) crue
(3) slander (4) dialogue

Directions : The sentence has four underlined
parts marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one
underlined part that must be changed for the
sentence to be correct.
6. The book is well-printed and attractively bound
A B
making altogether on attractive volume.
C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

Directions : In the following question a related
pair of words is followed by four pairs of words.
Select the pair that best expresses a relationship
similar to that expressed in the original pair.
7. APHORISM : SENTENTIOUS : :
(1) criticism : redundant
(2) eulogy : laudatory
(3) adage : symbolic
(4) maxim : allegorical

SECTION II
MATHEMATICAL SKILLS
8. A screwdriver and a hammer currently have
the same price. If the price of a screwdriver
rises by 5% and the price of a hammer goes
up by 3%, how much more will it cost to buy 3
screwdrivers and 3 hammers?
(1) 3% (2) 4%
(3) 5% (4) 8%
9. If n and p are both odd numbers, which of the
following numbers must be an even number?
(1) n+p (2) np
(3) np+2 (4) n+p+1
10. There are 30 socks in a drawer. 60% of the
socks are red and the rest are blue. What is
the minimum number of socks that must be
taken from the drawer without looking in order
to be certain that at least two blue socks have
been chosen?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 14 (4) 20
11. The ratio of chickens to pigs to horses on a
farm can be expressed as the triple ratio 20 :
4 : 6. If there are 120 chickens on the farm,
then the number of horses on the farm is
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 24 (4) 36
xxii

12. If x2 – y2 = 15 and x + y = 3, then x – y is
(1) -3 (2) 0
(3) 3 (4) 5
13. The hexagon ABCDEF is regular. That means
all its sides are the same length and all its
interior angles are the same size. Each side of
the hexagon is 2 m. What is the area of the
rectangle BCEF?
A
F
B
C
D E
(1) 4 m2 (2) 4√3– m2
(3) 8 m2 (4) 4+4√3– m2
14. A worker is digging a ditch. He gets 2 assistants
who work 2/3 as fast as he does. If all 3 work
on a ditch they should finish it in what fraction
of the time that the worker takes working alone?
(1) 3/7 (2) 1/2
(3) 3/4 (4) 4/3

SECTION III
DATA ANALYSIS & SUFFICIENCY
Directions: The table below gives the Human
Development Index (HDI). The HDI value is
between 0 and 1.
States Value Value Value
1981 1991 2001
Andhra Pradesh 0.298 0.377 0.416
Assam 0.272 0.348 0.386
Bihar 0.237 0.308 0.367
Gujarat 0.360 0.431 0.479
Haryana 0.360 0.443 0.509
Karnataka 0.346 0.412 0.478
Kerala 0.500 0.591 0.638
Madhya Pradesh 0.245 0.328 0.394
Maharashtra 0.363 0.452 0.523
Orissa 0.267 0.345 0.404
Punjab 0.411 0.475 0.537
Rajasthan 0.256 0.347 0.424
Tamil Nadu 0.343 0.466 0.531
Uttar Pradesh 0.255 0.314 0.388
West Bengal 0.305 0.404 0.472
All India 0.302 0.381 0.472
15. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Kerala has consistently reported the highest
HDI.
(2) Bihar has consistently reported the worst
HDI.
(3) Assam has maintained stability in its
comparative ranking among states.
(4) Rajasthan has shown an improvement in
its comparative ranking among other states.
16. Which states improved the HDI value in 2001
to match the all India value?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Orissa
(3) Rajasthan (4) West Bengal

Directions: The following problem has a
question followed by two statements labeled A
and B. Use the data given in the statements to
decide whether the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Choose your answer as
(1) if statement ‘A’ alone is sufficient to answer the
problem.
(2) if statement ‘B’ alone is sufficient to answer the
problem.
(3) if statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are together needed to
answer the problem.
(4) if statements ‘A and ‘B’ are not sufficient to
answer the problem.
xxiii

17. C is a circle with centre D and radius 2. E is a
circle with centre F and radius R. Are there any
points which are on both E and C?
A : The distance from D to F is 1 + R
B : R = 3

Directions: The bar graph below pertains to
estimates of incidence of poverty in India. It is
given as percentage. The accompanying table
gives population of India during 1971-2001 as
per census.
18. The total number of poor in 2000 is approximately
(1) 268 millions. (2) 278 millions.
(3) 242 millions (4) 300 millions.
19. From the given data it can be inferred that
(1) rural poverty ratio is constantly declining.
(2) urban poverty ratio has been consistently
falling.
(3) combined ratio has been decreasing.
(4) All the above.

SECTION IV
INTELLIGENCE & CRITICAL
REASONING
Directions: The question below is followed by
two arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the given arguments is a
“strong’ argument. Give your answer as
(1) if only argument I is strong.
(2) if the argument II is strong.
(3) if both I and II are strong.
(4) if neither I nor II is strong.
20. Should telecasting feature films be stopped?
Arguments :
I Yes, the feature films misguide young
children.
II No, this is the only way to educate the
masses.

Directions: Find out the correct group of letters
from the answer options (1) to (4) to represent
the same relationship among the group of letters
as established among the sets at the top.
21. AEZ : EIY : IOX : ………………
(1) UYZ (2) AEX
(3) EIX (4) OUW
22. Isha is older than Sunder. Misa is older than
Harbans. Harbans is younger than Gyan.
Sunder and Gyan are of the same age. If the
above facts are true, which of the following
conditions must also be true?
(1) Misa is older than Gyan.
(2) Misa is older than Isha.
(3) Sunder is younger than Misa.
(4) Isha is older than Harbans.
xxiv

Directions: There are two statements followed
by two possible inferences A and B. Assume
the statements to be correct even if they vary
with facts. Choose your answer as
(1) if only inference A follows.
(2) if only inference B follows.
(3) if both inferences A and B follow.
(4) if neither inference A nor B follows.
23. Every minister is a student. Every student is
inexperienced.
A : Every minister is inexperienced.
B : Some inexperienced are students.
24. Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are
standing in a queue in that order. Each one is
wearing a cap of different colour like violet,
indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D
is able to see in front of him green and blue,
but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but
not red. G can see caps of all colours other
than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured
cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
(1) blue. (2) violet.
(3) red. (4) orange.

SECTION V
INDIAN & GLOBAL ENVIRONMENT
25. What does the acronym CTBT stand for?
(1) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(2) Commercial Tax Based Tariff
(3) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(4) None of these
26. Which newspaper has the motto – Journalism
of Courage?
(1) The Hindustan Times
(2) The Washington Post
(3) The Indian Express
(4) The Guardian
27. The Indian Railways is one of the largest
railway systems with an extensive network of
over 63,000 route kilometers. Approximately
……………..of the network is electrified.
(1) 50% (2) 25%
(3) 45 % (4) 60%
28. The National Literacy Mission (NLM) seeks to
achieve full literacy i.e. a sustainable threshold
level of 75% literacy by year
(1) 2005 (2) 2010
(3) 2015 (4) None of the above

Answers to Sample Questions
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1)
5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (2)
9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (4)
13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (4)
17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (3)
25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (1)
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