Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Technical Officer previous 10 years questio

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Test I
Reasoning
1. In a certain code ‘TREAMWORK’ is
written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is
written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’
written in that code?
(a) QDOOPT
(b) QDOMNR
(c) SFQMNR
(d) SFQOPT
(e) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are
three in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of
which has as many letters between
them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as in the English
alphabets?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
3. How many meaningful English words,
not ending with ‘D’ can be made with
the third, the fifth, the seventh and the
ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’
using each letter only once in each
word?
(a) None (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three
(e) More than three
4. In a certain code ‘BASKET’ is written as
‘5$3%#1’ and ‘THIRD’ is written as
‘14*#2’. How is ‘SKIRT’ written in that
code?
(a) 3%*41
(b) 3/%41
(c) 3%#41
(d) 3#4%1
(e) None of these
5. The positions of the first and the fifth
digits of the number 81943275 are
interchanged. Similarly the positions
of the second and the sixth digits are
interchanged and so on till the fourth
and the eight digits. Which of the
following will be the third digit from
the right end after the rearrangement?
(a) 1
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) None of these
2
6-10. Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions given
below:
M 3 # R A T 1 E J $ K @ F U 5 4 V I 6 © D 8
* G B 7 δ 2 W
6. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way based on their position in
the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) T E R
(b) U 4 @
(c) 6 D V
(d) J 1 K
(e) N δ *
7. How many such numbers are there in
the above arrangement, each of which
is immediately preceded by a letter
but not immediately followed by a
letter?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
8. What should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following
series based on the above
arrangement?
R T 1 $ @ F
(a) 8 * H
(b) 8 H N
(c) 8 H 7
(d) D * H
(e) None of these
9. How many such symbols are there in
the above arrangement, each of which
is immediately preceded by a number
and immediately followed by a letter?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
10. Which of the following is the seventh
to the left of the twentieth from the
left end of the above arrangement?
(a) V
(b) @
(c) δ
(d) ©
(e) None of these

11-15. Each of the questions below consists
of a questions and two statements numbered I
and II given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer question. Read both
the statements and—
Give answer (1) if the data in statement
I alone are sufficient to
answer the question,
with the data in
statement II alone are
not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement
II alone are sufficient
to answer the
question, with the data
in statement I alone are
not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in
statement I alone or in
statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the
statement I & II
together are necessary
to answer the
question.
11. Among M, P, T, R and W each being of a
different age, who is the youngest?
I. T is younger than only P and W.
II. M is younger than T and older
than R.
12. How is ‘gone’ written in a code
language?
I. ‘you will be gone’ is written as
‘ka pa ni sa’ in that code
language.
II. ‘he will be there’ is written as ‘ja
da ka ni’ in that code language.
13. On which day of the week (starting
from Monday and ending on Sunday of
the same work) did Sushant visit
Chennai?
I. Sushant visited Chennai two days
after his brother visited Chennai.
II. Sushant and did not visit Chennai
either on Wednesday or on
Friday.
14. Towards which direction is P with
respect to the starting point?
I. P walked 20 meters, took a right
turn and walked 30 meters, again
took right turn and walked 20
meters towards West.
II. P walked 30 meters, took a left
turn and walked 20 meters, again
took left turn and walked 30
meters towards East.
15. How is K related to Z?
I. Z and P are the only sisters of D.
II. D’s mother is wife of K’s father.

16-20. In the following questions, the symbols
@, $, #, © and % are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below:
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.’
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than not
equal to Q.’
‘P % Q’ means “P is not greater than Q.’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor
smaller than Q.’
Now in each of the following question
assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV
given below them is/are definitely true and
give your answer accordingly.
16. Statements : R # J, J $ D, D @ K, K
% T
Conclusions : I. T # D
II. T @ D
III. R # K
IV. J $ T
(a) Only either I or II is true
(b) Only III is true
(c) Only III and IV are true
(d) Only either I or II and III are true
(e) None of these
4
17. Statements : T % R, R $ M, M @ D,
D © H
Conclusions : I. D % R
II. H # R
III. T © M
IV. T % D
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only I and IV are true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) Only II and IV are true
(e) None of these
18. Statements : M @ B, B $ N, N $ R, R
© K
Conclusions : I. K # B
II. R © B
III. M $ R
IV. N © M
(a) Only I and III are true
(b) Only I and II are true
(c) Only II and IV are true
(d) Only II, III and IV are true
(e) None of these
19. Statements : F # H, H @ M, M © E,
E $ J
Conclusions : I. J © M
II. E # H
III. M © H
IV. F # E
(a) Only I and II are true
(b) Only II and III are true
(c) Only, I and III are true
(d) Only II, III and IV are true
(e) None of these
20. Statements : D % A, A @ B, B © K,
K % M
Conclusions : I. B $ D
II. K # A
III. M # B
IV. A © B
(a) Only, I and IV are true
(b) Only I, II and III are true
(c) Only II, III and IV are true
(d) Only I, III and IV are true
(e) All I, II, III and IV are true

21-25. Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine
when given an input of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in
each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement. (All the numbers
given in the arrangement are two digit
numbers.)
Input :gone over 35 69 test 72 park 27
Step I :27 gone over 35 69 test 72 park
Step II :27 test gone over 35 69 72 park
Step III :27 test 35 gone over 69 72 park
Step IV :27 test 35 park gone over 69 72
Step V :27 test 35 park 69 gone over 72
Step VI :27 test 35 park 69 over gone 72
Step VII :27 test 35 park 69 over 72 gone
And Step VII is the last step of the
rearrangement of the above input as the
desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps,
find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
21. Input : 86 open shut door 31 49 always
45.
How many steps will be required to
complete the rearrangement?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Four
(e) None of these
22. Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy
joy defeat 52 46
Which of the following is definitely the
input?
(a) enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46
(b) 37 enemy 25 joy yes defeat 52 46
(c) enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
23. Step II on an Input : 18 win 71 34 now if
victory 61
How many more steps will be required
to complete the rearrangement?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) More than six
24. Input : where 47 59 12 are they going
61
Which of the following steps will be
the last but one?
(a) VII
(b) IV
(c) V
(d) VIII
(e) None of these
25. Step II and an input : 33 store 81 75 full
of goods52
Which of the following will be step VI?
(a) 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods
(b) 33 store 52 of 75 full 81 goods
(c) 33 store 52 of 75 goods 81 full
(d) There will be no such step
(e) None of these

26-30. Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Following are the conditions for selecting
Manager-HR in an organization:
The candidate must —
(i) be at least 30 years and not more
than 35 years as on 1.3.2012.
(ii) have secured at least 60 percent
mark in Graduation in any
discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 65 percent
marks in the Post Graduate
Degree/Diploma in Personnel
Management/HR.
(iv) have post qualification work
experience of at least five years
in the Personnel/HR Department
of an organization
(v) have secured at least 50 percent
marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who
satisfies all the above conditions
except.
(a) at (ii) above, but has secured at
least 55 percent marks in
Graduation in any discipline and
at least 70 percent marks in Post
Graduate/Diploma in Personnel
Management/HR, the case is to
6
be refereed to GM – GR.
(b) at (iv) above, but has post
qualification work experience of
at least four years out of which at
least two years as Deputy
Manager – HR, the case is to be
referred to President – HR.
In each question below are given
details of one candidate. You
have to take one of the following
courses of actions based on the
information provided and the
conditions and sub-conditions
given below and mark the
number of that course of action
as your answer. You are not to
assume anything other than the
information provided in each
question. All these case are given
to you as on 1.3.2012.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate is not to
be selected
Mark answer (2) if the data provided are
not adequate to take a
decision.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to be
referred to President-HR
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be
referred to GM-HR
Mark answer (5) if the candidate is to be
selected
26. Rita Bhatt was born on 25th July 1978.
She has required 62 percent marks in
Graduation and 65 percent marks in
Post Graduate Diploma in
Management. She has been working
for the past six years in the Personnel
Department of an organization after
completing her Post Graduation. She
has secured 55 percent marks in the
selection process.
27. Ashok Pradhan was born on 8th August
1980. He has been working in the
Personnel Department of an
organization for the past four years
completing his Post Graduate Degree
in Personnel Management with 67
percent. Out of his entire experience,
he has been working for the past two
years as Deputy Manager — HR. He has
secured 62 percent marks in Graduation
and 58 percent marks in the selection
process.
28. Alok Verma was born on 4th March 1976.
He has been working in the Personnel
Department of an organization for the
past six years after completing his Post
Graduate Diploma in Personnel
Management with 66 percent marks.
He has secured 57 percent marks in the
selection process and 63 percent marks
in Graduation.
29. Swapan Ghosh has been working in the
Personnel Department of an
Organization for the post five years
after completing his Post Graduate
Degree in HR with 72 percent marks.
He has secured 56 percent marks in
Graduation. He was born on 12th May
1977. He has secured 58 percent marks
in the selection process.
30. Seema Behl has been working in the
7
Personnel Department of an
organization of the post even years
after completing her Post Graduate
Diploma in Personnel Management
with 70 percent marks. She was born
on 5th July 1979. She has secured 65
percent marks in Graduation and 50
percent marks in the selection process.

31-35. Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are height friends
travelling in three different cars, viz. X, Y and Z
with at least two in one car to three different
places, viz. Delhi, Chandigarh and Agra.
There is at least one female member in each
car D is traveling with G to Delhi but not in car Y.
A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to
Chandigarh. C is not travelling with either D or
E. F and D are studying in the same only girl’s
college. H, B and G are studying in the same
only boy’s college.
31. Which of the following represents the
group of females among them?
(a) F, C, A
(b) F, G, A
(c) D, C, A
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
32. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Delhi – X – C
(b) Chandigarh – X – F
(c) Agra – Z – E
(d) Delhi – Y – E
(e) None of these
33. In which car are four of them
travelling?
(a) X or Z
(b) Y
(c) X or Y
(d) Z
(e) None of these
34. In which of the following cars is C
travelling?
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) Either X or Y
(e) Data inadequate
35. Passengers in which are travelling to
Chandigarh?
(a) Y
(b) X
(c) Either X or Y
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

36-40. In each of the question below is given
a statement, followed by a question. Read the
statement carefully and answer the question
that follows.
36. Statement : The State Government
granted special status to
the seminar on the
importance of protecting
the environment around
us organized by the local
academic body to create
awareness among the
citizens.
Who of the following
8
may be a probable
reason for the State
Government’s decision?
(a) The Central Government has
accorded highest priority to
issues related to protection of
environment, over all other
issues.
(b) In the past the State Government
and granted special status to such
seminars.
(c) The State Government has failed
to implement measures for
protecting the environment
(d) The local academic body made a
fervent appeal for the special
status
(e) None of these
37. Statement :Most car manufactures
have marginally reduced
the price of their
products deposited
higher input costs and
increased Govt. duties
and have promised to
keep the prices at the
present level for at least
the next couple of
months.
Which of the following
can be a best possible
reason for the above
step by car
manufactures?
(a) Car manufactures have not been
able to meet their sales target for
the above step by car
manufactures?
(b) The Government is planning to
review taxes on the raw material
for manufacturing cars.
(c) The car sales market is going
through a jubilant phase as the
volume of sales has picked up
considerably in the recent past
and profit per car has also gone
up.
(d) Car buyers are still hesitant to
make their purchase and may
postpone for another few
months.
(e) Oil marketing companies are
contemplating reviewing the
petrol and diesel prices in order
to decide future market prices.
38. Statement : The prices of vegetables
and other food articles
have decreased in the
recent month raising
hope among policy
planners that the RBI’s
(Reserve Bank of India)
tight grip on supply of
liquid money in the
market for controlling
inflation may be eased.
Which of the following
may be a possible action
of the above situation?
(a) The Reserve Bank of India may
not reduce its key interest rates
in near future.
(b) The Government may step in and
make certain concessions to the
common people on various

issues
(c) The Reserve Bank of India may
consider lowering certain rates to
bring in more liquidity in the
market.
(d) The RBI may wait for at least
another year before taking any
step.
(e) The RBI may collect more data
from the market and wait for
another four months to ensure
they take correct step.
39. Statement : A serve cyclonic storm
hit the Eastern coastline
last resulting in huge loss
of life and property on
the entire east coast and
the Government had to
disburse a considerable
amount for relief
activities through the
district administration
machineries.
Which of the following
may possibly be a follow
up measure to be taken
up by the Government?
(a) The Government may set up a
task force to review the post
relief scenario in all districts and
also to confirm proper end user
receipt of the relief supplies.
(b) The Government may set up a
committee for proper
disbursement of relief supplies
in future.
(c) The Government may empower
the District Magistrates to make
all future disbursements of relief.
(d) The Government may send relief
supplies to the affected people
in future only after proper
assessment of the damage caused
by such calamities.
(e) The Government may not need
to activities any follow up
measure.
40. Statement : It has been reported in a
recent study that intake
of moderate quantity of
milk chocolate reduces
the risk of suffering from
central nervous system
related illnesses.
Which of the following
would weaken the
findings of the study
reported in the above
statement?
(a) People generally prefer to eat
chocolate when they are young.
(b) Majority of those not diagnosed
with diseases related to central
nervous system have stayed
away from away from eating
chocolates in their lives.
(c) Chocolates contain certain
elements which strengthen the
functions of the central nervous
system
(d) Majority of those suffering from
central nervous system related
diseases are middle aged.
(e) Many of those who suffer from
diabetes also suffer from other
major ailments.

Test II
English Language
51-60. In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage
and against each, five words are suggest one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
the appropriate word in each case.
(51) over the world, rights related to
information technology that are already legally
recognized are daily being violated, (52) in the
name of economic advancement, political
stability or for personal greed and interest.
Violates of these rights have (53) new problems
in human social systems, such as the digital
divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy
concerns, all which above (54) people’s lives
either directly or indirectly.
It is important that countries come up
with the guidelines for action to (55) the
incidence of malicious attacks on the
confidentiality, integrity and availability of
electronic data and system, computer-related
crimes, content related offenses and
violations of intellectual property rights. (56),
threats to critical infrastructure and national
interest arising from the use of the internet of
criminal and terrorist activities are of growing
(57). The harm incurred to businesses,
governments and individuals in those
countries in which the internet is used (58), is
gaining in (59) and importance, while in other
countries cybercrime threatens the application
of information and communication technology
for governmental services, health care, trade,
and banking. As users start losing (60) in online
transactions and business, the opportunity
costs may become substantial.
51. (a) Entire (b) Lot
(c) Great (d) All
(e) Much
52. (a) scarcely (b) whether
(c) and (d) for
(e) hardly
53. (a) created (b) bent
(c) pressured (d) risen
(e) stooped
54. (a) distanced (b) affected
(c) exaggerated (e) advanced
(e) cropped
55. (a) engage (b) conflict
(c) war (d) combat
(e) struggle
56. (a) But (b) More
(c) Addition (d) Beside
(e) Further
57. (a) concern (b) nature
(c) pattern (d) important
(e) matter
58. (a) really (b) figuratively
(c) widely (d) never
(e) tandem
59. (a) fear (b) days
(c) positivity (d) width
(e) scope
60. (a) tracks (b) measure
(c) confidence (d) mind
(e) grip

61-65. Rearrange the following six distance
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph;
then answer the questions given below them.
(a) It is not wonder that a majority of
these excluded and lowachievers
come from the most
deprived sections of society.
(b) They are precisely those who are
supposed to empowered
through education.
(c) With heightened political
consciousness about the plight of
these to-be-empowered people,
never in the history of India has
the demand for inclusive
education been as fervent as
today.
(d) The either never enroll or they
drop out of schools at different
stages during these eight years.
(e) On the nearly 200 million children
in the age group between 6 and
14 years, more than half do not
complete eight years of
elementary education.
(f) On those who do complete eight
years of schooling, the
achievement level of a large
percentage, in language and
mathematics, in unacceptably
low.
61. Which of the following should be the
THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
(e) E
62. Which of the following should be the
FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
(e) E
63. Which of the following should be the
SECOND sentence after
rearrangement?
(a) F (b) E
(c) D (d) C
(e) B
64. Which of the following should be the
FOURTH sentence after
rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
(e) E
65. Which of the following should be the
FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F (b) E
(c) D (d) B
(e) A

66-70. In each of the following sentences, an
idiomatic expression or a proverb is
highlighted. Select the alternative which best
describes its use in the sentence.
66. Facts spoke louder than words at the
Company meeting where the Direction
tired to paint a rosy picture of the
Company’s financial health.
(a) Too many facts related to the
good financial health of the
Company were presented during
the meeting.
(b) The Company was not doing well
financially despite the Director
saying otherwise.
(c) The Director was very loud while
presenting the facts about the
Company’s financial health
during the meeting.
(d) The facts stated in the meeting
supported the Director’s claims
of good financial health of the
Company.
(e) The Company was doing
exceptionally well financially,
despite the Director saying
otherwise.
67. By initialing the fight with Sakshi in
office, Kajal had killed the goose that
lay the golden egg
(a) By initiating the fight with Sakshi
in office, Kajal had left her
speechless.
(b) Kajal and ruined her chances of
success by picking a fight Sakshi
in office.
(c) Kajal had exacted her revenge by
picking a fight with Sakshi in
office.
(d) Kajal had hurt Sakshi by picking a
fight with her in office.
(e) By initiating the fight with Sakshi
in office, Kajal had missed getting
the golden egg.
68. I let the chips fall where they may and
do not worry too much about what I
want to do next.
(a) I take calculated risks.
(b) I let others do what they want and
do not interfere.
(c) I am clumsy.
(d) I do not try to control my destiny.
(e) I prefer chaos to calm.
69. After trying hard to convince Narendra
to change his ways, Raman realized
that a leopard cannot change its spots.
(a) Raman realized that Narendra
would never change his ways.
(b) Raman realized that Narendra
was helpless.
(c) Raman realized that he was not
good at convincing others.
(d) Raman realized that Narendra
would change his ways soon.
(e) Raman realized that someone
else was forcing Narendra to act
in a certain way.
70. Before starting work on our new
project, our mentor told us to not count
our chickens before they hatched.
(a) Our mentor warned us against
being over-confident about
achieving success.
(b) Our mentor asked us to
meticulously count the chicken
first and then the eggs.
(c) Out mentor warned us against
being over-enthusiastic in
implementing the project.
(d) Our mentor warned us about all
the challenges that lay ahead of
us.
(e) Our mentor informed us about
the prizes that would get on
succeeding.

71-85. Read each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
71. The third season of / the popular
(a) (b)
television show will ends / on a grand
(c)
note with / celebrities dancing and
(d)
having fun. No error
(e)
72. The website, which does not / accept
(a)
advertisements and is founded /
(b)
entirely by donations, describes itself
(c)
/ as the fifth most popular website on
(d)
the planet. No error
(e)
73. As sharing crime statistics for / the year
(a)
2011, the Commissioner admitted that
(b)
/ there had been an undue delay in /
(c)
the setting up of an anti-narcotics cell.
(d)
No error
(e)
74. The Moon may be the best place / to
(a)
look for liens as their / footprints on
(b) (c)
their surface would / last far longer
(d)
than radio signals. No error
(e)
75. The judge advised the government to
(a)
/ have metered autorickshaws across
(b)
the state while / recounting his
(c)
personal experience where an
autorickshaw driver / make him to wait
and also demanded Rs. 100. No error
(d) (e)
76. The Company aims / to nearly double /
(a) (b)
its revenues on the back / of a
(c)
strongest product pipeline. No error
(d) (e)
77. The woman that had / kidnapped a
(a) (b)
child has now / been apprehended and
(c)
it being / held in the city’s jail. No error
(d) (e)
78. Rose growers in / the city are waking
(a) (b)
up / to the benefits / of collective
(c) (d)
action. No error
(e)
79. The Minister will have / a tough task
(a) (b)
on his hands / where three different
(c)
recommendations / for this year’s rate
(d)
reach his desk. No error
(e)
80. The current economic scenario / could
(a)
possibly undo / the growth that
(b) (c)
followed / the economic liberalization
(d)
of 1991. No error
(e)
81. In a first of its kind study, / a team of
(a) (b)
scientist have tried to / “grow” new
(c)
stem cell in / the ear that get damage
(d)
with age. No error
(e)
82. If successful, the research could / pave
(a)
the way towards / the presentation in
(b) (c)
untimely deaths / due to fatal illnesses.
(d)
No error
(e)
83. The Ministry has directed Banks / to do
(a)
away with their / separate promotion
(b) (c)
policies, a move / strongly opposed by
(d)
the officers’ unions. No error
(e)
84. After a complaint was filed, / polices
(a)
teams was given the photograph / of
(b)
the accused from the CCTV footage /
(c)
record at the hotel. No error
(d) (e)
85. Activities opposing the rail project said
(a)
/ that the eleven new flyovers to be
(b)
built / would practically ring / the death
(c) (d)
knell for the city. No error
(e)
86-100. Read the following passage carefully
and answers the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in
bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
In India, innovation is emerging as one of the
most important rubrics in the discourse on how
to bring about greater and more consistent
economic and social development. One
observes steadily growing investments in R &
D across the country, the setting up of national
and state innovation bodies, as well as the
introduction of government-sponsored
innovation funds. There have been several
conferences and debates on innovation and
how to best promote and accomplish in India,
and a number of articles on the subject, written
for newspapers and magazines, as well as more
informal platform like online forums and blogs.
Academic engagement and Indian authorship
on the subject have also exploded in the last
five years. Despite widespread agreement on
the importance of innovation in India, there
are wide gulfs between different conceptions
of innovation and the path India should take
towards securing benefits through
investments in innovation.
Many Indian conversations around innovation
begin by talking about jugaad, that uniquely
Indian approach to a temporary fix when
something complex, like and automobile or a
steam engine stops working. However, many
observers have pointed out that while jugaad
is certainly innovative, it is a response to the
lack of an innovation culture – more a survival
or coping mechanism at a time of need than a
systematic methodology to effectively address
a wide-ranging, complex set of problems.
Another specifically Indian approach to
innovation that has entered into wide currency
of late is so-called ‘frugal innovation,’ deemed
by many to be the most appropriate for the
Indian context. In its midterm assessment of
the 11th five-year plan, the Planning
Commission stressed the need for innovation
in India in order to ‘accelerate its growth and
to make growth more inclusive as well as
environmentally sustainable.’ The document
went on to say that ‘India needs more frugal
innovation that produces more frugal cost
products and services that are affordable by
people at low level of incomes without
compromising the safely, efficiency, and utility
of the products. The country also needs
processes of innovation that are frugal in the
resources required to produce the
innovations. The products and processes must
also have frugal impact on the earth’s
resources.

Two people formulated a similar theory called
the More-from-Less-for-More (MLM theory of
innovation) theory of Innovation, which
advocates a focus on innovations that allow
for more production using fewer resources but
benefit more people. Under this rubric come
products that are more affordable versions of
existing technologies. While both frugal
innovation and the MLM theory are certainly
valuable in terms of bringing affordable
products and services to a greater number of
people, and may even the considered a
necessary first step on India’s innovation path,
the barely graze the surface of what innovation
can accomplish. That is, innovation is capable
of bringing about complete paradigm-shifts
and redefining the way we perceive an interact
with the world.
Take the cell phone, for example: it
revolutionized communication in a previously
inconceivable way, provided consumers with
a product of unprecedented value and created
and entirely new market. The cell phone was a
result of years of directed, intentional
innovation efforts and large investments, and
would not have ever been created if the people
responsible simply set out to make the existing
telephone cheaper and more accessible to all.
While jugaad and frugal innovation may be
indicative of the Indian potential for
innovativeness, this potential is not utilized
or given opportunity to flourish due to the lack
of an enabling culture.
India’s may diverse and complex needs can be
met only through systematic innovation, and
major shifts have to first take place in our
educational institutions, government polices
and commercial firms in order for such an
innovation enabling culture to come about.
The one thing that India’s innovation theorists
have not said is that the absence of a culture of
innovation is intrinsically linked to many of the
most intractable problems facing India as a
nation. These include poor delivery of
government services, inadequate systems of
personal identification and the absence of
widely available financial services for rural,
poor, health and sanitation failures. This list
can go on. Cumulatively, the inability of India
as a nation, society and economy and
adequately provide for its own population no
longer reflects a failure of implementation, but
rather of a failure of innovation, for there are
not immediately-available off-the-shelf
solutions that would make it possible for these
grand challenges facing India to be redressed.
Rather, we need to look at these intractable
problems from the more sophisticated and
empowering lens of innovation, for them to
begin to be solved.
86. Which of the following depict/s the
growing importance of innovation in
India?
(1) Increased investment in
research.
(2) Initiation of Govt. backed funds
for innovation
(3) Increase in number of
conferences arranged and article
written on innovation.

(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (1) and (2)
(c) Only (3)
(d) Only (2) and (3)
(e) All (1), (2) and (3)
87. Which of the following best describes
the MLM theory of innovation?
(a) Maximize output by using least
number of resources and
benefiting a small number of
people
(b) Maximize resource utilization
and cost thereby benefit
maximum number of people
(c) Minimize output and resource
utilization, yet benefit the
maximum number of people
(d) Benefit most number of people
through least usage of resources
and maximum output.
(e) Benefit most number of people
through maximum usage of
resources and minimizing cost.
88. Which of the following is possibly the
most appropriate title for the passage?
(a) Innovation At Its Best
(b) India And the Elixir called
innovation
(c) Innovation around the world visà-
vis India and Other
Neighbouring Countries.
(d) Worldwide Developments in
Innovation
(e) Innovation – The History
89. What tone is the author employing in
the entire passage to get his message
across?
(a) Pessimistic
(b) Sarcastic
(c) Urgent
(d) Informative
(e) Dubious
90. Why, according to the author, is India
unable to adequately provide for its
people?
(a) Failure to implement schemes
and initiatives meant for the
Indian populace.
(b) Absence of regulatory authorities
to oversee the implementation
process.
(c) Failure to innovate in order to
find solutions.
(d) Lack of governmental schemes
and initiatives to redress the
challenges faced by India.
(e) Hesitance of the Indian people in
trying out different schemes
provided by the Government for
upliftment.
91. Why, according to some people, is
‘jugaad’ not the answer to India’s
problems?
(a) Many a times this methodology
backfires leading to further
complications.
(b) ‘Jugaad’ provides only cheap
solutions to all problems.
(c) It is reactive and not a proactive
and organized method of finding
solutions to problems.
(d) It can provide solutions to only

simple problems and not
complex ones.
(e) None of these
92. Which of the following is/are true
about the cell phone?
(1) The innovation of the cell phone
required investment of huge
capital.
(2) The cell phone, when invented
was meant to be affordable to
all.
(3) The cell phone was made
available to the public in a very
short time from its ideation.
(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (1) and (2)
(c) Only (2) and (3)
(d) Only (2)
(e) All (1), (2), (3)
93. What does the author mean by ‘frugal
impact on the earth’s resources’ as
given in the passage?
(a) The damage to the environment
should be assessable
(b) More consumption of natural
resources as compared to
manmade ones.
(c) Minimum impact on the
environment in terms of
pollution.
(d) The impact on the environment
should be such that it is
reversible.
(e) Minimum usage of earth’s natural
resources.
94-98. Choose the word/group of words is
most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in the passage.
94. REDRESSED
(a) addressed
(b) equalised
(c) restored
(d) redone
(e) rearranged
95. CURRENCY
(a) notes
(b) usage
(c) money
(d) cash
(e) value
96. INTRINSICALLY
(a) internally
(b) whole-heartedly
(c) fundamentally
(d) virtually
(e) unavoidably
97. INDICATE
(a) causative
(b) forthcoming
(c) verbal
(d) abstract
(e) suggestive
98. COMPROMISING
(a) co-operating with
(b) reducing the quality
(c) hampering the progress
(d) conciliating in order to
(e) adjusting for the better
99-100. Choose the word/group of words which
is most opposite in meaning to the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

99. LACK
(a) presence
(b) sufficiency
(c) charisma
(d) adequacy
(e) dearth
100. INCONCEIVABLE
(a) visible
(b) truthful
(c) incredible
(d) apparent
(e) complex

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