MHT CET Papers

Vinodt · #31 April 12th, 2014, 02:41 PM

Maharashtra Technology - Common Entrance Test (MT-CET) is combined entrance exam for admissions to engineering, pharmacy as well as the health science courses in the state.

MHT CET Physics Sample paper--

1.Which of the following is not an electro magnetic wave
a) x-rays b) alpha-rays c) gamma-rays d)
light rays
2.Electro magnetic waves of wave length ranging from 100Åto 4000Å come under
a) x-rays b) UV region c) visible region d)
infra-red region
3.Electro magnetic theory suggests that the light consists of
a) magnetic vector alone b) electric vector alone c) electric
and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other. d) parallel electric and magnetic
vector
4.The frequency of radio waves corresponding to a wave length of 10 m is
a) 3×107Hz b) 3.3×108Hz c) 3×109Hz d)
3×10−7Hz
5.The electromagnetic waves travel with velocity of
a) sound b) light c) greater than that of light d)
greater than that of sound
6.The existence of EM waves were experimentally confirmed by
a) Maxwell b) Faraday c) Hertz d)
Tesla
7.The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when
a) the motor has picked up maximum speed b) the motor has just
started moving c) the speed of motor is still on increase d) the motor has
just been switched off
8.AC measuring instrument measures
a) peak value b) rms value c) any value d)
average value
9.The Q-factor of a resonant circuit is equal to
a) 1CWR b) 1WL c) CWR d) fCW
10.In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in
a) Primary are less b) Primary are more c) Primary
and secondary equal d) secondary are infinite
11.In AC circuits choke is preferred to resistors because
a) choke coil is cheap b) voltage increases c) energy
is not wasted d) current increases
12.A choke is used as resistance in
a) AC circuits b) DC circuits c) half-wave rectifier
circuits d) both AC and DC circuits
13.The frequency of AC mains in India is
a) 110 C/S b) 50 C/S c) 60 C/S d) 120
C/S
14.A transformer works on
a) DC only b) AC only c) both AC and DC d)
high voltage only
15.Alternating voltage
a) is independent of time b) varies directly with time c) varies
inversely with time d) varies sinusoidaly with time
16.The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of
a) electric operator b) electric motor c) galvanomet d)
none of the above
17.Power consumed in an AC circuit become zero if
a) inductance and resistance are both high b) inductance and resistance are
both low c) inductance very high and resistance negligible d)
inductance low and resistance high

18.The rms value of current (Irms) is
a) b/2 b) 2Io c) ω d) 2I0
19.In a purely inductive circuit the current
a) is in phase with the voltage b) is out of phase with the voltage c)
eads the voltage by 900 d) lags behind the voltage by 900
20.A lamp is connected in a series with a capacitor and an ac source, what happens if the capacity of the
capacitor is reduced?
a) the lamp shines more brightly b) the lamp shines less brightly c)
there is no change in the brightness of the lamp d) brightness may increase or
decrease depending on the frequency of ac
21.A transformer is a device which converts
a) low voltage low current into high voltage high current b) high voltage low
current into low voltage high current c) high voltage high current into low voltage low
current d) electric power into mechanical power
22.The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is
a) 1/2πLC b) 12πLC c) 12πL/C d) 12πC/L
23.If the conductance and capacitance are both doubled in LCR circuit, the resonant frequency of the
circuit will
a) decrease to one half the original value b) decrease to one-forth the
original value c) increase to twice the original value d) decrease to
twice the original value
24.The power factor in an LCR circuit at resonance is
a) zero b) 1 c) 0.8 d) 1/2
25.The power factor in a circuit is unity. Then the impedance of the circuit is
a) inductive b) capertive c) partially inductive and
partially conductive d) resistive
26.One complete set of negative and positive values of alternating quantities is called
a) time period b) amplitude c) frequency d)
cycle
27.The instantaneous value of an ac is given by 1=5sin(wt+φ). The rms value of current is
a) SA b) 2×SA c) S/2A d) 2.5A
28.Inductive reactance of a coil expressed as
a) Ampere b) ohm c) volt d) weber
29.The average value of alternating current over a complete cycle is
a) zero b) 1 rms c) i/2 d) i/2
30.A induction may store energy in
a) Its electric field b) Its coils c) Its magnetic field d)
Both electric and magnetic fields
31.Two different coils have self inductance 8mH and 2mH. The current in both coils are increased at
same constant rate. The ratio of the induced emfs in the coil is
a) 4:1 b) 1:4 c) 1:2 d) 2:1
32.A coil of resistance 5Ω and inductance 4H is connected to a 10V battery. The energy stored in the coil
a) 0.8J b) 8J c) 16J d) 4J
33.Two coils of self inductance L1and L2are placed close together so that effective flux in one coil is
completely linked with the other. If m is the mutual inductance between them, then
a) M=L1L2 b) L1L22 c) M=(L1+L2)2 d)
M=L1L2
34.The instrument which works on the principle of mutual induction is
a) galvanometer b) ammeter c) potentiometer d)
transformer
35.What is the self inductance of a coil in which an induced emf of 2V is set up when the current is
charged at the rate of 4AS−1
a) 0.5mH b) 0.05H c) 2H d) 0.5H
36.Lenz's Law is a consequence of law of conservation of
a) energy only b) charge only c) momentum only d)
energy and momentum

37.Two blocks A (20kg) lying on a frictionless table are connected by a light string. The system is pulled
horizontally with an acceleration of 2m/s2by a force F on B. The tension in the string is
a) 10N b) 40N c) 100N d) 120N
38.A body of mass 2kg collides with a wall with a speed of 100 m/s and rebounds with the same speed. If
the time of contact is 150s, the force exerted on the wall is
a) 8N b) 2×104N c) 4N d) 104N
39.The mechanical advantage of a system of pulley s is four. The force needed to lift a mass of 100 kg
will be
a) 20kg. Wt b) 25kg. Wt c) 5kg. Wt d)
15kg. Wt
40.The distance x covered in time t by a body having initial velocity u and having constant acceleration a
is given by x=ut+12at2. This result follows from
a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c)
Newton's Third Law d) None of the above
41.A plumb bob is hanging from the ceiling of a car. If the car moves with the acceleration 'a' the angle
made by the string with the vertical is
a) sin−1(ag) b) sin−1(ga) c) tan−1(ag) d)
tan−1(ga)
42.A weight W can be just supported on a rough inclined plane by a force F either acting along the plane
or horizontally. If θ is the angle of friction, then F/W is
a) tan θ b) sec θ c) sin θ d) cos θ
43.A 1000 kg lift is supported by a cable that can support 2000kg. The shortest distance in which the lift
can be supported when it is descending with a speed of 2.5 m/s is (g=10m/s2)
a) 5/16m b) 5/32 m c) 1m d) 2m
44.A body is projected up a 450rough incline. The coefficient of friction is 0.5. Then the retardation of the
block is
a) g/22 b) g/2 c) 3g/22 d) g/2
45.A body takes n times as much time to slide down as 450rough incline as it takes to slide down a
smooth 450incline. The coefficient of friction is
a) 1−1/n2 b) 1/1−n2 c) 1−1/n2 d) 1/1−n2
46.A ball of mass m is thrown upward with a velocity v. If air exerts an average resisting force F, the
velocity with which the ball returns back to the thrower is
a) vmgmg+F b) vFmg+F c) vmg−Fmg+F d)
vmg+Fmg−F
47.A ball of mass 0.1kg strikes a wall normally with a speed of 30 m/s and rebounds with a speed of
20m/s. The impulse of the force exerted by the wall on the ball is
a) 1N-S b) 5N-S c) 2N-S d) 3N-S
48.A body kept on a smooth inclined plane having inclination 1 in x will remain stationary relative to the
inclined plane if the plane is given a horizontal acceleration equal to
a) g/x2−1 b) gxx2−1 c) x2−1/gx d) x3−1/gx
49.The minimum acceleration with which a fireman can slide down a rope of breaking strength two-third
of his weight is
a) zero b) g/3 c) 3g d) g
50.An elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration 'a'. The force exerted on the floor by a
passenger of mass m is
a) mg b) ma c) mg-ma d) mg+ma

Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost for you

Vinodt · #32 April 12th, 2014, 06:22 PM

here I am giving you question paper for Maharashtra common entrance examination for admission in engineering courses offer by colleges situated in Maharashtra … question paper is given below :

1. The number of free electrons per 10 mm of an ordinary copper wire is 2 x 1021. The average
drift speed of the electrons is 0.25 mm/s. The current flowing is:
A. 0.8 A B. 8 A C. 80 A D. 5 A
2. Which of the following cells is more likely to be damaged due to short circuiting?
A. Daniel B. Dry C. Acid D. Fuel
3. A gas expands from 5 litre to 105 litre at a constant pressure 100N/m2. The work done is
A. 1 Joule B. 4 Joule C. 8 Joule D. 10 Joule
4. The Helium nuclei can be formed from
A. Hydrogen nuclei by process of chain reactionB. Hydrogen nuclei through nuclear fission
C. Hydrogen nuclei through nuclear fusion D. None of these
5. In the atom bomb dropped by Americans in 1945 on Nagasaki, Japan, the fissionable material
used was
A. Helium 4 B. Plutonium 239 C. Uranium 235 D. Uranium 233
6. The engine of a truck moving a straight road delivers constant power. The distance travelled
by the truck in time t is proportional to
A. t B. t 2 C. √t D. t 3/2
7. The velocity of electron in ground state of
hydrogen atom is
A. 2 x 105
m/s
B. 2 x 106
m/s
C. 2 x 107
m/s
D. 2 x 108
m/s
8. The radius of the first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10-11 m; then the radius
of the second orbit must be
A. 15.9 x 10-11 m B. 10.6 x 10 m C. 21.2 x 10-11 m D. 42.4 x 10-11 m
9. A person pushes a rock of 1010Kg mass by applying a force of only 10N for just 4 seconds.
The work done is
A. 1000 Joule B. 0 J C. nearly zero D. positive
10. One can take pictures of objects which are completely invisible to the eye using camera films
which are sensitive to
A. ultra-violet rays B. sodium light C. visible light D. infra-red rays
11. Light from a 100 watt filament bulb is passed through an evacuated glass tube containing
sodium vapour at a high temperature. If the transmitted light is viewed through a spectrometer,
we will observe
A. D1 and D2 lines of sodium with good
intensity
B. dark lines where D1 and D2 lines should have
been observed
C. continuous radiation from the bulb only D. the entire emission spectrum of sodium

12. Under the action of a constant force, a
particle is experiencing a constant acceleration.
The power is
A. zero B. positive
C. negative D. increasing uniformly
with time
13. If in a plane convex lens the radius of curvature of the convex surface is 10 cm and the focal
length of the lens is 30 cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will be
A. 1.5 B. 1.66 C. 1.33 D. 3
14. A plane convex lens has radius of curvature 30 cm. If the refractive index is 1.33, the focal
length of lens is
A. 10 cm B. 90 cm C. 30 cm D. 60 cm
15. A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a screen. A plane parallel plate of glass
(thickness in the direction of the beam = t, refractive index = µ ) is introduced in the path of the
beam. The convergence point is shifted by
A. t (µ - 1) away B. t (1 + 1/µ ) away C. t (1 - 1/µ ) nearer D. t (1 + 1/µ ) nearer
16 . In Young's double silt experiment the separation between the silts is halved and the distance
between the silts and screen is doubled. The fringe width will be
A. unchanged B. halved C. doubled D. quadrupled
17. Wavelength of red light is λ r, violet rays is λ v and X -ray is λ x then the order of
wavelengths is
A. λ x >λ v >λ r B. λ v >λ x >λ r C. λ r >λ x >λ v D. λ r >λ v >λ
18. The amount of work done by the labourer
who carries n bricks, each of mass m, to the roof
of a house whose height is h is
A. n mgh B. mgh/n C. zero D. ghn/m
19. In LCR circuit in the state of resonance, which of the following statements is correct ? (cos
φ)=
A. 0 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. None of these
20. In LCR circuit, phase difference between voltage and current cannot be
A. 80° B. 90° C. 145° D. 0°
21. If speed is plotted along x-axis and Kinetic energy against y-axis, then the graph obtained has
a shape similar to that of
A. circle B. ellipse C. hyperbola D. parabola
22. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires w units of work to turn it
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
A. (√ 3) w B. w

C. (√ 3w)/2 D. 2w
23. A vertical straight conductor carries a
current vertically upwards. A point p lies to the
east of it at a small distance and another point Q
lies to west of it at the same distance. The
magnetic field at p is
A. greater than at Q B. same as at Q
C. less than at Q
D. greater or less at Q
depending upon the
strength of the current
24. In a parallel arrangement if (R1 > R2), the power dissipated in resistance R1 will be
A. less than R2 B. same as R2 C. more than R2 D. none of these
25. For a fuse wire to be installed in the supply line in a house which one of the following is
immaterial ?
A. the specific resistance of the material of the
fuse wire B. the diameter of the fuse wire
C. the length of the fuse wire D. none of these
26. If V is voltage applied, Ea is emf drop across the armature, the armature current of a d.c.
motor Ia is given by
A. (V + Ea)/Ra B. Ea/Ra C. V- Ea/Ra D. V/Ra
27. The current of 2.0 amperes passes through a cell of e.m.f. 1.5 volts having internal resistance
of 0.15Ω . The potential difference measured in volts across both the terminals of the cell will be
A. 1.35 B. 1.50 C. 1.00 D. 1.20
28. In this circuit, current ratio i1/i2 depends upon
A. R1, R2
and R
B. R, R1,
R2 and E
C. R1 and
R2 D. E and R
29. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance r. The potential difference between the
terminals of the cell is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell must be
A. 2(E - V)V/r B. 2(E - V)r/E C. (E - V) r/V D. (E- V)/r
30. Copper and germanium are both cooled to 70 K from room temperature, then
A. resistance of copper increases while that of
germanium decreases
B. resistance of copper decreases while that of
germanium increases
C. resistance of both decreases D. resistance of both increases
31. The potential difference between the points A and B of the electrical circuit given is
A. 1.5 V B. 1.0 V

32. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance
of 9.8Ω and gives a full scale deflection when a
current of 10 mA passes tbrough it. The value of
the shunt required to convert it into a mini
ammeter to measure current upto 500 mA is
A. 0.02Ω B. 0.2Ω C. 2Ω D. 0.4Ω
33. The total electrical resistance between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure is
A. 9.02 Ω A. 15 Ω
C. 30 Ω D. 100 Ω
34. If the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor are pulled away from each other
A. capacitance
increases B. energy increases C. voltage increases D. voltage decreases
35. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting its plates to the terminals of a battery. The
battery remains connected and a glass plate is interposed between the plates of the capacitor,
then
A. the charge on plates will be reduced
B. the charge on plates will increase
C. the potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will be reduced
D. the potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will increase
36. A person weighing 70Kg wt lifts a mass of 30 Kg to the roof of a building 10 m high. If he
takes 50 sec to do so,then the power spent is
A. 19.6 W B. 196 W C. 300 W D. 50 W
37. Work done in carrying a charge q from A to B along a semi-circle is
A. 2πrq B. 4πrq
C. πrq D. 0
38. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same
mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through same electrical potential difference, the ratio of
their speed VA : VB will become
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1
39. The electric field at a small distance R from an infinitely long plane sheet is directly
proportional to
A. R2/2 B. R/2 C. R-2 D. none of these
40. In the diagram, the electric field intensity will be zero at a distance
A. between -q and +2q charge B. towards +2q on the line drawn

C. away from the line towards
+2q D. away from the line towards -q
41. Wein's displacement law is given by
A. λ m =
constant
B. T/λ m =
constant
C. λ m T =
constant
D. T = λ m
= constant
42. If two electrons are forced to come closer to each to each other, then the potential energy
A. becomes zero B. increases C. decreases D. becomes infinite
43. The specific heat at constant pressure is greater than that of the same gas at constant volume
because
A. at constant volume work is done in expanding the gas
B. at constant pressure work is done in expanding the gas
C. the molecular attraction increases more at constant pressure
D. the molecular vibration increases more at constant pressure
44. The specific heats of CO2 at constant pressure and constant volume are 0.833 J/kg.K and
0.641 J/kg.K respectively. If molecular weight of CO2 is 44, what is the universal constant R?
A. 4.19 x 107 erg/cal B. 848.8 J/gm/K C. 8.448 J/mol/K D. 4.19 J/cal
45. The freezing point of the liquids decreases when pressure is increased, if the liquid
A. expands while freezing B. contracts while freezing
C. does not change in volume while freezing D. none
46. The equation of a transverse wave on a
stretched string is given by
y = 0.05 sin π (2t/0.002 -x/0.1 ) where x and y
are expressed in metres and t in sec.
The speed of the wave is
A.100
m/sec B. 50 m/s C. 200 m/s D. 400 m/s
47. The ratio of velocity of the body to the velocity of sound is called
A. Magic number B. Laplace number C. Natural number D. Mach number
48. Television signals on earth cannot be received at distances greater than 100 km from the
transmission station. The reason behind this is that
A. the receiver antenna is unable to detect the signal at a distance greater than 100 km
B. the TV programme consists of both audio and video signals
C. the TV signals are less powerful than radio signals
D. the surface of earth is curved like a sphere
49. A ball is thrown from a height of h m with an initial downward velocity v0. It hits the ground,
loses half of its Kinetic energy & bounces back to the same height. The value of v0 is
A. √2gh B. √gh C. √3gh D. √2.5gh

50. A thick rope of rubber of density 1.5 x 103
kg/m3 and Young's modulus 5 x 106 N/m2, 8m in
length, when hung from ceiling of a room, the
increase in length due to its own weight is
A. 9.6 x 10-
3m
B. 19.2 x
10-5m
C. 9.6cm D. 9.6mm
51. Water is falling on the blades of a turbine at a rate 6000Kg/min. The height of the fall
is100m. What is the power gained by the turbine?
A. 10KW B. 6KW C. 100KW D. 600KW
52. If momentum of alpha-particle, neutron, proton, and electron are the same, the minimum
K.E. is that of
A. alpha-particle B. neutron C. proton D. electron
53. An electric motor while lifting a given load produces a tension of 4500 N in the cable
attached to the load. If the motor winds the cable at the rate of 2m/s, then power must be
A. 9 kW B. 15 kW C. 225 kW D. 9000 H.P
54. If an electric iron electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of V volts. Taking
electronic charge and mass to be respectively e and m, the maximum velocity attained by the
electrons is
A. 2eV/√m B. √(2eV)/m C. 2m/eV D. v2/8em
55. A particle is moving on a circular track of radius 20 cm with a constant speed of 6 m/s. Its
acceleration is
A. 0 B. 180 m/s2 C. 1.2 m/s2 D. 36 m/s2
56. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit
with a uniform speed v. If gravitational force suddenly
disappears, the satellite will:
A. continue to move with the speed v along the original orbit
B. move with the velocity v tangentially to the original orbit
C. fall downward with increasing velocity
D. ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit
57. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance
covered s as K = as2. The force acting on the part1cle is
A. 2as2/R B. 2as(1 + s2/R)1/2 C. as(1 + s2/R2)1/2 D. None of these
58. Einstein was awarded Nobel Prize for his work in
A. Photoelectric effect B. Special theory of relativity
C. General theory of relativity D. None of these
59. One second is defined to be equal to
A. 1650763.73 periods of the Krypton clock B. 652189.63 periods of the Krypton clock
C. 1650763.73 periods of the Cesium clock D. 9192631770 periods of the Cesium clock

60. The dimensions of energy and torque respectively are
A. ML2T-2 and ML2T-2 B. MLT2 and ML2T-2 C. ML2T-2 and MLT-2 D. MLT-2 and MLT-2
61. When Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with hypophosphorous acid, it produces
A. benzene B. phenol C. phenylphosphite D. phenylphosphate
62. The reaction of aliphatic primary amine with nitrous acid in cold produces
A. nitrile B. alcohol C. diazonium salt D. secondary amine
63. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic potash on
A. acetamide B. propionamide C. formamide D. methyl cyanide
64. The aldol condensation of acetaldehyde results in the formation of
A. CH3COCHOHCH3 B. CH3CHOHCH2CHO C. CH3CH2CHOHCHO D. CH3CH2OH +
CH3COOH
65. Which compound reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature?
A. Butan-l-ol B. Butan-2-ol C. 2-Methyl propan-l-ol D. 2-Methyl propan-2-
ol
66. The reaction with D2O, (CH3)3CMgCl produces
A. (CH3)3CD B. (CH3)3CO C. (CD3)3CD D. (CD3)3COD
67. The reaction with alcoholic potash, l-chlorobutane gives
A. 1-Butene B. 1-Butanol C. 2-Butene D. 2-Butanol
68. The active nitrating agent during nitration of
benzene is
A. NO3
- B. HNO2
- C. NO2
- D. HNO3
69. The number of sigma and pi bonds in 1-buten-3-yne are
A. 5 sigma and 5 pi B. 7 sigma and 3 pi C. 8 sigma and 2 pi D. 6 sigma and 4 pi
70. The most stable carbonium ion among the cations is
A. sec-butyl B. ter-butyl C. n-butyl D. none of these
71. How many optically active stereo-isomers are possible for butane-2, 3-diol?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
72. B.P. and M.P. of inert gases are
A. high B. low C. very high D. very low
73. [CO(NH3)5Br] SO4 and [CO(NH3)5 SO4] Br are examples of which type of isomerism ?
A. Linkage B. Geometrical C. Ionization D. Optical
74. The valency of Cr in the complex [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2] + is
A. 3 B. 1 C. 6 D. 5

75. In Nessler's reagent, the ion is
A. Hg+ B. Hg2+ C. HgI2
2 - D. HgI4
2 -
76. In solid CuSO4.5H2O, copper is co-ordinated to
A. five water molecules B. four water molecules C. one sulphate ion D. one water molecule
77. Which of the following is a weak acid?
A. HCl B. HBr C. HP D. HI
78. When SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution,
A. the solution turns blue B. the solution is decolourised
C. SO2 is reduced D. green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
79. Which of the following has lowest boiling point?
A. H2O B. H2S C. H2Se D. H2Te
80. Nitric oxide is prepared by the action of dil. HNO3 on
A. Fe B. Cu C. Zn D. Sn
81. The laughing gas is
A. nitrous
oxide
B. nitric
oxide
C. nitrogen
trioxide
D. nitrogen
pentaoxide
82. Ordinary glass is
A. sodium silicate B. calcium silicate
C. calcium and Sodium silicate D. copper silicate
83. The chemical name of phosgene is
A. Phosphene B. Carbonyl chloride C. Phosphorous
oxychloride
D. Phosphorous
trichloride
84. Which one of the following is strongest Lewis acid?
A. BF3 B. BCl3 C. BBr3 D. BI3
85. Three centred bond is present in
A. NH3 B. B2H6 C. BCl3 D. AlCl3
86. Plaster of Paris is
A. CaSO4.H2O B. CaSO4.2H2O C. CaSO4.1/2 H2O D. CaSO4.3/2 H2O
87. Rocky impurities present in a mineral are
called
A. flux B. gangue C. matte D. slag
88. Free hydrogen is found in
A. acids B. water C. marsh gas D. water gas
89. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard water; the

sodium ions are exchanged with
A. H+ B. K+ C. SO4
2- D. Mg2+
90. On passing 0.3 faraday of electricity through aluminium chloride, the amount of aluminium
metal deposited on cathode is (Al = 27)
A. 0.27 g B. 0.3 g C. 2.7 g D. 0.9 g
91. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as
A. Electro-osmosis B. Brownian movement C. Cataphoresis D. Dialysis
92. In a colloidal state, particle size ranges from
A. 1 to 10 Ao B. 20 to 50 Ao C. 10 to 1000 Ao D. 1 to 280 Ao
93. The half-life of a first order reaction is 69.35. The value of rate constant of the reaction is
A. 1.05-1 B. 0.15-1 C. 0.015-1 D. 0.0015-1
94. Heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and
strong base is always
A. 13.7
Kcal/mol
B. 9.6
Kcal/mol
C. 6
Kcal/mol
D. 11.4
Kcal/mol
95. In exothermic reactions,
A. HR =HP B. HR >HP C. HR < HP D. None of the above
96. Which is a buffer solution?
A. CH3COOH +
CH3COONa
B. CH3COOH +
CH3COONH4
C. CH3COOH + NH4Cl D. NaOH + NaCl
97. The pH of 0.01 M solution of HCl is
A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 10.0 D. 11.0
98. In which of the following case does the reaction go fastest to completion?
A. k = 102 B. k = 10 -2 C. k = 10 D. k = 1
99. What quantity of limestone (CaCO3) on heating will give 28 kg of CaO?
A. 1000 kg B. 56 kg C. 44 kg D. 50 kg
100. The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is
A. 40 B. 16 C. 18 D. 10
101. If we take 44 g of CO2 and 14 g of N2,
what will be the mole fraction of CO2 in the
mixture?
A. 1/5 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/4
102. The molarity of a solution of Na2CO3 having 5.3 g/250 ml of solution is
A. 0.2 M B. 2 M C. 20 M D. 0.02 M
103. A gas is initially at 1 atm pressure. To compress it to 1/2th of its initial volume, pressure to
be applied is

A. 1 atm B. 4 atm C. 2 atm D. 1/4 atm
104. The value of R in calorie/degree/mole is
A. 0.0831 B. 8.31 C. 8.31 x 107 D. 1.987
105. Which of the following possesses zero resistance at 0 K?
A. Conductors B. Semi-conductors C. Super-conductors D. Insulators
106. CsCl has lattice of the type
A. ccp B. fcc C. bcc D. hcp
107. In the reaction between sodium and chlorine to form sodium chloride,
A. sodium atom is
reduced
B. sodium ion is
reduced
C. chlorine atom is
reduced
D. chloride ion is
reduced
108. Octahedral molecular shape exists in
______ hybridisation.
A. sp3d B. sp3d2 C. sp3d3 D. sp2d2
109. NH3 and BF3 form an adduct readily because they form
A. a co-ordinate bond B. a covalent bond C. an ionic bond D. a hydrogen bond
110. Diagonal relationship exists between
A. Li and Mg B. Na and Mg C. K and Mg D. Al and Mg
111. Which element has the highest electro-negativity?
A. F B. He C. Ne D. Na
112. Loss of a -particle is equivalent to
A. loss of two neutrons only B. loss of two protons only
C. loss of two neutrons and loss of two protons D. none of the above
113. Stable compounds in + 1 oxidation state are formed by
A. B B. Al C. Ga D. Th
114. Sodium hexametaphosphate is used as
A. a cleansing agent B. an insecticide C. a water softner D. an iron exchange
resin
115. The strongest acid is
A.
ClO3(OH)
B.
ClO2(OH)
C.
SO(OH)2
D.
SO2(OH)2
116. Which one among the following pairs of ions cannot be separated by H2S in dilute
hydrochloric acid?
A. Bi3+, Sn4+ B. Al3+, Hg2+ C. Zn2+, Cu2+ D. Ni2+, Cu2+
117. The alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon is

A. Pentane B. 2-methylbutane C. 2, 2-
dimethylpropane D. 2, 3-dimethylbutane
118. The product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethy1 bromide is
A. ethane B. ethene C. nitroethane D. ethyl a1coho1
119. Formy1 chloride has not been so prepared. Which one of the following can function as
formyl chloride in formulation?
A. HCHO + HCl B. HCOOCH3 + HCl C. CO + HCl D. HCONH2 + HCl
120. Amongst the following, the most basic compound is
A. Benzylarnine B. Aniline C. Acetanilide D. p-Nitroaniline
121. If the roots of x2 - bx + c = 0 are
consecutive integers, then b2 - 4c is equal to
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
122. Condition that the two lines represented by the equation ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0 to the
perpendicular is
A. a = - b B. ab = 1 C. a = b D. ab = -1
123. If A ⊆ B, then A ∩ B is equal to
A. Bc B. Ac C. B D. A
124. In order that the function f(x) = (x + 1)cot x is continuous at x = 0, f(0) must be defined as
A. f(0) = 0 B. f(0) = e C. f(0) = 1/e D. none of the above
125. The eccentricity of the ellipse 16x2 + 7y2 = 112 is
A. 4/3 B. 7/16 C. 3/√7 D. 3/4
126. If z1, z2, z3 are three complex numbers in A.P., then they lie on
A. a circle B. an ellipse C. a straight line D. a parabola
127. If [(a2 + 1)2]/(2a - i) = x + iy, then x2 + y2 is
equal to
A. [(a2 +
1)4]/(4a2 +
1)
B. [(a +
1)2]/(4a2 +
1)
C. [(a2 -
1)2]/(4a2 -
1)2
D. none of
the above
128. The vertices of a triangle are (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4). Its orthocentre is at
A. (3/2, 2) B. (0, 0) C. (1, 4/3) D. none of the above
129. The eccentricity of the conic 9x2 - 16y2 = 144 is
A. 5/4 B. 4/3 C. 4/5 D. √7
130. The vertices of a triangle are (0, 3), (-3, 0) and (3, 0). The co-ordinates of its orthocentre are

A. (0, 2) B. (0, -3) C. (0, 3) D. (0, -2)
131. If t is the parameter for one end of a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax, then its length is
A. a [t - (1/t)] B. a [t + (1/t)] C. a [t - (1/t)]2 D. a [t + (1/t)]2
132. The value of cos2 θ + sec2 θ is always
A. equal to 1 B. less than 1
C. greater than or equal to 2 D. greater than 1, but less than 2
133. The number of points of intersection of 2y
= 1 and y = sin x, -2π ≤ x ≤ 2π is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
134. If sin θ1 + sin θ2 + sin θ3 = 3, then cos θ1 + cos θ2 + cos θ3 =
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
135. The number of solutions in 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2 of the equation cos 3x tan 5x = sin 7x is
A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. none of the above
136. One end of a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 - 4x - 2y - 4 = 0 is (5, -6), the other end is
A. (4, -9) B. (-9, -4) C. (4, 9) D. (9, -4)
137. The set of values of m for which both the roots of the equation x2 - (m + 1)x + m + 4 = 0 are
real and negative consists of all m, such that
A. -3 ≥ m or m ≥ 5 B. -3 < m ≤ 5 C. - 4 < m ≤ -3 D. -3 < m ≤ -1
138. Let Pn(x) = 1 + 2x + 3x2 + ...... + (n + 1) xn be a polynomial such that n is even. Then the
number of real roots of P(x) = 0 is
A. 1 B. n C. 0 D. none of the above
139. The next term of the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10,
........ is
A. 16 B. 13 C. 15 D. 14
140. If H is the harmonic mean between P and Q, then H/P + H/Q is
A. (P + Q)/PQ B. PQ/(P + Q) C. 2 D. none of the above
141. A class is composed of two brothers and six other boys. In how many ways can all the boys
be seated at a round table so that the two brothers are not seated besides each other?
A. 4320 B. 3600 C. 720 D. 1440
142. The binomial coefficient of the 4th term in the expansion of (x - q)5 is
A. 15 B. 20 C. 10 D. 5

#33 September 22nd, 2015, 01:52 PM

Is there any one who will give previous year question papers for MHT CET Entrance Exam for admission in Medical Course? Actually I have completed syllabus of MHT CET Medical Entrance Exam. So pls give previous year question papers.

#34 October 13th, 2015, 11:16 AM

I need previous year question papers of MHT CET Entrance Exam. So will you please give source from where I can download previous year question papers of MHT CET Entrance Exam?

shabnams · #35 October 13th, 2015, 11:19 AM

As you want question papers of MHT CET Entrance Exam, So here I am providing following question papers:

MHT CET Question Paper 2015 (Version 11)

In the expression for Boyle’s law, the product ‘PV’ has dimensions of
A) force B) impulse C) energy D) momentum

In sonometer experiment, the bridges are separated by a fixed distance. The wire which is slightly
elastic, emits a tone of frequency ‘n’ when held by tension ‘T’. If the tension is increased to ‘4T’, the
tone emitted by the wire will be of frequency
A) n B) 2n
C) Slightly greater than 2n D) Slightly less than 2n

A particle performs S.H.M. with amplitude 25 cm and period 3 s. The minimum time required for it
to move between two points 12.5 cm on either side of the mean position is
A) 0.6 s B) 0.5 s C) 0.4 s D) 0.2 s

A liquid rises to a height of 1.8 cm in a glass capillary ‘A’. Another glass capillary ‘B’ having
diameter 90% of capillary ‘A’ is immersed in the same liquid. The rise of liquid in capillary ‘B’ is
A) 1.4 cm B) 1.8 cm C) 2.0 cm D) 2.2 cm

A rope 1 cm in diameter breaks if tension in it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that may be
given to a similar rope of diameter 2 cm is
A) 2000 N B) 1000 N C) 500 N D) 250 N

For diamagnetic materials, magnetic susceptibility is
A) small and negative B) small and positive
C) large and negative D) large and positive

Same current is flowing in two a.c. circuits. First contains only inductance and second contains only
capacitance. If frequency of a.c. is increased for both, the current will
A) increase in first circuit and decrease in second
B) increase in both circuits
C) decrease in both circuits
D) decrease in first circuit and increase in second