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March 29th, 2014, 04:53 PM
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Will you please share the previous year Question paper of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP)??? Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP) is organized by Symbiosis International University (SIU) for the admission in the institutes under the university. Here I am sharing the Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP) Question paper Each child in a family has at least 4 brothers and 3 sisters. What is the smallest number of children the family might have? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 40. In the following question two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume the two statements are true even if they are at variance with commonly known facts. Then pick the correct answer from the choices given below. A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Both conclusions I & II follow D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows Statements: Some doctors are fools. Joshi is a doctor. Conclusions: I. Joshi is a fool. II. Some fools are doctors. a. A b. B c. C d. D Debu walks towards the east then towards North and turning 45° right walks for a while and lastly turns towards left. In which direction is he walking now? a. North b. East c. South-East d. North-East           Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost Last edited by Aakashd; June 1st, 2019 at 09:49 AM.  |
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April 23rd, 2014, 12:40 PM
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| Symbiosis National Aptitude Test previous year question papers
I want to give the exam of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test and to prepare myself for the exam I want to get the previous year question papers so can you provide me that?
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April 24th, 2014, 10:36 AM
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| Re: Symbiosis National Aptitude Test previous year question papers
As you want to get the previous year question papers of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test so here is the information of the same for you: Previous year question papers of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test SECTION-I Quantitative and Data Interpretation and Sufficiency For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each 1. In a Retail outlet the average revenue was Rs. 10,000 per day over a 30 day period. During this period the average daily revenue on weekends (total 8 days) was Rs. 20,000 per day. What was the average daily revenue on weekdays? (1) 6364 (2) 5250 (3) 6570 (4) 8060 2. Two different prime numbers X and Y, both are greater than 2, then which of the following must be true? (1) X – Y= 23 (2) X + Y ≠ 87 (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of the above 3. It takes 6 hours for pump A, used alone, to fill a tank of water. Pump B used alone takes 8 hours to fill the same tank. A, B and another pump C all together fill the tank in 2 hours. How long would pump C take, used alone, to fill the tank? (1) 4.8 (2) 6 (3) 5.6 (4) 3 4. A swimming pool can be filled by pipe A in 3 hours and by pipe B in 6 hours, each pump working on its own. At 9 am, pump A is started. At what time will the swimming pool be filled if pump B is started at 10 am? (1) 11:20 a.m. (2) 11:05 a.m. (3) 11:10 a.m. (4) 10:50 a.m. 5. The sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60, but less than 70 is: (1) 128 (2) 191 (3) 197 (4) 260 6. Find out the appropriate next number in the series from the options below: 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ? (1) 56 (2) 62 (3) 49 (4) 5 7. A bakery opened with its daily supply of 40 dozen rolls. Half of the rolls were sold by noon, and 60% of the remaining rolls were sold between noon and closing time. How many dozen rolls were left unsold? (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) I2 8. Stuart, Jack and Leo are colleagues working in a plant. Stuart and Jack can do a work in 10 days, Jack and Leo can do the same work in 15 days while Stuart and Leo can do it in 12 days. All of them started the work together. After two days, Leo was shifted to some other work. How many days will Stuart and Jack take to finish the rest of the work? (1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 7.5 9. The missing numbers in the below series would be 1:1, 8:4, 9:27, 64:16, 25:125, ? :?, 49:343, (1) 36 : 316 (2) 216 : 36 (3) 316 : l6 (4) 32 : 316 10. The difference between the value of a number increased by 25% and the value of the original number decreased by 30% is 22. What is the original number? (1) 70 (2) 65 (3) 40 (4) 90 11. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 180 bottles per hour. How many bottles could 15 such machines produce in 30 minutes? (1) 225 (2) 300 (3) 250 (4) 350 12. A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part diminished by 10, is : (1) 240 (2) 260 (3) 270 (4) 280 13. Which one of the following numbers will completely divide (461 + 462 + 463 + 464)? (1) 3 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 13 Directions for questions 14 – 20:Each of the following questions is followed by two statements. Mark (1) - if statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. (2) - if statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (3) - if both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. (4) - if both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 14. Is 'b' positive? (I) a + b is positive. (II) a – b is positive. 15. In a general body election, 3 candidates, p, q and r were contesting for a membership of the board. How many votes did each receive? (I) p received 17 votes more than q and 103 votes more than r. (II) Total votes cast were 1703. 16. If C1 and C2 are the circumferences of the outer and inner circles respectively. What is C1 : C2? (I) The two circles are concentric. (II) The area of the ring is 2/3 the area of greater circle. 17. What is the middle number of 7 consecutive whole numbers? (I) Product of number is 702800. (II) Sum of the number is 105. 18. Total marks obtained by P, Q, R and S in Mathematics is 360. How many marks did P secure in Mathematics? (I) P secured one-third marks of the total of Q, R and S. (II) Average marks obtained by Q and R are 20 more than that secured by S. 19. How many ice cubes can be accommodated in a container? (I) The length and breadth of the container is 20 cm and 15 cm respectively. (II) The edge of the ice cube is 2 cm. 20. Ram got Rs 1500 as dividend from a company. What is the rate of interest given by the company? (I) The dividend paid last year was 10%. (II) Ram has 350 shares of Rs 10 denomination. Directions for questions. 21 – 24:Refer to the following bar diagram showing the sales (in Rs. Crores) of top market brands among pain killers in India and answer the questions. 21. What is the difference between the sales of Voveran in 2006 and those of Calpol in 2005 (in Rs lacs)? (1) 1000 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 500 22. Percentage of increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the highest for which brand of a pain killer? (1) Voveran (2) Volini (3) Dolonex (4) Sumo Voveran Calpol Nise Combiflam Dolonex Sumo Volini Moov Nimulid 2005 2006 23. Percentage increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the lowest for which brand of a pain killer? (1) Voveran (2) Volini (3) Moov (4) Nise 24. What is the approximate percentage of increase in the sales of Voveran from 2005 to 2006? (1) 35% (2) 40% (3) 45% (4) 50% 25. Which of the designs best completes the following sequence? (1) (2) (3) (4) 26. What is the number that is one half of one quarter of one tenth of 400? (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 10 27. Consider a square ABCD with midpoints E, F, G and H of sides AB, BC, CD and DA. Let L denote the line passing through F and H. Consider points P and Q on the line L inside the square such that the angles APD and BQC are both equal 120°. What is the ratio ABCQPD to the remaining area of ABCD? 28. The Price of Darjeeling Tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.1n, on the nth day of a nonleap year (n = 1, 2, 3, ... 100) and then remains constant. On the other hand the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 85 + 0.15n, on the nth day (n = 1, 2, ..., 365). On which date of that year will the prices of these two varieties of the tea be equal? (1) 27th October (2) 16th June (3) 15th June (4) 28th October Directions for questions 29 – 32:Each of questions consist of question followed by two statements numbered I and II Answer (1) if data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Answer (2) if data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Answer (3) if data in Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Answer (4) if data in Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 29. ∆ABC and ∆PQR are congruent (I) Area of ∆ABC and ∆PQR are same (II) ∆ABC and ∆PQR are right angle Triangles 30. Salary of A and B is in ratio 3:4 and expenditure is in ratio 4:5. What is the ratio of their saving? (I) B’s saving is 25% of his salary. (II) B’s salary is Rs 2500. 31. What is the average height of the class? (I) Average height of the class decreases by 1 cm if we exclude the tallest person of the class whose height is 56 cm. (II) Average height of the class increases by 1 cm if we exclude the shortest person of the class whose height is 42 cm. 32. Ram is taller than Shyam and Jay is shorter than Vikram. Who is the shortest among them? (I) Ram is the tallest. (II) Shyam is taller than Vikram. 33. In September 2009, the sales of a product were (2/3)rd of that in July 2009. In November 2009, the sales of the product were higher by 5% as compared to September 2009. How much is the percentage of increase in sales in November 2009 with respect to the base figure in July 2009? (1) +40% (2) – 20% (3) – 30% (4) +25% 34. For what range of values of 'x’, will be the inequality 15x – (2/x) > 1? (1) x > 0.4 (2) x < 1/3 (3) –1/3 < x < 0.4, x > 15/2 (4) –1/3 < x < 0, x > 2/5 35. How many litres of a 30% alcohol solution should be added to 40 litres of a 60% alcohol solution to prepare a 50% solution? (1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 24 (4) 32 36. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire of 1 mm diameter. The length of the wire in metres will be: (1) 84 (2) 90 (3) 168 (4) 336 37. A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is, (1) 48 km/hr (2) 54 km/hr (3) 66 km/hr (4) 82 km/hr 38. R is a positive number. It is multiplied by 8 and then squared. The square is now divided by 4 and the square root is taken. The result of the square root is Q. What is the value of Q? (1) 3R (2) 4R (3) 7R (4) 9R 39. If the length, breadth and height of the room are in ratio 3:2:1. The breadth and height of the room are halved and length of the room is doubled. Then area of the four walls of the room will, (1) decrease by 13.64% (2) decrease by 15% (3) decrease by 18.75% (4) decrease by 30% 40. A survey was conducted of 100 people whether they have read recent issues of ‘Golmal', a monthly magazine. Summarized information is presented below: Only September: 18 September but not August: 23 September and July: 8 September: 28 July: 48 July and August: 10 None of the three months: 24 What is the number of surveyed people who have read exactly for two consecutive months? (1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 14 SECTION-II Analytical & Logical Reasoning For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 2 marks each 41. Four children A, B, C & D are having some chocolates each. A gives B as many as he already has, he gives C twice of what C already has and he gives D thrice of what D already has. Now, D gives (1/8)th of his own chocolates to B. Then A gives l0% chocolates he now owns to C and 20% to B. Finally, all of them have 35 chocolates each. What is the original number of chocolates each had in the beginning? (1) A – 110, B – 10, C – 10, D – 10 (2) A – 90, B – 20, C – 20, D – 10 (3) A – 70, B – 25, C – 25, D – 20 (4) A – 125, B – 5, C – 5, D – 5 42. There are two similar figures below with some numbers. The left one is complete whereas one number is missing in the right one. Find a suitable number to fill in place of the question mark. (1) 280 (2) 303 (3) 362 (4) 382 43. Complete the following series by replacing the?: (TBLD, VEPI, XHTN, ?) (1) ZJVP (2) ZVJP (3) ZKXS (4) ZKXP 44. In a cricket team, three batsmen Ricky, Sachin and Brian are the top three run-scorers in any order. Each of them gives two replies to any question, one of which is true and the other is false, again, in any order. When asked about who the top scorer was, following were the replies they gave: Sachin: I got the top score. Ricky was second. Brian: I got the top score. Sachin was second. Ricky: I got the top score. Sachin was third. Which of the following is the correct order of batsmen who got the top score, second best and third best score respectively? (1) Brian, Ricky, Sachin (2) Brian, Sachin, Ricky (3) Ricky, Sachin, Brian (4) Sachin, Brian, Ricky 45. 60 employees in an office were asked about their preference for tea and coffee. It was observed that for every 3 people who prefer tea, there are 2 who prefer coffee. For every 6 people who prefer tea, there are 2 who drink both of tea and coffee. The number of people who drink both is the same as those who drink neither. How many people drink both tea and coffee? (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16 46. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and so on. If it takes 6 seconds to strike at 3 o’clock, how much time will it take to strike at 9 o’clock? (1) 24 seconds (2) 18 seconds (3) 20 seconds (4) None of these Directions for questions 47 – 48: E-1, E-2 and E-3 are three engineering students writing their assignments at night. Each of them starts at a different time and completes at a different time. The digit in their name and the order of their starting and completing the assignment is certainly not the same. The last student to start is the first to complete the assignment. 47. Who is the first student to start writing the assignment? (1) E-1 (2) E-2 (3) E-3 (4) Cannot be decided 48. Who is the last student to complete the assignment? (1) E-1 (2) E-2 (3) E-3 (4) Cannot be decided Directions for questions 49 - 50: A, B and C are three students from Don School and P, Q and R are three students from Elite School. Q is brighter than R but duller than the Don School student who is brighter than A. The same Don School student is duller than P but is brighter than C. 49. Who is brightest amongst all? (1) B (2) P (3) R (4) Cannot be decided 50. Who is the dullest amongst the three students from Elite School? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) Cannot be decided 51. When Rafael entered the class, there were already 10 students in the class. 5 students entered the class between Roger and Rafael. Total 10 students entered after Roger. Exactly how many students are in the class finally? (1) 15 (2) 25 (3) 27 (4) Cannot be decided Directions for questions 52 – 54:Arijit, Biplab, Chintan, Debashish, Elangovan, Frederick, Gautam and Himadri are sitting around a circular table. Some information about the order in which they are sitting is available as follows: (1) Debashish is sitting opposite to Himadri and to the immediate right of Gautam. (2) Elangovan is sitting to the immediate right of Biplab. (3) Arijit is sitting opposite Chintan who is not immediately next to Frederick on either side. 52. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Himadri? (1) Arijit (2) Debashish (3) Elangovan (4) Frederick 53. Who is sitting opposite Biplab? (1) Arijit (2) Debashish (3) Frederick (4) Himadri 54. Who is to the immediate right of Chintan? (1) Arijit (2) Biplab (3) Elangovan (4) Himadri 55. Select the alternative that logically follows the two given statements: Some rocks are not tables Some rocks are balloons (1) Some tables are not balloons (2) Some tables are balloons (3) Some balloons are not tables (4) None of the above Directions for questions 56 – 57:A, B, C, D and E sit on a long bench. C does not sit next to A or E. A and E have three persons sitting between them. 56. Who is sitting in the middle of the bench? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) None of these 57. Who are sitting at the extreme ends of the bench? (1) A & E (2) B & D (3) C & E (4) None of these Directions for questions 58 – 59: Observe the chart below and answer the following questions. I Yearly commission Earned by Five Salesmen. Figures in Rupees Year 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 Salesman A 27350 28500 25200 29800 24600 27000 B 26850 27900 27400 28000 28500 29000 C 26200 27900 28200 29100 29400 30000 D 27850 30040 29800 30060 29800 32000 E 28640 29000 28750 30000 29750 29700 58. In the year 1994, the commission earned by salesman D was approximately what percent more of the commission earned by A? (1) 18 (2) 82.5 (3) 21 (4) 17 59. In the year 1993, the commission of B was approximately what per cent of the total commission earned by five salesmen that year? (1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 80 60. Find the Missing Numbers in the following set 2 4 6 8 10 2 14 34 ?? 98 (1) 30 (2) 62 (3) 42 (4) 78 61. There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order (such as, vol. 1, vol. 2 and so on). After some readers used them, their order got disturbed. The changes showed as follows: Vol.5 was directly to the right of vol.2. Vol.4 has vol.6 to its left and both were not at Vol.3’s place. Vol.1 has Vol.3 on right and Vol.5 on left. An even numbered volume is at Vol.5’s place. Find the order in which the books are kept now, from the 4 given alternatives: (1) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (2) 4, 6, 3, 5, 1, 2 (3) 3, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3 (4) 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4 62. All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the statement above be most properly inferred? (1) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist philosopher, then he or she is German. (2) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist. (3) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx. (4) Marx is not an idealist German philosopher. 63. Ramaswami was studying for his examinations and the lights went off. It was around 1:00 a.m. He lighted two uniform candles of equal length but one thicker than the other. The thick candle is supposed to last six hours and the thin one two hours less. When he finally went to sleep, the thick candle was twice as long as the thin one. For how long did Ramaswami study in candle light? (1)2 hours (2)3 hours (3)2 hours 45 minutes (4)4 hours 64. The numerator and denominator of a fraction is in the ratio 2:3. If 6 are subtracted from the numerator the value of the fraction becomes 2/3 of the original fraction. The numerator of the original fraction is, (1) 16 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) 30 65. A person wanted to withdraw X rupees and Y paise from the bank. But cashier made a mistake and gave him Y rupees and X paise. Neither the person nor the cashier noticed that. After spending 20 paise, the person counts the money. To his surprise, he has double the amount he wanted to withdraw. Find X and Y. (1 Rupee = 100 Paise) (1) X = 3, Y = 6 (2) X = 26, Y= 53 (3) X = 15, Y = 30 (4) X = 9, Y = 36 66. A drawer contains 10 black and 10 brown socks which are all mixed up. What is the fewest number of socks you can take from the drawer without looking and be sure to get a pair of the same color? (1) 7 pairs (2) 7 pieces only (3) 10 pieces only (4) 3 pieces only 67. A placement company has to assign 1000 SW personnel who are skilled in Java and Dot Net to a prospective outsourcing company. He finds that 750 are having Dot Net skills and 450 have Java skills. Some have skills in both Java and Dot Net. Find the numbers who have skills in both Java and Dot Net. (1) 250 (2) 200 (3) 350 (4) 100 68. All good athletes who want to win are disciplined and have a well balanced diet. Therefore, athletes who do not have well balanced diets are bad athletes. Based on the sentence above which of the statement below strongly supports the view: (1) No bad athlete wants to win. (2) No athlete who does not eat a well balanced diet is good athlete. (3) Every athlete who eats a well balanced diet is good athlete. (4) All athletes who want to win are good athletes. 69. The numbers in these series are arranged in a triangle which has a logic as shown below. Find the missing numbers shown as (?) from the choices given below: 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 8 ? 2 2 16 64 16 2 2 32 1024 ? ? 2 (1) {16, 32, 64} (2) {8, 1024, 32} (3) {24, 1024, 64} (4) {16, 32, 64} 70. If for a particular value of the variable x, the following holds good, 17 = 17x/(1 – x), then compute the value of (2x)*x. (1) 17 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1/2 SECTION-III General Knowledge For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each 71. Name the jailed Chinese pro-democracy activist who won this year’s Nobel Peace Prize for his ‘long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights in China.' (1) Went Xiabo (2) Wen Jiabao (3) Liu Jiabao (4) Liu Xiaobo 72. Which government is behind the ‘The Nalanda Proposal’ proposing Nalanda as an ideal site for establishing a 21st century learning institution. (1) Singapore (2) India (3) U.K (4) China 73. Jimmy Wales and Larry Sanger are known for founding (1) Facebook (2) Orkut (3) Wikipedia (4) Google 74. The year 2010 is represented in Roman Numerals as (1) LLX (2) MMX (3) IIXX (4) CCXX 75. In which country is the seat of the United Nations International Court of Justice? (1) France (2) Norway (3) Britain (4) Netherlands 76. In 1965 Gordon Moore, Co-founder of Intel, made a prediction about the future of computer processing. What does his prediction, known as Moore’s Law say? (1) As technology continues to advance, computer chips will become obsolete. (2) Computer-processing power will double every 18 months to two years. (3) There will eventually be no need for transistors in high-tech electronics. (4) As the number of transistors increases, computer-processing power will be reduced by half in every two years. 77. ‘At 60 miles an hour the loudest noise in this new Rolls-Royce comes from the electric clock. '____Who wrote this famous advertising headline? (1) David Ogilvy (2) Walter Thompson (3) Leo Burnett (4) Salman Rushdie 78. His life's motto was ‘simple living and high thinking’. He was one of the greatest intellectuals and activists of the 19th century and one of the pillars of the Bengal Renaissance. He was a polymath. Sanskrit pundit, educator, social reformer, writer and philanthropist. Due to his relentless efforts, on 26th July 1856, widow remarriage was legalized by the then Government of India Who is this towering personality? (1) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (2) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (3) Rabindranath Tagore (4) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 79. Eustace Fernandes. who passed away in early 2010 was the much admired creator of (1) Tom and Jerry (2) Amul Girl (3) Air India Maharaja (4) Snow White 80. Find the mismatch (1) Somdev Devvaman Badminton (2) Gagan Narang Shooting (3) Arjun Atwal Golf (4) Anita Sood Swimming 81. Who designed the new rupee symbol? (1) Dilip Chhabria (2) D.Udaya Kumar (3) Tarun Tahiliani (4) S. Arun Kumar 82. What exactly is cloud computing? (1) A way to organize desktop computers. (2) Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive (3) Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility (4) The World Wide Web. 83. What is NDM-1? (1) National Defence Missile 1, developed by Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) as a part of the comprehensive missile shield for India. (2) A bacterial gene called New Delhi Metallolactamase- l, dubbed the ‘superbug' because of it being resistant to most antibiotics. (3) New Directions in Management l - the first among a series of international conferences on Management, to be inaugurated by Bill Gates in Mumbai in January 2012. (4) A vision document on Disaster Management, released by Planning Commission. 84. ‘Niyamgiri Hills' was in the news because of (1) Vedanta’s failed mining proposal in the area inhabited by Dongria Kondh tribals. (2) The helicopter crash and death of Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy. (3) Headquarters of the Naxalite Red corridor. (4) Condé Nast Traveller magazine selected it as the best trekking holiday spot in the world. 85. Match the following husband-and-wife team with the awards they have received for exemplary work: 1 Bill and Melinda Gates i Right to Livelihood Awards 2 Sankaralingam and Krishnammal ii UN Population Award 3 Prakash and Mandakini Amte iii Kyoto Prize 4 Peter and Rosemary Grant iv Magsaysay Award (1) 1 - ii. 2 - i, 3 - iii. 4 - iv (2) 1 - ii, 2 - i. 3 - iv, 4 - iii (3) 1 - iv, 2 - iii, 3 - ii, 4 – i (4) 1 - ii, 2 - iv, 3 - iii, 4 - i 86. What is Renminbi? (1) It is the official currency of the People's Republic of China (PRC), whose principal unit is the Yuan. (2) Low cost car being developed by Volkswagen in China, at prices lower than Nano. (3) New aircraft Company floated by Brazil to challenge Boeing and Airbus. (4) New currency mooted for the entire ASEAN region like Euro for Europe. 87. Embraer is one of the world leaders in the manufacturing of corporate/business jets. Embraer belongs to which country? (1) Germany (2) Japan (3) Brazil (4) France 88. The Unique Identification (UID) Project, headed by Nandan Nilekani has been renamed as (1) Adhaar (2) Sambhav (3) Sambhandh (4) Alekh 89. India’s first Special Economic Zone dedicated to the Aerospace Industry has been launched at (1) Hyderabad (2) Hallargi (3) Shimla (4) Ahmedabad 90. The prime purpose of WTO is to promote: (1) Financial Support (2) Global Peace (3) Unilateral Trade (4) Multilateral Trade 91. On March 5, 2010, which of the following personalities from India is among I9 members chosen by UN chief Ban Ki-moon for a high–level advisory group on Climate Change Financing tasked with mobilizing funds pledged during the Copenhagen meet to tackle global warming? (1) Shyam Saran (2) Montek Singh Ahluwalia (3) Chandrashekhar Dasgupta (4) Pradipto Ghosh 92. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has termed the 11th Five Year Plan as: (1) India’s health plan (2) India’s poverty eradication plan (3) India’s rural prosperity plan (4) India’s education plan 93. Which of the following milestones was achieved by New Zealand Cricket Team Captain Daniel Vettori recently? (1) 2,000 runs and 200 wickets in Test Cricket (2) 3,000 runs and 300 wickets in One-Day Internationals (ODIS) (3) 3,000 runs and 300 wickets in Test Cricket (4) 2,000 runs and 200 wickets in One-Day Internationals (ODls) 94. What is the full form of the term ‘NPA’ as used in banking environment? (1) Not Profitable Assets (2) New Potential Accounts (3) Non Performing Assets (4) Net Performing Assets 95. Which of the following contributes to the highest share of revenue earned by the Government of India? (1) Income Tax (2) Excise Duty (3) Value Added Tax (4) Corporate Tax 96. Which country was world’s largest exporter with merchandise exports worth $1.47 trillion in 2008, according to the World Trade Organization? (1) USA (2) China (3) Germany (4) Russia 97. Where in India, recently has the Clinton Foundation, founded by former US President Bill Clinton, firmed up its plans to set up world's largest solar park (3,000 to 5,000 MW capacity)? (1) Bihar (2) Orissa (3) Gujarat (4) Rajasthan 98. Which three public sector lenders have entered recently into a joint venture agreement for setting up a banking subsidiary, India BIA Bank (Malaysia) Bhd, in Malaysia? (1) Bank of India, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank. (2) Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Bank of India (3) Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank. (4) Bank of Baroda, Indian Bank, and Andhra Bank. 99. What is the campaign of Union and State Governments against the Naxalite movement called? (1) Operation Red Alert (2) Operation Green Hunt (3) Operation Cobra Den (4) Operation Clean Corridor 100. The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is (1) Altimeter (2) Anemometer (3) Chronometer (4) Dosimeter 101. Which of the following countries is the first in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming? (1) Finland (2) Japan (3) Germany (4) Australia 102. Amino acids are found in (1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats (3) Proteins (4) Vitamins 103. Which among the following is the world’s largest milk producing country? (1) India (2) China (3) The US (4) Germany 104. A group of words that share the same spelling and the same pronunciation but have different meanings; e.g. left (opposite of right) and left (past tense of leave) (1) Synonyms (2) Homonyms (3) Heteronyms (4) Acronyms 105. The National Flag of India was designed by (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Jawaharlal Nehru (3) Rabindra Nath Tagore (4) Pingali Venkayya 106. In 1679, Denis Papin, a French physicist, who assisted Robert Boyle, used the latter’s scientific discoveries and invented what is today one of the most commonly found kitchen equipment. His invention earned him a membership of the Royal Society of England What was the invention? (1) Knife (2) Fork (3) Pressure Cooker (4) Stove 107. Mr. Ratan Tata refused a job with one of the following companies to join Tata Steel in 1962. Which company was it? (1) IBM (2) HUL (3) Seimens (4) SKF International 108. Which of the following have owned Land Rover brand before Tata Motors? (1) BMW (2) British Leyland (3) British Aerospace (4) All of the above 109. Who is known as ‘The Man Who Broke the Bank of England’ after he made a reported $l billion during the 1992 Black Wednesday UK currency crisis? (1) George Soros (2) George W Bush (3) Paul Volcker (4) Ben Bernanke 110. Who is the current dean of Harvard Business School? (1) Nitin Nohria (2) Deepak Jain (3) Kim Clark (4) None of these SECTION-IV GENERAL ENGLISH For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. Directions for questions 111 – 114: Read the passage and then determine the best choice for an answer from the questions given below. Base your choice on what this passage states directly or implies, not on any information you may have got from elsewhere. "The emancipation of women", James Joyce told one of his friends, "has caused the greatest revolution in our time." Other modernists agree: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in about 1910 "human character changed" and illustrating the new balance between the sexes, urged, "Read the 'Agamemon' and see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra". D.H. Lawrence wrote "perhaps the deepest fight for 200 years and more has been the fight for women’s independence". But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination as one of' their "greatest" and "deepest" themes, only recently, perhaps in the past 15 years has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked- far from it. We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring to them and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun to change. 111. According to the passage, modernists are changing literary criticism by:- (1) Noting instances of hostility between men and women (2) Seeing literature from fresh points of view (3) Studying the works of early twentiethcentury writers (4) Reviewing books written by feminists 112. The author quotes James Joyce, Virginia Woolf and D.H. Lawrence primarily in order to show that:- (1) These were feminist writers (2) Although well–meaning, they were ineffectual (3) Before the twentieth century, there was little interest in women's literature (4) None of the above 113. The author‘s attitude towards women's reformation of literary canons can best be described as one of:- (1) Ambivalence (2) Antagonism (3) Indifference (4) Endorsement 114. Which of the following titles best describes the contents of the passage? (1) Modernist Writers and the Search for Equality (2) The meaning of Literature from 1910 onwards (3) Transforming Literature (4) None of the options 115. Choose the correct sentence (1) A anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer. (2) The anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer. (3) As anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer. (4) An anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer. Directions for questions 116 – 119: Fill in the blanks and choose the correct definition for the punctuation. 116. _________ is used to indicate possession. (1) Hyphen (2) Apostrophe (3) Semi Colon (4) Period 117. _________ is used to mark the end of declarative and imperative sentences. (1) Semicolon (2) Comma (3) Dash (4) Period 118. When a subordinate clause is followed by the main clause, _________ is required. (1) Dash (2) Semi-colon (3) Comma (4) Colon 119. When no connecting word is used to connect two independent clauses, one should use _________. (1) Comma (2) Semi-colon (3) Period (4) Colon Directions for questions 120 – 121: Which is the correct proverb ? 120. (1) Sleeping dogs tell lies. (2) Dogs sleeping lie till late. (3) Lie sleeping dogs till the dawn comes. (4) Let the sleeping dogs lie. 121. (1) A fool is always parted from his money. (2) A fool and his money are parted easily. (3) Money and the fool must part ways. (4) You can always part a fool from his money. Directions for questions 122 – 127: Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms. 122. If someone said,"You are the bomb!" she or he probably would be telling you: (1) You have a bad temper. (2) You are a war weapon. (3) You are exceptional and/or wonderful. (4) You are dangerous. 123. When someone is described as being "flighty", the person described is probably: (1) Light. (2) Indecisive and irresponsible. (3) Someone who loves flying. (4) Someone who flies kites. 124. What does “to take down the enemy" mean? (1) To take the enemy's pictures off the wall. (2) To kill the enemy. (3) To make friends with the enemy. (4) To ignore the enemy. 125. What does, “Dime a dozen” mean? (1) For one dime you get a dozen. (2) All dozens cost a dime. (3) Anything that is common and easy to get. (4) It is difficult to get people. 126. “Throw the baby out with the bath water” means, (1) Clean out everything (2) Throw out the good things with the unwanted (3) Being thorough (4) Create the impression of an accident 127. “Bark up the wrong tree” means, (1) Skin of another animal (2) Behave like a dog (3) Purposely make an error (4) Make the wrong choice 128. I ________ my bike yesterday, so my legs are sore. (1) road (2) rode (3) rhode (4) ride 129. Insulation was fitted to ________ further heat loss from the building. (1) guard (2) protect (3) save (4) prevent 130. A ________ rate of inflation makes exports difficult. (1) great (2) high (3) large (4) tall 131. My boat has two ________. (1) sales (2) sails (3) sailes (4) sells 132. Can you give me ______ details, please? (1) faster (2) further (3) farther (4) furthur 133. A baby deer is called a ________. (1) Foal (2) Fawn (3) Calf (4) Joe Directions for questions 134 – 135: Complete the sentence by choosing the correct words from the given alternatives. 134. The greatest _________ of my generation is that a human being can alter his life by ________ his attitude. (1) gift ... gifting (2) discovery ... altering (3) misgiving ... elevating (4) thing ... flaunting 135. When it comes to staying ________, a mind-lift beats a _______ any day. (1) young ... face-lift (2) at home ... egg (3) light ... elevator (4) away … sleep 136. None are so __________ as those who are full of themselves. (1) empty (2) important (3) vital (4) indispensible 137. Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of ________________. (1) earning (2) irritation (3) worry (4) learning 138. Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided. ‘Eulogize` (1) Extol (2) Criticize (3) Emulate (4) Amulet 139. Correct synonym for Pedantic is, (1) Referring to small children (2) Teaching Methodology (3) Finicky (4) Angry 140. Pyrophobia means (1) Fear of Pythons (2) Fear of funeral pyres (3) Fear of fever (4) Fear of fire Directions for questions 141 – 142: Choose the kangaroo word that carries a smaller version of the word with a very similar meaning: 141. (1) Masculine (2) Woman (3) Man (4) Child 142. (1) Sleep (2) Respite (3) Walk (4) Talk Directions for questions 143: Choose the word that completes the first and begins the second word. 143. Paper __________ and __________ lifter (1) cone (2) weight (3) light(4) fly Directions for questions 144 – 145: Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word to form a new word. 144. Out (1) Shine (2) Number (3) Bug (4) Run 145. News (1) Letter (2) Week (3) Stand (4) Paper 146. I did not see you __________ the office party. (1) in (2) for (3) at (4) on Directions for questions 147 – 148: Fill in the blanks with the correct simile. 147. As cool as (1) a cucumber (2) the winter night (3) an ice cream (4) a rock star 148. As fresh as (1) a daisy (2) a rose (3) milk (4) dew 149. Choose the option that does not belong with the rest : (1) Consort (2) Spouse (3) Partner (4) Clear 150. Nerd means (1) Genius (2) Uninteresting person (3) Worm (4) Arthropod Section I - General Awareness For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. 1. “Swayamsidha” is a scheme launched by the Government of India to help (1) School Children only (2) Health workers only (3) Senior citizen without any regular income (4) Women only 2. What is ‘Share swap’? A. A business takeover in which acquiring company uses its own stock to pay for the acquired company. B. When a company uses its own share to get some short term loan for working capital requirement C. When companies are require to float a new issue to earn capital for their expansion programmes, each shareholder gets some additional preferential share. The process is known as Share Swap. (1) Only A (2) Only A and B (3) Only C (4) None of the above 3. Regarding “carbon credits” which of the following statements is not correct? (1) The carbon credits system was ratified in conjunction with Kyoto Protocol (2) Carbon credits are awarded to those countries or groups who have reduced the green house gases below their emission quota (3) The goal of carbon credit system is to reduce carbon dioxide emission (4) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Environment Programme 4. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two? (1) FII helps bring better management skills and technology while FDI only bring capital (2) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors (3) FDI flows only into secondary markets while FII targets primary markets (4) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI 5. In context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? 1) It is a major classification of crude oil 2) It is sourced from North sea 3) It does not contain sulphur Which of the statement given above is /are correct? (1) 2 only (2) 1 and 2 only (3) 1 and 3 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 6. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India consider the following statements: 1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs. 2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold war. 3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 1 and 3 only (3) 3 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 7. Recently “oilzapper” was in news. What is it? (1) It is eco friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills (2) It is the latest technology developed under sea oil exploration (3) It is genetically engineered high biofuel – yielding maize variety (4) It is the latest technology to control accidentally caused flames from oil wells. 8. Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern? 1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub – prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future. 2. The teaser loans are given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 9. Why is the government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE)? 1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from disinvestment mainly to pay the External debt 2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of CPSEs Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 10. The book “Unto this Last” which influenced Gandhiji, was authored by (1) Boris Yeltsin (2) Pushkin (3) Ruskin Bond (4) John Ruskin 11. Besides USA, India has signed, with which of the following countries the agreement being named as “Cooperation Agreement on the development of Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy”? (1) Italy (2) Germany (3) France (4) Australia 12. Which of the following country is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? (1) Russia (2) USA (3) Italy (4) Iran 13. Many times we read in the newspaper that several companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise capital. What is the full form of FCCB? (1) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (2) Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds (3) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau (4) None of these 14. As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make plan to provide banking services in villages having population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories? (1) Plan for financial inclusion (2) Efforts to meet Priority sector lending (3) Extension of Internet and Branchless banking. (4) None of these 15. Which of the following is/ are treated as artificial currency? (1) ADR (2) GDR (3) Both ADR and GDR (4) SDR 16. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanisms used by commercial banks to provide credit to the Government? (1) Cash Credit Ratio (2) Debit Service Obligation (3) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 17. Who among the following was not part of the drafting committee of the Lokpal Bill? (1) Salman Khurshid (2) Anna Hazare (3) Arvind Kejriwal (4) Kiran Bedi 18. Criminal procedure is a subject of which of the following lists? (1) State List (2) Concurrent List (3) Union List (4) Both 1 and 3 19. One of the world’s biggest Uranium resources was recently found in (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Jharkhand (4) Uttarakhand 20. Which of the following was the first venture of Kishore Biyani (1) Pantaloons (2) Big Bazaar (3) Central (4) Future Capital Holdings 21. Who among the following is often referred to as father of India’s “Green Revolution”? (1) Dr. Verghese Kurien (2) Dr. Amrita Patel (3) M. S. Swaminathan (4) Gurudev Khush 22. Who among the following directed the movie Peepli Live? (1) Ashutosh Gowarikar (2) Kiran Rao (3) Anusha Rizvi (4) Seema Chisti 23. The point at which soild, liquid and gaseous forms of a substance co – exist is called (1) sublimation (2) distillation point (3) triple point (4) melting point 24. The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal collapse is called the (1) Raman Effect (2) Chandrashekhar limit (3) Aurora Borealis (4) Quasan Zone 25. UNDP reports publishes every year the Human Development Index. Which of the following is not a criteria used to measure the Human Development Index? (1) Health (2) Education (3) Living Standards (4) Human Rights 26. The software company I – flex Solutions was originally a division of which famous financial services company? (1) Citicorp (2) ICICI (3) HSBC (4) ABN Amro Bank 27. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC? (1) Bhutan (2) Bangladesh (3) Burma (4) Maldives 28. Which article of the Indian constitution recognizes Hindi in Devanagari Script as the official language of India? (1) Art 345 (2) Art 343 (3) Art 348 (4) Art 334 29. India has finally woken up to the needs of the country’s elderly. With the number of people in the 60 – plus age group in India expected to increase to 100 million in 2013 and to 198 million in 2030, the health ministry is all set to roll out the (1) National Programme for Health care of the Elderly (2) National Programme for Senior Citizens (3) National Programme for Old Aged (4) Rashtriya Vriddha Swasthya Yojana 30. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Non – resident Indians (NRIs) can now cast votes in their home constituencies in India. 2. The NRI can cast his vote by postal balloting. (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 31. In a landmark move, which of these State governments has set up a Savarna Aayog, a commission to identify the deprived and underprivileged families among upper castes? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan 32. Which of these countries has announced one billion US dollar aid for the reconstruction of Nalanda University? (1) Japan (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) China 33. What is the name of the in - house magazine to be published by the Indian Railways, to be distributed to the passengers on high end trains? (1) Rail Vishwa (2) Rail Bandhu (3) Rail Mail (4) Rail Patra 34. The government, in February 2011, set up a task force to create a way to provide direct subsidies to the ultimate beneficiaries on petroleum working gas and fertilizers. The task force will be headed by - (1) Nandan Nilekani (2) Apoorva Sinha (3) Sangam Chitra (4) All of these 35. Which of these countries has been added in the ‘BRIC’ (Brazil – Russia – India – China) groupin of emerging economies? (1) South Korea (2) Venezuela (3) South Africa (4) Malaysia 36. Which of the following countries was the host of First Asian Yoga Championship held recently? (1) Thailand (2) Cambodia (3) Vietnam (4) Laos 37. Who among the following has been defeated by Saina Nehwal, who has won the Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold title recently, becoming the First Indian to do so? (1) Ji Hyun Sung (2) Wang Lin (3) Kamilla Rytter Juhl (4) Shinta Mulia Sari 38. On March 6, 2011, the Supreme Court held that has ample powers to enact legislation with respect to extra – territorial aspects for the security of India? (1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Supreme Court (4) Parliament 39. Which country has appointed Brigadier General Ravinder Singh as its next Army chief, the first Sikh in nearly 30 years to be given the force’s batton (1) Thailand (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) Indonesia 40. Anant Pai, better known as ‘Uncle Pai’, who recently died was the creator of which among the following comic series? (1) Chacha Chaudhary (2) Chandamama (3) Indrajaal (4) Amar Chitra Katha Section II – Analytical & Logical Reasoning For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 2 mark each. Directions for questions 41 and 42: Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these statements. Choose the subset as your answer where the statements therein are logically consistent among themselves: 41. A. Only if the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the people change their lifestyle. B. People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded. C. If people are rewarded, then they will not change their lifestyle. D. If the temperature rises, then the water level in the coastal areas rises. E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then the temperature rises. F. Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises. G. People are rewarded. H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise. (1) C, D, F, G and H (2) G, F, D, B and H (3) E, F, G, H and B (4) None of the above 42. A. If Kumar sings, then the audiences sleep. B. If Kumar sings, then the audiences dance. C. Unless audience do not dance, the concert will be successful. D. Only if the audience dance, the concert will be successful. E. If Vina dances, then Kumar sings. F. Kumar sings only if Vina dances. G. Vina dances H. The concert is successful. (1) C, F, G, B and H (2) A, C, F, G and H (3) E, C, G, B and H (4) Both (2) and (3) Directions for questions 43 to 45: These questions are based on the data given below. There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C and D and there is only one couple among them. When asked about their relationships, following were their replies: a. A: B is my son. D is my mother. b. B: C is my wife. Dis my father. c. C: D is my mother – in – law. A is my daughter. d. D: A is my grand – daughter. B is my daughter – in – law. 43. Who always speaks the truth? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 44. How is B related to C? (1) Father (2) Mother (3) Wife (4) Husband 45. Which of the following statements must be true? (1) A’s grandmother alternates between the truth and lie. (2) C’s wife always speaks the truth. (3) A’s grandfather always speaks the truth. (4) B’s daughter always tells lies. Directions for questions 46 to 48: These questions are based on the following information. A cube of 7cm × 7cm × 7cm is kept in the corner of a room and painted in three different colours, each face in one colour. The cube is cut into 343 smaller but identical cubes. 46. How many smaller cubes do not have any face painted? (1) 125 (2) 180 (3) 144 (4) 216 47. How many smaller cubes have exactly one colour on them? (1) 108 (2) 72 (3) 36 (4) 24 48. How many smaller cubes have at the most two faces painted? (1) 343 (2) 342 (3) 256 (4) 282 Directions for questions 49 and 50: Amit was driving in New Town, where all roads either north – south or east – west forming a grid. Roads were at a distance of 1 km from each other in parallel. 49. Amit started at the intersection of streets no. 7 and 8. He drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point? I. 3 km east, then 2 km south II. 1 km north, then 3 km east III. 1 km north, then 2 km west (1) I only (2) II only (3) ! and II only (4) II and III only 50. After driving as stated in question no. 49 above, Amit did not return to his starting point, but instead drove 4 km east and 1 km north. How far is he from his starting point? (1) 5 km (2) 4 km (3) 1 km (4) 7 km Directions for questions 51 to 55: Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow: A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y. Then it updates these values as X = XY and Y = Y + 1 in every step. The machine stops at X ≥ N. 51. For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are performed before the machine stops? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 52. In the above question (51), what is the final value of X? (1) 6 (2) 20 (3) 72 (4) 360 53. In the above question (51), what is the final value of Y? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 20 54. If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be the final value of X? (1) 360 (2) 500 (3) 560 (4) 2160 55. If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum value of N such that final value of Y is 7? (1) 300 (2) 360 (3) 720 (4) 860 Directions for questions 56 to 60: Refer to the following statements and answer the questions: Seven students Priya, Ankit, Raman, Sunil, Tony, Deepak and Vicky take a series of tests. No two students get similar marks. Vicky always scores more than Priya. Priya always scores more than Ankit. Each time either Raman scores the highest and Tony gets the least, or alternatively Sunil scores the highest and Deepak or Ankit scores the least. 56. If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true? (1) Vicky is ranked first or fourth (2) Raman is ranked second or third (3) Tony is ranked fourth or fifth (4) Deepak is ranked third or fourth 57. If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked not lower than: (1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth 58. If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked first, which of the following must be true? (1) Sunil is ranked third (2) Tony is ranked third (3) Priya is ranked sixth (4) None of these. 59. If Sunil is ranked second, which of the following can be true? (1) Deepak gets more than Vicky (2) Vicky gets more than Sunil (3) Priya gets more than Raman (4) Priya gets more than Vicky 60. If Vicky is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true? (1) Sunil scores the highest (2) Raman is ranked second (3) Tony is ranked third (4) Ankit is ranked second 61. In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the voters had leaning towards party “Y”. In 2004, this figure rose to 46%. But in another survey the percentage was down to 40%. Therefore, the party “Z” is likely to win the next election. Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the above conclusion? (1) People tend to switch their votes at the last minute. (2) It has been showed that 85% of the voters belonging to the party “Y” vote in an election as compared to 80% of the voters belonging to party ”Z”. (3) 35% of people favour party “Z”. (4) No one can predict how people will vote. 62. Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by 4% during the first quarter and higher than 3% recorded during the same time last year. However, the higher price index did not seem to alarm National stock Index as stock prices remain steady. Which of the following, if true, could explain the reaction of National stock Index? (1) RBI announced that it will take necessary corrective measures (2) Stock prices were steady because of a fear that inflation would continue. (3) Economists warned that inflation would continue. (4) Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due to a summer drought effect on food price. Direction for question 63: Pick up the appropriate analogy. 63. Birth : Dirge (1) Sunset : sunrise (2) security check : arrival (3) marriage : alimony (4) welcome address : vote of thanks 64. Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just look at this city’s beautiful beaches, which are among the most overcrowded beaches in the state. Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one exhibited in the argument above? (1) Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking hole at the same time of day. Therefore, moose and bear must grow thirsty at about the same time. (2) Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave more often than other children. Hence if a child is not scolded severely that child is less likely to misbehave. (3) This software programme helps increase the work efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more free time for other activities. (4) During weather my dog suffers from fleas more than during cooler weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a warm environment. 65. No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but remain unreported. On the other hand, at least some industries that are run entirely by self – employed industrialists are included in national productivity measures. From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that (1) there are at least some industries run entirely by self – employed industrialists that are underground industries (2) no industries that are run entirely by self – employed industrialists operate underground. (3) there are at least some industries other than those run entirely by self – employed industrialists that are underground industries. (4) there are at least some industries run entirely by self – employed industrialists that are not underground industries 66. Nilu has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during her 16 – year flying career. Nilu must be a great pilot. Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above? (1) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity (2) The argument uses circular reasoning (3) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions (4) The argument works by analogy 67. Many people argue that the death penalty deters murder. However, the notorious killer Tom Hanks deliberately moved to a state that imposes the death penalty just before embarking on a series of ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear that the existence of the death penalty does not serve as a deterrent to murder. The argument above may best be characterized as: (1) an appeal to emotion. (2) a flawed analogy. (3) a general conclusion based on a specific example. (4) circular reasoning. 68. What number should replace the question mark? (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 12 (4) 6 69. The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions. If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true? (1) Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they do not have to specify fee arrangements in the advertisements. (2) More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services. (3) If the restrictions against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will advertise their services. (4) If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also charge less than they currently charge for those services. 4 3 2 5 1 1 5 3 3 3 1 2 8 6 1 8 4 3 7 2 9 ? 3 70. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument concerning overall consumer legal costs? (1) The state is unlikely to remove all of the restrictions that apply solely to the advertising of legal services. (2) Lawyers who do not advertise generally provide legal services of the same quality as those provided by lawyers who do advertise. (3) Most lawyers who now specify fee arrangements in their advertisements would continue to do so even in the specification were not required. (4) Most lawyers who advertise specific services do not lower their fees for those services when they begin to advertise. Section III – Quantitative For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. 71. A train travelling at 36 kmph crosses a platform in 20 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 10 seconds. What is the length of the platform in meters? (1) 240 meters (2) 100 meters (3) 200 meters (4) 300 meters 72. By walking at 4/5th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 10 minutes later than usual. What is his usual time? (1) 20 min (2) 40 min (3) 30 min (4) 50 min 73. A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each other, start travelling towards each other at the same time. If the man covers 5 miles per hour to the women’s 4 mile per hour, how far will the woman have travelled when they meet? (1) 27 (2) 36 (3) 45 (4) None of these 74. Two people were walking in opposite directions. Both of them walked 6 miles forward then took right and walked 8 miles. How far is each from starting positions? (1) 14 miles and 14 miles (2) 10 miles and 10 miles (3) 6 miles and 6 miles (4) 12 miles and 12 miles 75. Four men and three women can do a job in 6 days. When 5 men and 6 women work on the same job, the work gets completed in 4 days. How long will 2 women and 3 men take to do the job? (1) 18 (2) 10 (3) 8.3 (4) 12 76. Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then takes the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is. In how many more days will they complete the work? 77. A and B can do a piece of work in 21 and 24 days respectively. They start the work together and after some days A leaves the work and B completes the remaining work in 9 days. After how many days did A leave? (1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6 78. A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price of 75 articles when he sold 100 of the articles. What % profit did he make in the transaction? (1) 33.33% (2) 75% (3) 300% (4) 150% 79. In a 100 M race, if A gives B a start of 20 meters, then A wins the race by 5 seconds. Alternatively, if A gives B a start of 40 meters the race ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 M? (1) 10 seconds (2) 20 seconds (3) 30 seconds (4) 40 seconds 80. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area after such cutting? (1) 4% (2) 300% (3) 75% (4) 400% 81. A number G236G0 can be divided by 36 if G is: (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) More than one values are possible. 82. Amit can do a work in 12 days and Sagar in 15 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is: (1) 3/20 (2) 3/5 (3) 2/5 (4) 2/20 83. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road? (1) 2.91 m (2) 3 m (3) 5.82 m (4) None of these 84. A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls; another bag contains 4 white and 5 black balls. From any one of these bags a single draw of two balls is made. Find the probability that one of them would be white and other black ball. (1) 275/504 (2) 5/18 (3) 5/9 (4) None of these Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following bar graph gives the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country A, for the five years from 2006 to 2010. Consumption = Production – Exports Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption) ÷ (Population) 85. In which year was the percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year, the highest? (1) 2007 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2010 86. What is the population of country A in the year 2008 (in million)? (1) 2.64 million (2) 2.72 million (3) 2.79 million (4) 2.85 million 0 50 100 150 200 250 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 Production(in million kg) Exports (in million kg) Per capita(in kg) 87. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year (1) 2006 (2) 2007 (3) 2008 (4) 2009 88. In which of the given years was the population of country A, the highest? (1) 2007 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2010 Directions for questions 89 to 93: The following pie chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major activities of a student. 89. The percentage of time which he spends in school is: (1) 38% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 25% 90. How much time (in per cent) does he spend in games in comparison to sleeping? (1) 30% (2) 40% (3) 25% (4) None of these 91. If he spends the time in games equal to the home work and remains constant in other activities, then the percentage decrease in time of sleeping: (1) 15% (2) 12.5% (3) 20% (4) None of these 92. What is the difference in time (in hours) spent in school and in home work? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 8 93. If he spends 1/3rd time of homework in Mathematics then the number of hours he spends in rest of the subjects in home work: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 94. Three parallel lines are cut by two transversals as shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm and DE = 1.5 cm, then the length of EF is: (1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 3.5 cm (4) 4 cm 95. log10 10 + log10102 + …….. + log1010n (1) n2 + 1 (2) n2 – 1 96. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is: Home work 45° School 105° Others 60° Sleeping 120° Games 30° 97. The total number of Natural numbers that lie between 10 and 300 and are divisible by 9 is (1) 32 (2) 30 (3) 33 (4) 34 98. If nCx = 56 and nPx = 336, find n and x. (1) 7, 3 (2) 8, 4 (3) 8, 3 (4) 9, 6 99. One side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. The midpoints of its sides are joined to form another triangle whose midpoints are in turn joined to form still another triangle. This process continues indefinitely. Find the sum of the perimeters of all the triangles. (1) 144 cm (2) 72 cm (3) 536 cm (4) 676 cm 100. The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays, is: (1) 17/53 (2) 1/53 (3) 3/7 (4) None of these 101. Find the intercepts made by the line 3x + 4y – 12 = 0 on the axes: (1) 2 and 3 (2) 4 and 3 (3) 3 and 5 (4) None of these 102. The average of 4 distinct prime numbers a, b, c, d is 35, where a < b < c < d. a and d are equidistant from 36 and b and c are equidistant from 34 and a, b are equidistant from 30 and c and d are equidistant from 40. The difference between a and d is: (1) 30 (2) 14 (3) 21 (4) Cannot be determined 103. Ramsukh bhai sells rasgulla(a favourite Indian sweets) at Rs. 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made up of flour and sugar in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of price of sugar and flour is 7 : 3 (per kg). Thus he earns 66 2/3 profit. What is the cost price of sugar? (1) Rs. 10/kg (2) Rs. 9/kg (3) Rs. 18/kg (4) Rs. 14/kg 104. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a person to purchase 6 kg more for Rs. 240. What is the original price per kg of sugar? (1) Rs. 10/kg (2) Rs. 8/kg (3) Rs. 6/kg (4) Rs. 5/kg 105. A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right circular cone with a base radius equal to the radius of the sphere. What is the ratio of the height and radius of the cone so formed? (1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) None of these 106. The speed of scooter, car and train are in the ratio of 1 : 4 : 16. If all of them cover equal distance then the ratio of time taken/velocity for each of the vehicle is: (1) 256 : 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 : 16 (3) 16 : 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 : 4 107. B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of work in 15 days. A started the work and after a few days B joined him. They completed the work in 11 days, from the starting. For how many days did they work together? (1) 1 day (2) 2 days (3) 6 days (4) 5 days 108. A, B, C and D purchased a restaurant for Rs. 56 lakhs. The contribution of B, C and D together is 460% that of A, alone. The contribution of A, C and D together is 366.66% that of B’s contribution and the contribution of C is 40% that of A, B and D together. The amount contributed by D is: (1) 10 lakhs (2) 12 lakhs (3) 16 lakhs (4) 18 lakhs 109. The salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less than the salary of Saroj respectively. By what percent is the salary of Raju more than the salary of Ram? (1) 33.33% (2) 50% (3) 15.18% (4) 14.28% 110. The radius of a wire is decreased to one – third and its volume remains the same. The new length is how many times the original length? (1) 2 times (2) 4 times (3) 5 times (4) 9 times Section IV – General English For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. Directions for questions 111 to 116: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. D. H. Lawrence – 1885 – 1930: The Supreme Triumph For man, the vast marvel is to be alive. For man as for flower and beast and bird, the supreme triumph is to be most vividly, most perfectly alive. Whatever the unborn and the dead may know, they cannot know the beauty, the marvel of being alive in the flesh. The dead may look after the afterwards. But the magnificent here and now of life in the flesh is ours, and ours alone, and ours only for a time. We ought to dance with rapture, that we should be alive and in the flesh, and part of the living, incarnate cosmos. I am part of the sun as my eye is the part of me. That I am part of the earth my feet below know the perfectly, and my blood is part of the sea. My soul knows that I am a part of the human race, my soul is an inorganic part of the great human soul, as my spirit is a part of my nation. In my own very self, I am part of my family. There is nothing of me that is alone and absolute except my mind, and we shall find that the mind has no existence by itself, it is only the glitter of the sun on the surface of the waters. – Apocalypse, 1931. 111. By triumph the author means - (1) sin (2) loss (3) sorrow (4) victory 112. When the dead look after the afterwards the living should look at life (1) forever (2) for some months (3) for only a short while (4) in the past 113. By rapture the author means an emotion involving great (1) trepidation (2) thrill (3) fear (4) joy 114. By the last line “It ………………………waters”, the author means that the mind is only (1) a mirage (2) an illusion (3) magic (4) a reflection 115. The tone of this passage is (1) social (2) moral (3) reflective (4) philosophical 116. The most suitable title for this passage would be - (1) The Surface of the Waters (2) My Mind (3) The Human Race (4) Alive and Kicking Directions for questions 117 to 119: Choose the correct option. 117. The repetition of messages or the use of superfluous expressions is called ……………… (1) redundancy (2) hyperbole (3) alliteration (4) allegory 118. Ink : pen : paper (1) watch : dial : strap (2) book : paper : words (3) farmer : plough : field (4) colour : brush : canvas 119. realia (1) theoretical constructs (2) fabricated examples (3) objects from real life (4) based on reality Directions for questions 120 to 125: Choose the grammatically correct option from the following. 120. (1) ‘Are these gloves belonging to you?’ she asked. (2) ‘Does this gloves belong to you?’ she asked. (3) ‘Do these gloves belongs to you?’ she asked. (4) ‘Do these gloves belong to you?’ she asked. 121. (1) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old – more than 100 years old! (2) I live in the house in the street countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old – more than 100 years old! (3) I live in a house in the street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old – more than 100 years old! (4) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and a house is old – more than 100 years old! 122. (1) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods to their own. (2) The teachers will be able to pay a visit to our schools and compare teaching methods for their own. (3) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods with their own. (4) The teachers will be able to visit our school and compare their teaching method with their own. 123. (1) Could you give me the amount that you filled out in the check which was sent? (2) Could you give me the amount what you filled out in the check you sent? (3) Could you give me the amount for which you filled out in the check you sent? (4) Could you give me the amount wherein you filled out in the check you sent? 124. (1) I have completed the work yesterday. (2) I did completed the work yesterday. (3) I have had completed the work yesterday. (4) I completed the work yesterday. 125. (1) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed with the truck. (2) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed into the truck. (3) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed against the truck. (4) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed before the truck. Directions for questions 126 to 130: Choose the correct synonymous word or description for each italicized word. The Jan Lokpal Bill, also referred to (126) as the citizens’ ombudsman bill, is a proposed independent (127) anti – corruption law in India. Anti – corruption social activists proposed it as a more effective improvement on the original Lokpal Bill, which is currently being proposed by the government of India. The Jan Lokpal Bill aims to effectively deter (128) corruption, redress grievances (129) of citizens, and protect whistle – blowers. If made into law, the bill would create an independent ombudsman (130) body called the Lokpal. It would be empowered to register and investigate complaints of corruption against politicians and bureaucrats without prior government approval. (Source: Wikipedia) 126. (1) described as (2) included in (3) supported for (4) reformed as 127. (1) self – centered (2) impartial (3) self – seeking (4) self - possessed 128. (1) swell (2) prevent (3) propel (4) lucubrate 129. (1) complaints (2) dishonesty (3) committees (4) opinions 130. (1) a government appointee who investigates complaints by private persons against bureaucrats and/or politicians. (2) a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against common citizens. (3) a government appointee who investigates complaints by citizens against citizens. (4) a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against government officials. Directions for questions 131 to 134: In the following sentences, one word or a phrase is used wrongly. Choose the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too. 131. The committee came to a decision to discuss in detail about assorted problems that people have been facing for a long time. (1) came to (2) to discuss (3) about (4) a long time 132. I know you must not see eye to eye with the philosophy of Ramkrishna but you must admit that he had had tremendous influence over a great many followers. (1) see eye to eye (2) had had (3) influence over (4) no error 133. The Principal inquired with the students if they would like their teacher to repeat the lesson again. (1) inquired with (2) to repeat (3) again (4) no error 134. One of the security guards rushed forward; unlocked the gate and asked whether I had anything objectionable. (1) security guards (2) forward (3) objectionable (4) no error Directions for questions 135 and 136: Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R and S) to make meaningful sentences. 135. I always told them ………………….. and consideration for me. P. How for me she Q. Always exuded warmth R. Was like a family’s S. Elder and how she has (1) PRSQ (2) PQSR (3) PRQS (4) SQPR 136. A year or …………………….. foreign languages P. I picked up a liking for learning Q. the largest urban area and primary R. so after leaving Bangkok S. city of Thailand and a place of unique beauty (1) RPQS (2) RQSP (3) RSPQ (4) SPQR Directions for questions 137 to 139: Choose the correct option. 137. This book ………………… five sections (1) comprises of (2) comprises (3) consists (4) comprises to 138. My grandfather left most of his money to an NGO; the rest went directly to my daughter and …………….. (1) I (2) me (3) myself (4) myself too 139. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s banks (1) Isthumus (2) Archipelago (3) Hinterland (4) Swamps Directions for questions 140 and 141: In the questions below, the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive /Active voice 140. Who is creating this mess? (1) Who has been created this mess? (2) By whom has this mess been created? (3) By whom this mess is being created? (4) By whom is this mess being created? 141. You should open the wine about three hours before you use it. (1) Wine should be opened about three hours before use. (2) Wine should be opened by you three hours before use. (3) Wine should be opened about three hours before you use it. (4) Wine should be opened about three hours before it is used. Direction for question 142: In the questions below, the passage consist of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given. (S1, S6) The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. S1: Metals are today being replaced by polymers in many applications. P: Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process making them a viable alternative to metals. Q: Polymers are essentially a long chains of hydrocarbons molecules. R: Today polymers as strong as metals have been developed. S: These have replaced the traditional chromium – plated metallic bumpers in cars. S6: Many Indian Institutes of Science and Technology run special programmes on polymer science. The proper sequence should be: 142. (1) QRSP (2) RSQP (3) RQSP (4) QRPS Directions for questions 143 and 144: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 143. FRUGALITY (1) Foolishness (2) Extremity (3) Enthusiasm (4) Economy 144. HARBINGER (1) Massenger (2) Steward (3) Forerunner (4) Pilot Directions for questions 145 and 146: Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words. 145. EXODUS (1) Influx (2) Home - coming (3) Return (4) Restoration 146. EQUANIMITY (1) Resentment (2) Dubiousness (3) Duplicity (4) Excitement Direction for question 147: Find the Odd one out from the group of words. 147. (1) Bludgeon (2) Dragon (3) Black Jack (4) Order Direction for question 148: Each pair of capitalized words given is followed by four pair of words. Select the pair that DOES NOT expresses a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair. 148. KERNAL : SHELL (1) Caterpillar : Pupa (2) Larva : Cacoon (3) Lassitude : Syncope (4) Passenger : Car 149. Both of them ……………. since their childhood. (1) are working here (2) work here (3) have been working (4) are liking to work 150. Although initial investigations pointed towards him ………………… (1) the preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime. (2) the additional information confirmed his guilt (3) the subsequent events established that he was guilty (4) the subsequent events proved that he was innocent ANSWER KEY Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. 1 4 26 1 51 3 76 3 101 2 126 1 2 1 27 3 52 4 77 2 102 2 127 2 3 4 28 2 53 3 78 3 103 4 128 2 4 2 29 1 54 4 79 3 104 1 129 1 5 2 30 1 55 1 80 2 105 4 130 1 6 2 31 2 56 4 81 1 106 1 131 3 7 1 32 4 57 3 82 3 107 2 132 2 8 1 33 2 58 4 83 2 108 4 133 3 9 1 34 1 59 1 84 1 109 4 134 4 10 4 35 3 60 1 85 2 110 4 135 1 11 3 36 1 61 3 86 3 111 4 136 2 12 4 37 1 62 4 87 1 112 3 137 2 13 1 38 4 63 3 88 4 113 4 138 2 14 1 39 2 64 4 89 2 114 4 139 3 15 4 40 4 65 4 90 3 115 4 140 4 16 4 41 3 66 3 91 2 116 4 141 4 17 4 42 3 67 3 92 3 117 1 142 1 18 2 43 4 68 4 93 2 118 4 143 4 19 1 44 3 69 3 94 2 119 3 144 3 20 1 45 4 70 4 95 4 120 4 145 1 21 3 46 4 71 2 96 1 121 1 146 4 22 3 47 1 72 2 97 1 122 3 147 4 23 3 48 2 73 2 98 3 123 1 148 4 24 2 49 2 74 2 99 1 124 4 149 3 25 4 50 3 75 3 100 3 125 2 150 4 Contact Details: Symbiosis International University Lavale,Mulshi, Pune, Maharashtra 412115, 020 3911 6200 India Map Location:
__________________ Answered By StudyChaCha Member |
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May 3rd, 2014, 01:27 PM
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| SNAP Exam Model Question Papers
Here I am looking for the Model Question Papers of SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test) Exam, Can you please provide me the same??
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#5
May 5th, 2014, 04:22 PM
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| Re: SNAP Exam Model Question Papers
As per your request here I am sharing the Model Question Papers of SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test) Exam DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 5: In each of the questions, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to standard English usage. 1. A. We are forced to fall back on fatalism as an explanation of irrational events. B. We are forced to falling back on the fatalism as an explanation of irrational events. C. We are forced to fall back on fatalism as explanations of irrational events. D. We are forced to fall back to fatalism as an explanation of irrational events. [1] A [2] B [3] C [4] D 2. A. Creativity in any field is regarded not only as valuable for itself but also as a service to the nation. B. Creativity in any field is not regarded only as valuable on its own, but also as a service to the nation. C. Creativity, in any field, is not only regarded as valuable, but also as a service to the nation. [3] D. Creativity in any field is regarded not only as valuable in itself but also as a service to the nation. [1] A [2] B [3] C [4] D 3. A. The running of large businesses consist of getting somebody to make something that somebody else sold to somebody else for more than its cost. B. The running of a large business consists of getting somebody to make something that somebody else will sell to somebody else for more than it costs. C. The running of a large business consists of getting somebody to sell something that somebody else made for more than it cost. D. The running of large businesses consist of getting somebody to make something else that somebody else will sell to somebody else for more than it costs. [1] A [2] B [3] C [4] D 4. A. From the sixteenth century onwards, people started feeling disdainful and self-conscious about their body and its products that led to a heightened focus on emotional and bodily regulations. B. The heightened focus on controlling the body and emotions comes from disdain and self-consciousness about the body and its products, found in the sixteenth century. C. From the sixteenth century onwards, a growing disdain for and self-consciousness about the body and its products took hold, leading to a heightened focus on emotional and bodily regulation. D. The heightened focus on emotional and bodily regulations started from the sixteenth century onwards, when people felt disdain and self-consciousness about the body and its products. [1] A [2] B [3] C [4] D 5. A. If precision of thought had facilitated precision of behaviour, and if reflection had preceded action, it would be ideal for humans. B. It would be ideal for humans if reflection preceded action and precision of thought facilitated precision of behaviour. C. It would be ideal for humans if precedence of reflection was followed by action and precision of thought, by precise behaviour. D. It would have been ideal for humans, if precise action and behaviour preceded precisereflection. [1] A [2] B [3] C [4] D Directions for Questions 6 to 10: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. 6. Bundle 7. Host 12. A. I am much more intolerant of a human being’s sho rtcomings than I am of an animal’s, but in this respect I have been lucky, for most of the people I have come across have been charming. B. Then you come across the unpleasant human animal – the District Officer who drawled, ‘We chaps are here to help you chaps,’ and then proceeded to be as obstructive as possible. C. In these cases of course, the fact that you are an animal collector helps; people always seem delighted to meet someone with such an unusual occupation and go out of their way to assist you. D. Fortunately, these types are rare, and the pleasant ones I have met more than compensated for them – but even so, I think I will stick to animals. E. When you travel round the world collecting animals you also, of necessity, collect human beings. [1] EACBD [2] ABDCE [3] ECBDA [4] ACBDE 13. A. Four days later, Oracle announced its own bid for PeopleSoft, and invited the firm's board to a discussion. B. Furious that his own plans had been endangered, PeopleSoft's boss, Craig Conway, called Oracle's offer "diabolical", and its boss, Larry Ellison, a “sociopath". C. In early June, PeopleSoft said that it would buy J .D. Edwards, a smaller rival. D. Moreover, said Mr. Conway, he “could imagine no price nor combination of price and other conditions to recommend accepting the offer." E. On June 12th, PeopleSoft turned Oracle down. [1] CABDE[2] CADBE [3] CEDAB [4] CAEBD 14. A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are going to be running our country in a few decades are like. B. I would go to sleep in my hotel room around midnight each night, and when I awoke, my mailbox would be full of replies—sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m. C. One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at seven; she could afford that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full day of work by studying in her sleep. D. Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them e-mails, inviting them out to lunch or dinner in small groups. E. As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or a paper topic to herself; she would then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be solved. [1] DABCE[2] DACEB [3] ADBCE [4] AECBD 15. A. To avoid this, the QWERTY layout put the keys most likely to be hit in rapid succession on opposite sides. This made the keyboard slow, the story goes, but that was the idea. B. A different layout, which had been patented by August Dvorak in 1936, was shown to be much faster. C. The QWERTY design (patented by Christopher Sholes in 1868 and sold to Remington in 1873) aimed to solve a mechanical problem of early typewriters. D. Yet the Dvorak layout has never been widely adopted, even though (with electric typewriters and then PCs) the anti-jamming rationale for QWERTY has been defunct for years. E. When certain combinations of keys were struck quickly, the type bars often jammed. [1] BDACE[2] CEABD [3] BCDEA [4] CAEBD DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20: There are two gaps in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately. The first word in the pair should fill the first gap. 16. Early _____ of maladjustment to college culture is _____ by the tendency to develop friendship networks outside college which mask signals of maladjustment. [1] treatment, compounded [2] detection, facilitated [3] identification, complicated [4] prevention, helped 17. The British retailer, M&S, today formally _____ defeat in its attempt to _____ King's, its US subsidiary, since no potential purchasers were ready to cough up the necessary cash. [1] admitted, acquire [2] conceded, offload [3] announced, dispose [4] ratified, auction 18. Companies that try to improve employees' performance by _____ rewards encourage negative kinds of behaviour instead of _____ a genuine interest in doing the work well. [1] giving, seeking [2] bestowing, discouraging [3] conferring, discrediting [4] withholding, fostering 19. A growing number of these expert professionals ________ having to train foreigners as the students end up _____ the teachers who have to then unhappily contend with no jobs at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay packets. [1] resent, replacing [2] resist, challenging [3] welcome, assisting [4] are, supplanting 20. The _____ regions of Spain all have unique cultures, but the _____ views within each region make the issue of an acceptable common language of instruction an even more contentious one. [1] different, discrete [2] distinct, disparate [3] divergent, distinct [4] different, competing DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25: The poem given below is followed by five questions. Choose the best answer to each question. As you set out for Ithaka hope the journey is a long one, full of adventure, full of discovery. Laistrygonians and Cyclops, angry Poseidon - don't be afraid of them: you'll never find things like that on your way as long as you keep your thoughts raised high, as long as a rare excitement stirs your spirit and your body. Laistrygonians and Cyclops, wild Poseidon - you won't encounter them unless you bring them along inside your soul, unless your soul sets them up in front of you. Hope the voyage is a long one, may there be many a summer morning when, with what pleasure, what joy, you come into harbours seen for the first time; may you stop at Phoenician trading stations to buy fine things, mother of pearl and coral, amber and ebony, sensual perfume of every kind - as many sensual perfumes as you can; and may you visit many Egyptian cities to gather stores of knowledge from their scholars. Keep Ithaka always in your mind. Arriving there is what you are destined for. But do not hurry the journey at all. Better if it lasts for years, so you are old by the time you reach the island, wealthy with all you have gained on the way, not expecting Ithaka to make you rich. Ithaka gave you the marvellous journey, without her you would not have set out. She has nothing left to give you now. And if you find her poor, Ithaka won't have fooled you. Wise as you will have become, so full of experience, you will have understood by then what these Ithakas mean. 21. Which of the following best reflects the central theme of this poem? [1] If you don't have high expectations, you will not be disappointed. [2] Don't rush to your goal; the journey is what enriches you. [3] The longer the journey the greater the experiences you gather. [4] You cannot reach Ithaka without visiting Egyptian ports. 22. The poet recommends a long journey. Which of the following is the most comprehensive reason for it? [1] You can gain knowledge as well as sensual experience. [2] You can visit new cities and harbours. [3] You can experience the full range of sensuality. [4] You can buy a variety of fine things. 23. In the poem, Ithaka is a symbol of [1] the divine mother. [2] your inner self. [3] the path to wisdom. [4] life's distant goal. 24. What does the poet mean by 'Laistrygonians' and 'Cyclops'? [1] Creatures which, along with Poseidon, one finds during a journey. [2] Mythological characters that one should not be afraid of. [3] Intra-personal obstacles that hinder one’ s journey. [4] Problems that one has to face to derive the most from one's journey. 25. Which of the following best reflects the tone of the poem? [1] Prescribing. [2] Exhorting. [3] Pleading. [4] Consoling. DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 50: Each of the five passages given below is followed by five questions. Choose the best answer to each question. PASSAGE I The controversy over genetically-modified food continues unabated in the West. Genetic modification (GM) is the science by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, perhaps to make it more resistant to pests or killer weeds, or to enhance its nutritional value. Many food biotechnologists claim that GM will be a major contribution of science to mankind in the 21st century. On the other hand, large numbers of opponents, mainly in Europe, claim that the benefits of GM are a myth propagated by multinational corporations to increase their profits, that they pose a health hazard, and have therefore called for governments to ban the sale of genetically-modified food. The anti-GM campaign has been quite effective in Europe, with several European Union member countries imposing a virtual ban for five years over genetically -modified food imports. Since the genetically modified food industry is particularly strong in the United States of America, the controversy also constitutes another chapter in the US-Europe skirmishes which have become particularly acerbic after the US invasion of Iraq. To a large extent, the GM controversy has been ignored in the Indian media, although Indian biotechnologists have been quite active in GM research. Several groups of Indian biotechnologists have been working on various issues connected with crops grown in India. One concrete achievement which has recently figured in the news is that of a team led by the former vice-chancellor of Jawaharlal Nehru University, Asis Datta—it has successfully added an extra gene to potatoes to enhance the protein content of the tuber by at least 30 percent. Not surprisingly, the new potato has been called the protato. The protato is now in its third year of field trials. It is quite likely that the GM controversy will soon hit the headlines in India since a spokesperson of the Indian Central government has recently announced that the government may use the protato in its midday meal programme for schools as early as next year. Why should "scientific progress", with huge potential benefits to the poor and malnourished, be so controversial? The anti-GM lobby contends that pernicious propaganda has vastly exaggerated the benefits of GM and completely evaded the costs which will have to be incurred if the genetically-modified food industry is allowed to grow unchecked. In particular, they allude to different types of costs. This group contends that the most important potential cost is that the widespread distribution and growth of genetically-modified food will enable the corporate world (alias the multinational corporations—MNCs) to completely capture the food chain. A "small" group of biotech companies will patent the transferred genes as well as the technology associated with them. They will then buy up the competing seed merchants and seed-breeding centres, thereby controlling the production of food at every possible level. Independent farmers, big and small, will be completely wiped out of the food industry. At best, they will be reduced to the status of being subcontractors. This line of argument goes on to claim that the control of the food chain will be disastrous for the poor since the MNCs, guided by the profit motive, will only focus on the high-value food items demanded by the affluent. Thus, in the long run, the production of basic staples which constitute the food basket of the poor will taper off. However, this vastly overestimates the power of the MNCs. Even if the research promoted by them does focus on the high-value food items, much of biotechnology research is also funded by governments in both developing and developed countries. Indeed, the protato is a by-product of this type of research. If the protato passes the field trials, there is no reason to believe that it cannot be marketed in the global potato market. And this type of success story can be repeated with other basic food items. The second type of cost associated with the genetically-modified food industry is environmental damage. The most common type of "genetic engineering" involves gene modification in plants designed to make them resistant to applications of weed-killers. This then enables farmers to use massive dosages of weed-killers so as to destroy or wipe out all competing varieties of plants in their fields. However, some weeds through genetically-modified pollen contamination may acquire resistance to a variety of weed-killers. The only way to destroy these weeds is through the use of ever-stronger herbicides which are poisonous and linger on in the environment. 26. The author doubts the anti-GM lobby's contention that MNC control of the food chain will be disastrous for the poor because [1] MNCs will focus on high-value food items. [2] MNCs are driven by the motive of profit maximization. [3] MNCs are not the only group of actors in genetically-modified food research. [4] economic development will help the poor buy MNC-produced food. 27. Using the clues in the passage, which of the following countries would you expect to be in the forefront of the anti-GM campaign? [1] USA and Spain. [2] India and Iraq. [3] Germany and France. [4] Australia and New Zealand. 28. Genetic modification makes plants more resistant to killer weeds. However, this can lead to environmental damage by [1] wiping out competing varieties of plants which now fall prey to killer weeds. [2] forcing application of stronger herbicides to kill weeds which have become resistant to weak herbicides. [3] forcing application of stronger herbicides to keep the competing plants weed-free. [4] not allowing growth of any weeds, thus reducing soil fertility. 29. Which of the following about the Indian media's coverage of scientific research does the passage seem to suggest? [1] Indian media generally covers a subject of scientific importance when its mass application is likely. [2] Indian media's coverage of scientific research is generally dependent on MNCs' interests. [3] Indian media, in partnership with the government, is actively involved in publicizing the results of scientific research. [4] Indian media only highlights scientific research which is funded by the government. 30. According to the passage, biotechnology research [1] is of utility only for high value food items. [2] is funded only by multinational corporations. [3] allows multinational corporations to control the food basket of the poor. [4] is funded mainly by the government of both the rich and poor countries. PASSAGE II Social life is an outflow and meeting of personality, which means that its end is the meeting of temperament, and sensibility, in which our thoughts and feelings, and sense perceptions are brought into their lightest and yet keenest. This aspect, to my thinking, is realized as much in large parties composed of casual acquaintances strangers, as in intimate meetings of old friends. I am not one of those superior persons who hold cocktail in contempt, looking upon them as barren or at best as very tryingly kaleidoscopic places for gathering, of the strangers one has to meet in them; which is no argument, for even our most intimate friends must at one time have been strangers to us. These large gatherings will be only what we make of them—if not better, they can be as good places to collect new friends from as the slave-markets of Istanbul were for slaves or New Market for race horses. But they do offer more immediate enjoyment. For one thing, in them one can see the external expression life in appearance and behaviour at its widest and most varied—where one can admire beauty of body or voices remarkable either for sweetness or refinement, look on elegance of clothes or deportment. What these parties are schools for training in sociability, for in them we have to treat strangers as friends. So, in them we see social sympathy in widest commonalty spread, or at least should. We show an atrophy of the natural human instinct of getting pleasure and happiness out of other human beings if we cannot treat strangers for the moment. And I would go further and paraphrase Pater to say that not to be able to discriminate every moment some passionate attitude in those about us, even when we meet them casually, is on this short day of frost and sun which our life is, to sleep before evening. So, it will be seen that my conception of social life is modest, for it makes no demands on what we have, thought it does make some on what we are. Interest, wonder, sympathy, and love, the first two leading to the last the psychological prerequisites for social life; and the need for the first two must not be underrated. We make the most even of our intimate social life unless we are able to make strangers of our oldest friends by discovering unknown areas in their personality, and transform them into new friends. In sum, social life is a function of vitality. It is tragic, however, to observe that it is these very natural springs of social life which are drying up among us. It is becoming more and more difficult to come across fellow-feeling for human beings as such in our society – and in all its strata. In the poor middle class, in the course of all my life, I have hardly seen any social life so-called. Not only has the grinding routine of making a living killed all desire for it in them, it generated a standing mood of peevish hostility to other human beings. Increasing economic distress in recent years has infinitely worsened this state of affairs, and has also brought a sinister addition—class hatred, become the greatest collective emotional enjoyment of the poor middle class, and indeed they feel more when they form a pack, and snarl or howl at people who are better off than they. Their most innocent exhibition of sociability is seen when they spill out from their intolerable homes streets and bazaars. I was astonished to see the milling crowds in the poor suburbs of Calcutta. But even there a group of flippant young loafers would put on a conspiratorial look if they saw a man in good clothes pass them either on foot or in a car. I had borrowed a car from a relative to visit a friend in one of these suburbs he became very anxious when I had not returned before dusk. Acid and bombs, he said, were thrown almost every evening in that area. I was amazed. But I also know as a fact that my brother was blackmailed to pay five rupees on a trumped up charge when passing in a car through one such locality. The situation is differently inhuman, but not a whit more human, among the well-to-do. Kindliness for fellow-human beings has been smothered in them, taken as a class, by the arrogance of worldly position, which among the Bengalis who show this snobbery is often only a third-class position. 31. The word 'they' in the first sentence of the third paragraph refers to [1] Large parties consisting of casual acquaintances and strangers. [2] Intimate meetings of old friends. [3] New friends. [4] Both l & 2. 32. The author's conception of 'social life' requires that [1] people attend large gatherings. [2] people possess qualities like wonder and interest. [3] people do not spend too much time in the company of intimate friends. [4] large parties consist of casual acquaintances and intimate friends. 33. In this passage the author is essentially [1] showing how shallow our social life is. [2] poking fun at the lower middle class people who howl at better off people. [3] lamenting the drying up of our real social life. [4] criticizing the upper class for lavish showy parties. 34. The word 'discriminate' in the last sentence of the third paragraph means [1] recognise. [2] count. [3] distinguish. [4] analyse. 35. What is the author trying to show through the two incidents in the paragraph beginning, "Their most innocent exhibition of sociability...?” [1] The crowds in poor Calcutta suburbs can turn violent without any provocation. [2] Although poor, the people of poor Calcutta suburbs have a rich social life. [3] It is risky for rich people to move around in poor suburbs. [4] Achieving a high degree of sociability does not stop the poor from hating the rich. Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
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#6
May 5th, 2014, 07:53 PM
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| SNAP previous year question papers
Can you please give me the previous year question papers of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test as I want to give this exam?
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#7
May 10th, 2014, 02:53 PM
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| Re: SNAP previous year question papers
As you want to get the previous year question papers of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test so here is the information of the same for you: Previous year question papers of Symbiosis National Aptitude Test     Contact Details: Symbiosis International University Viman Nagar Road, Clover Park, Viman Nagar, Pune, Maharashtra 411014 020 2663 4550 India Map Location:
__________________ Answered By StudyChaCha Member Last edited by Aakashd; July 30th, 2018 at 09:51 AM. |
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#8
May 23rd, 2014, 10:08 AM
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| SNAP Last Year question Papers
Will you please share the previous year question paper of SNAP Exam???
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#9
May 24th, 2014, 11:17 AM
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| Re: SNAP Last Year question Papers
Symbiosis National Aptitute Test (SNAP) examination is the procedure to get the Admission to Symbiosis institutes in MBA Management Professional Degree Courses Here is the previous year question paper of SNAP Exam Section I - General Awareness For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. 1. “Swayamsidha” is a scheme launched by the Government of India to help (1) School Children only (2) Health workers only (3) Senior citizen without any regular income (4) Women only 2. What is ‘Share swap’? A. A business takeover in which acquiring company uses its own stock to pay for the acquired company. B. When a company uses its own share to get some short term loan for working capital requirement C. When companies are require to float a new issue to earn capital for their expansion programmes, each shareholder gets some additional preferential share. The process is known as Share Swap. (1) Only A (2) Only A and B (3) Only C (4) None of the above 3. Regarding “carbon credits” which of the following statements is not correct? (1) The carbon credits system was ratified in conjunction with Kyoto Protocol (2) Carbon credits are awarded to those countries or groups who have reduced the green house gases below their emission quota (3) The goal of carbon credit system is to reduce carbon dioxide emission (4) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Environment Programme 4. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two? (1) FII helps bring better management skills and technology while FDI only bring capital (2) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors (3) FDI flows only into secondary markets while FII targets primary markets (4) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI 5. In context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? 1) It is a major classification of crude oil 2) It is sourced from North sea 3) It does not contain sulphur Which of the statement given above is /are correct? (1) 2 only (2) 1 and 2 only (3) 1 and 3 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 6. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India consider the following statements: 1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs. 2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold war. 3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 1 and 3 only (3) 3 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 7. Recently “oilzapper” was in news. What is it? (1) It is eco friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills (2) It is the latest technology developed under sea oil exploration (3) It is genetically engineered high biofuel – yielding maize variety (4) It is the latest technology to control accidentally caused flames from oil wells. 8. Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern? 1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub – prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future. 2. The teaser loans are given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 9. Why is the government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE)? 1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from disinvestment mainly to pay the External debt 2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of CPSEs Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 10. The book “Unto this Last” which influenced Gandhiji, was authored by (1) Boris Yeltsin (2) Pushkin (3) Ruskin Bond (4) John Ruskin 11. Besides USA, India has signed, with which of the following countries the agreement being named as “Cooperation Agreement on the development of Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy”? (1) Italy (2) Germany (3) France (4) Australia 12. Which of the following country is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? (1) Russia (2) USA (3) Italy (4) Iran 13. Many times we read in the newspaper that several companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise capital. What is the full form of FCCB? (1) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (2) Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds (3) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau (4) None of these 14. As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make plan to provide banking services in villages having population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories? (1) Plan for financial inclusion (2) Efforts to meet Priority sector lending (3) Extension of Internet and Branchless banking. (4) None of these 15. Which of the following is/ are treated as artificial currency? (1) ADR (2) GDR (3) Both ADR and GDR (4) SDR 16. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanisms used by commercial banks to provide credit to the Government? (1) Cash Credit Ratio (2) Debit Service Obligation (3) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 17. Who among the following was not part of the drafting committee of the Lokpal Bill? (1) Salman Khurshid (2) Anna Hazare (3) Arvind Kejriwal (4) Kiran Bedi 18. Criminal procedure is a subject of which of the following lists? (1) State List (2) Concurrent List (3) Union List (4) Both 1 and 3 19. One of the world’s biggest Uranium resources was recently found in (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Jharkhand (4) Uttarakhand 20. Which of the following was the first venture of Kishore Biyani (1) Pantaloons (2) Big Bazaar (3) Central (4) Future Capital Holdings 21. Who among the following is often referred to as father of India’s “Green Revolution”? (1) Dr. Verghese Kurien (2) Dr. Amrita Patel (3) M. S. Swaminathan (4) Gurudev Khush 22. Who among the following directed the movie Peepli Live? (1) Ashutosh Gowarikar (2) Kiran Rao (3) Anusha Rizvi (4) Seema Chisti 23. The point at which soild, liquid and gaseous forms of a substance co – exist is called (1) sublimation (2) distillation point (3) triple point (4) melting point 24. The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal collapse is called the (1) Raman Effect (2) Chandrashekhar limit (3) Aurora Borealis (4) Quasan Zone 25. UNDP reports publishes every year the Human Development Index. Which of the following is not a criteria used to measure the Human Development Index? (1) Health (2) Education (3) Living Standards (4) Human Rights 26. The software company I – flex Solutions was originally a division of which famous financial services company? (1) Citicorp (2) ICICI (3) HSBC (4) ABN Amro Bank 27. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC? (1) Bhutan (2) Bangladesh (3) Burma (4) Maldives 28. Which article of the Indian constitution recognizes Hindi in Devanagari Script as the official language of India? (1) Art 345 (2) Art 343 (3) Art 348 (4) Art 334 29. India has finally woken up to the needs of the country’s elderly. With the number of people in the 60 – plus age group in India expected to increase to 100 million in 2013 and to 198 million in 2030, the health ministry is all set to roll out the (1) National Programme for Health care of the Elderly (2) National Programme for Senior Citizens (3) National Programme for Old Aged (4) Rashtriya Vriddha Swasthya Yojana 30. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Non – resident Indians (NRIs) can now cast votes in their home constituencies in India. 2. The NRI can cast his vote by postal balloting. (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 31. In a landmark move, which of these State governments has set up a Savarna Aayog, a commission to identify the deprived and underprivileged families among upper castes? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan 32. Which of these countries has announced one billion US dollar aid for the reconstruction of Nalanda University? (1) Japan (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) China 33. What is the name of the in - house magazine to be published by the Indian Railways, to be distributed to the passengers on high end trains? (1) Rail Vishwa (2) Rail Bandhu (3) Rail Mail (4) Rail Patra 34. The government, in February 2011, set up a task force to create a way to provide direct subsidies to the ultimate beneficiaries on petroleum working gas and fertilizers. The task force will be headed by - (1) Nandan Nilekani (2) Apoorva Sinha (3) Sangam Chitra (4) All of these 35. Which of these countries has been added in the ‘BRIC’ (Brazil – Russia – India – China) groupin of emerging economies? (1) South Korea (2) Venezuela (3) South Africa (4) Malaysia 36. Which of the following countries was the host of First Asian Yoga Championship held recently? (1) Thailand (2) Cambodia (3) Vietnam (4) Laos 37. Who among the following has been defeated by Saina Nehwal, who has won the Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold title recently, becoming the First Indian to do so? (1) Ji Hyun Sung (2) Wang Lin (3) Kamilla Rytter Juhl (4) Shinta Mulia Sari 38. On March 6, 2011, the Supreme Court held that has ample powers to enact legislation with respect to extra – territorial aspects for the security of India? (1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Supreme Court (4) Parliament 39. Which country has appointed Brigadier General Ravinder Singh as its next Army chief, the first Sikh in nearly 30 years to be given the force’s batton (1) Thailand (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) Indonesia 40. Anant Pai, better known as ‘Uncle Pai’, who recently died was the creator of which among the following comic series? (1) Chacha Chaudhary (2) Chandamama (3) Indrajaal (4) Amar Chitra Katha Section II – Analytical & Logical Reasoning For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 2 mark each. Directions for questions 41 and 42: Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these statements. Choose the subset as your answer where the statements therein are logically consistent among themselves: 41. A. Only if the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the people change their lifestyle. B. People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded. C. If people are rewarded, then they will not change their lifestyle. D. If the temperature rises, then the water level in the coastal areas rises. E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then the temperature rises. F. Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises. G. People are rewarded. H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise. (1) C, D, F, G and H (2) G, F, D, B and H (3) E, F, G, H and B (4) None of the above 42. A. If Kumar sings, then the audiences sleep. B. If Kumar sings, then the audiences dance. C. Unless audience do not dance, the concert will be successful. D. Only if the audience dance, the concert will be successful. E. If Vina dances, then Kumar sings. F. Kumar sings only if Vina dances. G. Vina dances H. The concert is successful. (1) C, F, G, B and H (2) A, C, F, G and H (3) E, C, G, B and H (4) Both (2) and (3) Directions for questions 43 to 45: These questions are based on the data given below. There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C and D and there is only one couple among them. When asked about their relationships, following were their replies: a. A: B is my son. D is my mother. b. B: C is my wife. Dis my father. c. C: D is my mother – in – law. A is my daughter. d. D: A is my grand – daughter. B is my daughter – in – law. 43. Who always speaks the truth? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 44. How is B related to C? (1) Father (2) Mother (3) Wife (4) Husband 45. Which of the following statements must be true? (1) A’s grandmother alternates between the truth and lie. (2) C’s wife always speaks the truth. (3) A’s grandfather always speaks the truth. (4) B’s daughter always tells lies. Directions for questions 46 to 48: These questions are based on the following information. A cube of 7cm × 7cm × 7cm is kept in the corner of a room and painted in three different colours, each face in one colour. The cube is cut into 343 smaller but identical cubes. 46. How many smaller cubes do not have any face painted? (1) 125 (2) 180 (3) 144 (4) 216 47. How many smaller cubes have exactly one colour on them? (1) 108 (2) 72 (3) 36 (4) 24 48. How many smaller cubes have at the most two faces painted? (1) 343 (2) 342 (3) 256 (4) 282 Directions for questions 49 and 50: Amit was driving in New Town, where all roads either north – south or east – west forming a grid. Roads were at a distance of 1 km from each other in parallel. 49. Amit started at the intersection of streets no. 7 and 8. He drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point? I. 3 km east, then 2 km south II. 1 km north, then 3 km east III. 1 km north, then 2 km west (1) I only (2) II only (3) ! and II only (4) II and III only 50. After driving as stated in question no. 49 above, Amit did not return to his starting point, but instead drove 4 km east and 1 km north. How far is he from his starting point? (1) 5 km (2) 4 km (3) 1 km (4) 7 km Directions for questions 51 to 55: Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow: A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y. Then it updates these values as X = XY and Y = Y + 1 in every step. The machine stops at X ≥ N. 51. For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are performed before the machine stops? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 52. In the above question (51), what is the final value of X? (1) 6 (2) 20 (3) 72 (4) 360 53. In the above question (51), what is the final value of Y? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 20 54. If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be the final value of X? (1) 360 (2) 500 (3) 560 (4) 2160 55. If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum value of N such that final value of Y is 7? (1) 300 (2) 360 (3) 720 (4) 860 Directions for questions 56 to 60: Refer to the following statements and answer the questions: Seven students Priya, Ankit, Raman, Sunil, Tony, Deepak and Vicky take a series of tests. No two students get similar marks. Vicky always scores more than Priya. Priya always scores more than Ankit. Each time either Raman scores the highest and Tony gets the least, or alternatively Sunil scores the highest and Deepak or Ankit scores the least. 56. If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true? (1) Vicky is ranked first or fourth (2) Raman is ranked second or third (3) Tony is ranked fourth or fifth (4) Deepak is ranked third or fourth 57. If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked not lower than: (1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth 58. If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked first, which of the following must be true? (1) Sunil is ranked third (2) Tony is ranked third (3) Priya is ranked sixth (4) None of these. 59. If Sunil is ranked second, which of the following can be true? (1) Deepak gets more than Vicky (2) Vicky gets more than Sunil (3) Priya gets more than Raman (4) Priya gets more than Vicky 60. If Vicky is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true? (1) Sunil scores the highest (2) Raman is ranked second (3) Tony is ranked third (4) Ankit is ranked second 61. In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the voters had leaning towards party “Y”. In 2004, this figure rose to 46%. But in another survey the percentage was down to 40%. Therefore, the party “Z” is likely to win the next election. Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the above conclusion? (1) People tend to switch their votes at the last minute. (2) It has been showed that 85% of the voters belonging to the party “Y” vote in an election as compared to 80% of the voters belonging to party ”Z”. (3) 35% of people favour party “Z”. (4) No one can predict how people will vote. 62. Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by 4% during the first quarter and higher than 3% recorded during the same time last year. However, the higher price index did not seem to alarm National stock Index as stock prices remain steady. Which of the following, if true, could explain the reaction of National stock Index? (1) RBI announced that it will take necessary corrective measures (2) Stock prices were steady because of a fear that inflation would continue. (3) Economists warned that inflation would continue. (4) Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due to a summer drought effect on food price. Direction for question 63: Pick up the appropriate analogy. 63. Birth : Dirge (1) Sunset : sunrise (2) security check : arrival (3) marriage : alimony (4) welcome address : vote of thanks 64. Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just look at this city’s beautiful beaches, which are among the most overcrowded beaches in the state. Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one exhibited in the argument above? (1) Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking hole at the same time of day. Therefore, moose and bear must grow thirsty at about the same time. (2) Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave more often than other children. Hence if a child is not scolded severely that child is less likely to misbehave. (3) This software programme helps increase the work efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more free time for other activities. (4) During weather my dog suffers from fleas more than during cooler weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a warm environment. 65. No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but remain unreported. On the other hand, at least some industries that are run entirely by self – employed industrialists are included in national productivity measures. From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that (1) there are at least some industries run entirely by self – employed industrialists that are underground industries (2) no industries that are run entirely by self – employed industrialists operate underground. (3) there are at least some industries other than those run entirely by self – employed industrialists that are underground industries. (4) there are at least some industries run entirely by self – employed industrialists that are not underground industries 66. Nilu has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during her 16 – year flying career. Nilu must be a great pilot. Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above? (1) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity (2) The argument uses circular reasoning (3) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions (4) The argument works by analogy 67. Many people argue that the death penalty deters murder. However, the notorious killer Tom Hanks deliberately moved to a state that imposes the death penalty just before embarking on a series of ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear that the existence of the death penalty does not serve as a deterrent to murder. The argument above may best be characterized as: (1) an appeal to emotion. (2) a flawed analogy. (3) a general conclusion based on a specific example. (4) circular reasoning. 68. What number should replace the question mark? (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 12 (4) 6 69. The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions. If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true? (1) Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they do not have to specify fee arrangements in the advertisements. (2) More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services. (3) If the restrictions against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will advertise their services. (4) If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also charge less than they currently charge for those services. 4 3 2 5 1 1 5 3 3 3 1 2 8 6 1 8 4 3 7 2 9 ? 3 70. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument concerning overall consumer legal costs? (1) The state is unlikely to remove all of the restrictions that apply solely to the advertising of legal services. (2) Lawyers who do not advertise generally provide legal services of the same quality as those provided by lawyers who do advertise. (3) Most lawyers who now specify fee arrangements in their advertisements would continue to do so even in the specification were not required. (4) Most lawyers who advertise specific services do not lower their fees for those services when they begin to advertise. Section III – Quantitative For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. 71. A train travelling at 36 kmph crosses a platform in 20 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 10 seconds. What is the length of the platform in meters? (1) 240 meters (2) 100 meters (3) 200 meters (4) 300 meters 72. By walking at 4/5th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 10 minutes later than usual. What is his usual time? (1) 20 min (2) 40 min (3) 30 min (4) 50 min 73. A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each other, start travelling towards each other at the same time. If the man covers 5 miles per hour to the women’s 4 mile per hour, how far will the woman have travelled when they meet? (1) 27 (2) 36 (3) 45 (4) None of these 74. Two people were walking in opposite directions. Both of them walked 6 miles forward then took right and walked 8 miles. How far is each from starting positions? (1) 14 miles and 14 miles (2) 10 miles and 10 miles (3) 6 miles and 6 miles (4) 12 miles and 12 miles 75. Four men and three women can do a job in 6 days. When 5 men and 6 women work on the same job, the work gets completed in 4 days. How long will 2 women and 3 men take to do the job? (1) 18 (2) 10 (3) 8.3 (4) 12 76. Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then takes the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is. In how many more days will they complete the work? 77. A and B can do a piece of work in 21 and 24 days respectively. They start the work together and after some days A leaves the work and B completes the remaining work in 9 days. After how many days did A leave? (1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6 78. A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price of 75 articles when he sold 100 of the articles. What % profit did he make in the transaction? (1) 33.33% (2) 75% (3) 300% (4) 150% 79. In a 100 M race, if A gives B a start of 20 meters, then A wins the race by 5 seconds. Alternatively, if A gives B a start of 40 meters the race ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 M? (1) 10 seconds (2) 20 seconds (3) 30 seconds (4) 40 seconds 80. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area after such cutting? (1) 4% (2) 300% (3) 75% (4) 400% 81. A number G236G0 can be divided by 36 if G is: (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) More than one values are possible. 82. Amit can do a work in 12 days and Sagar in 15 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is: (1) 3/20 (2) 3/5 (3) 2/5 (4) 2/20 83. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road? (1) 2.91 m (2) 3 m (3) 5.82 m (4) None of these 84. A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls; another bag contains 4 white and 5 black balls. From any one of these bags a single draw of two balls is made. Find the probability that one of them would be white and other black ball. (1) 275/504 (2) 5/18 (3) 5/9 (4) None of these Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following bar graph gives the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country A, for the five years from 2006 to 2010. Consumption = Production – Exports Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption) ÷ (Population) 85. In which year was the percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year, the highest? (1) 2007 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2010 86. What is the population of country A in the year 2008 (in million)? (1) 2.64 million (2) 2.72 million (3) 2.79 million (4) 2.85 million 0 50 100 150 200 250 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 Production(in million kg) Exports (in million kg) Per capita(in kg) 87. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year (1) 2006 (2) 2007 (3) 2008 (4) 2009 88. In which of the given years was the population of country A, the highest? (1) 2007 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2010 Directions for questions 89 to 93: The following pie chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major activities of a student. 89. The percentage of time which he spends in school is: (1) 38% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 25% 90. How much time (in per cent) does he spend in games in comparison to sleeping? (1) 30% (2) 40% (3) 25% (4) None of these 91. If he spends the time in games equal to the home work and remains constant in other activities, then the percentage decrease in time of sleeping: (1) 15% (2) 12.5% (3) 20% (4) None of these 92. What is the difference in time (in hours) spent in school and in home work? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 8 93. If he spends 1/3rd time of homework in Mathematics then the number of hours he spends in rest of the subjects in home work: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 94. Three parallel lines are cut by two transversals as shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm and DE = 1.5 cm, then the length of EF is: (1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 3.5 cm (4) 4 cm 95. log10 10 + log10102 + …….. + log1010n (1) n2 + 1 (2) n2 – 1 96. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is: Home work 45° School 105° Others 60° Sleeping 120° Games 30° 97. The total number of Natural numbers that lie between 10 and 300 and are divisible by 9 is (1) 32 (2) 30 (3) 33 (4) 34 98. If nCx = 56 and nPx = 336, find n and x. (1) 7, 3 (2) 8, 4 (3) 8, 3 (4) 9, 6 99. One side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. The midpoints of its sides are joined to form another triangle whose midpoints are in turn joined to form still another triangle. This process continues indefinitely. Find the sum of the perimeters of all the triangles. (1) 144 cm (2) 72 cm (3) 536 cm (4) 676 cm 100. The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays, is: (1) 17/53 (2) 1/53 (3) 3/7 (4) None of these 101. Find the intercepts made by the line 3x + 4y – 12 = 0 on the axes: (1) 2 and 3 (2) 4 and 3 (3) 3 and 5 (4) None of these 102. The average of 4 distinct prime numbers a, b, c, d is 35, where a < b < c < d. a and d are equidistant from 36 and b and c are equidistant from 34 and a, b are equidistant from 30 and c and d are equidistant from 40. The difference between a and d is: (1) 30 (2) 14 (3) 21 (4) Cannot be determined 103. Ramsukh bhai sells rasgulla(a favourite Indian sweets) at Rs. 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made up of flour and sugar in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of price of sugar and flour is 7 : 3 (per kg). Thus he earns 66 2/3 profit. What is the cost price of sugar? (1) Rs. 10/kg (2) Rs. 9/kg (3) Rs. 18/kg (4) Rs. 14/kg 104. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a person to purchase 6 kg more for Rs. 240. What is the original price per kg of sugar? (1) Rs. 10/kg (2) Rs. 8/kg (3) Rs. 6/kg (4) Rs. 5/kg 105. A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right circular cone with a base radius equal to the radius of the sphere. What is the ratio of the height and radius of the cone so formed? (1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) None of these 106. The speed of scooter, car and train are in the ratio of 1 : 4 : 16. If all of them cover equal distance then the ratio of time taken/velocity for each of the vehicle is: (1) 256 : 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 : 16 (3) 16 : 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 : 4 107. B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of work in 15 days. A started the work and after a few days B joined him. They completed the work in 11 days, from the starting. For how many days did they work together? (1) 1 day (2) 2 days (3) 6 days (4) 5 days 108. A, B, C and D purchased a restaurant for Rs. 56 lakhs. The contribution of B, C and D together is 460% that of A, alone. The contribution of A, C and D together is 366.66% that of B’s contribution and the contribution of C is 40% that of A, B and D together. The amount contributed by D is: PP-02 2A.16 www.TestFunda.com (1) 10 lakhs (2) 12 lakhs (3) 16 lakhs (4) 18 lakhs 109. The salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less than the salary of Saroj respectively. By what percent is the salary of Raju more than the salary of Ram? (1) 33.33% (2) 50% (3) 15.18% (4) 14.28% 110. The radius of a wire is decreased to one – third and its volume remains the same. The new length is how many times the original length? (1) 2 times (2) 4 times (3) 5 times (4) 9 times Section IV – General English For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each. Directions for questions 111 to 116: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. D. H. Lawrence – 1885 – 1930: The Supreme Triumph For man, the vast marvel is to be alive. For man as for flower and beast and bird, the supreme triumph is to be most vividly, most perfectly alive. Whatever the unborn and the dead may know, they cannot know the beauty, the marvel of being alive in the flesh. The dead may look after the afterwards. But the magnificent here and now of life in the flesh is ours, and ours alone, and ours only for a time. We ought to dance with rapture, that we should be alive and in the flesh, and part of the living, incarnate cosmos. I am part of the sun as my eye is the part of me. That I am part of the earth my feet below know the perfectly, and my blood is part of the sea. My soul knows that I am a part of the human race, my soul is an inorganic part of the great human soul, as my spirit is a part of my nation. In my own very self, I am part of my family. There is nothing of me that is alone and absolute except my mind, and we shall find that the mind has no existence by itself, it is only the glitter of the sun on the surface of the waters. – Apocalypse, 1931. 111. By triumph the author means - (1) sin (2) loss (3) sorrow (4) victory 112. When the dead look after the afterwards the living should look at life (1) forever (2) for some months (3) for only a short while (4) in the past 113. By rapture the author means an emotion involving great (1) trepidation (2) thrill (3) fear (4) joy 114. By the last line “It ………………………waters”, the author means that the mind is only (1) a mirage (2) an illusion (3) magic (4) a reflection 115. The tone of this passage is (1) social (2) moral (3) reflective (4) philosophical 116. The most suitable title for this passage would be - (1) The Surface of the Waters (2) My Mind (3) The Human Race (4) Alive and Kicking Directions for questions 117 to 119: Choose the correct option. 117. The repetition of messages or the use of superfluous expressions is called ……………… (1) redundancy (2) hyperbole (3) alliteration (4) allegory 118. Ink : pen : paper (1) watch : dial : strap (2) book : paper : words (3) farmer : plough : field (4) colour : brush : canvas 119. realia (1) theoretical constructs (2) fabricated examples (3) objects from real life (4) based on reality Directions for questions 120 to 125: Choose the grammatically correct option from the following. 120. (1) ‘Are these gloves belonging to you?’ she asked. (2) ‘Does this gloves belong to you?’ she asked. (3) ‘Do these gloves belongs to you?’ she asked. (4) ‘Do these gloves belong to you?’ she asked. 121. (1) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old – more than 100 years old! (2) I live in the house in the street countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old – more than 100 years old! (3) I live in a house in the street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old – more than 100 years old! (4) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and a house is old – more than 100 years old! 122. (1) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods to their own. (2) The teachers will be able to pay a visit to our schools and compare teaching methods for their own. (3) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods with their own. (4) The teachers will be able to visit our school and compare their teaching method with their own. 123. (1) Could you give me the amount that you filled out in the check which was sent? (2) Could you give me the amount what you filled out in the check you sent? (3) Could you give me the amount for which you filled out in the check you sent? (4) Could you give me the amount wherein you filled out in the check you sent? 124. (1) I have completed the work yesterday. (2) I did completed the work yesterday. (3) I have had completed the work yesterday. (4) I completed the work yesterday. 125. (1) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed with the truck. (2) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed into the truck. (3) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed against the truck. (4) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed before the truck. Directions for questions 126 to 130: Choose the correct synonymous word or description for each italicized word. The Jan Lokpal Bill, also referred to (126) as the citizens’ ombudsman bill, is a proposed independent (127) anti – corruption law in India. Anti – corruption social activists proposed it as a more effective improvement on the original Lokpal Bill, which is currently being proposed by the government of India. The Jan Lokpal Bill aims to effectively deter (128) corruption, redress grievances (129) of citizens, and protect whistle – blowers. If made into law, the bill would create an independent ombudsman (130) body called the Lokpal. It would be empowered to register and investigate complaints of corruption against politicians and bureaucrats without prior government approval. (Source: Wikipedia) 126. (1) described as (2) included in (3) supported for (4) reformed as 127. (1) self – centered (2) impartial (3) self – seeking (4) self - possessed 128. (1) swell (2) prevent (3) propel (4) lucubrate 129. (1) complaints (2) dishonesty (3) committees (4) opinions 130. (1) a government appointee who investigates complaints by private persons against bureaucrats and/or politicians. (2) a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against common citizens. (3) a government appointee who investigates complaints by citizens against citizens. (4) a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against government officials. Directions for questions 131 to 134: In the following sentences, one word or a phrase is used wrongly. Choose the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too. 131. The committee came to a decision to discuss in detail about assorted problems that people have been facing for a long time. (1) came to (2) to discuss (3) about (4) a long time 132. I know you must not see eye to eye with the philosophy of Ramkrishna but you must admit that he had had tremendous influence over a great many followers. (1) see eye to eye (2) had had (3) influence over (4) no error 133. The Principal inquired with the students if they would like their teacher to repeat the lesson again. (1) inquired with (2) to repeat (3) again (4) no error 134. One of the security guards rushed forward; unlocked the gate and asked whether I had anything objectionable. (1) security guards (2) forward (3) objectionable (4) no error Directions for questions 135 and 136: Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R and S) to make meaningful sentences. 135. I always told them ………………….. and consideration for me. P. How for me she Q. Always exuded warmth R. Was like a family’s S. Elder and how she has (1) PRSQ (2) PQSR (3) PRQS (4) SQPR 136. A year or …………………….. foreign languages P. I picked up a liking for learning Q. the largest urban area and primary R. so after leaving Bangkok S. city of Thailand and a place of unique beauty (1) RPQS (2) RQSP (3) RSPQ (4) SPQR Directions for questions 137 to 139: Choose the correct option. 137. This book ………………… five sections (1) comprises of (2) comprises (3) consists (4) comprises to 138. My grandfather left most of his money to an NGO; the rest went directly to my daughter and …………….. (1) I (2) me (3) myself (4) myself too 139. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s banks (1) Isthumus (2) Archipelago (3) Hinterland (4) Swamps Directions for questions 140 and 141: In the questions below, the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive /Active voice 140. Who is creating this mess? (1) Who has been created this mess? (2) By whom has this mess been created? (3) By whom this mess is being created? (4) By whom is this mess being created? 141. You should open the wine about three hours before you use it. (1) Wine should be opened about three hours before use. (2) Wine should be opened by you three hours before use. (3) Wine should be opened about three hours before you use it. (4) Wine should be opened about three hours before it is used. Direction for question 142: In the questions below, the passage consist of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given. (S1, S6) The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. S1: Metals are today being replaced by polymers in many applications. P: Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process making them a viable alternative to metals. Q: Polymers are essentially a long chains of hydrocarbons molecules. R: Today polymers as strong as metals have been developed. S: These have replaced the traditional chromium – plated metallic bumpers in cars. S6: Many Indian Institutes of Science and Technology run special programmes on polymer science. The proper sequence should be: 142. (1) QRSP (2) RSQP (3) RQSP (4) QRPS Directions for questions 143 and 144: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 143. FRUGALITY (1) Foolishness (2) Extremity (3) Enthusiasm (4) Economy 144. HARBINGER (1) Massenger (2) Steward (3) Forerunner (4) Pilot Directions for questions 145 and 146: Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words. 145. EXODUS (1) Influx (2) Home - coming (3) Return (4) Restoration 146. EQUANIMITY (1) Resentment (2) Dubiousness (3) Duplicity (4) Excitement Direction for question 147: Find the Odd one out from the group of words. 147. (1) Bludgeon (2) Dragon (3) Black Jack (4) Order Direction for question 148: Each pair of capitalized words given is followed by four pair of words. Select the pair that DOES NOT expresses a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair. 148. KERNAL : SHELL (1) Caterpillar : Pupa (2) Larva : Cacoon (3) Lassitude : Syncope (4) Passenger : Car 149. Both of them ……………. since their childhood. (1) are working here (2) work here (3) have been working (4) are liking to work 150. Although initial investigations pointed towards him ………………… (1) the preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime. (2) the additional information confirmed his guilt (3) the subsequent events established that he was guilty (4) the subsequent events proved that he was innocent 26 1 51 3 76 3 101 2 126 12 127 3 52 4 77 2 102 2 127 23 428 2 53 3 78 3 103 4 128 24 229 1 54 4 79 3 104 1 129 15 230 1 55 1 80 2 105 4 130 16 231 2 56 4 81 1 106 1 131 37 132 4 57 3 82 3 107 2 132 28 133 2 58 4 83 2 108 4 133 39 134 1 59 1 84 1 109 4 134 410 435 3 60 1 85 2 110 4 135 111 336 1 61 3 86 3 111 4 136 212 437 1 62 4 87 1 112 3 137 213 138 4 63 3 88 4 113 4 138 214 139 2 64 4 89 2 114 4 139 315 440 4 65 4 90 3 115 4 140 416 4 41 3 66 3 91 2 116 4 141 417 4 42 3 67 3 92 3 117 1 142 118 2 43 4 68 4 93 2 118 4 143 419 1 44 3 69 3 94 2 119 3 144 320 1 45 4 70 4 95 4 120 4 145 121 346 4 71 2 96 1 121 1 146 422 347 1 72 2 97 1 122 3 147 423 348 2 73 298 3 123 1 148 424 249 2 74 2 99 1 124 4 149 325 450 3 75 3 100 3 125 2 150 4
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May 24th, 2014, 11:04 PM
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 Question papers for diatance MBA
i want some question papers of MBA in distance learning from symbiosis so that i could have some idea how tough are the exams? |
