Previous year question papers of CS executive programme module I

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1. (a) Discuss in brief the doctrine of severability.
(8 marks)
(b) Describe the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions as
enshrined in the Constitution of India.
(6 marks)

(c) Explain the rule of ejusdem generis with the help of any case decided by the Supreme
Court of India.
(6 marks)
2. (a) What do you mean by .promissory note. ? State the requisites of a promissory note
with the help of some illustrations.
(5 marks)

(b) Discuss in brief the main remedies available to a person against whom ex parte decree
is passed.
(5 marks)

(c) What is meant by .preventive detention. ? What are the safeguards available against
preventive detention ?
(6 marks)
3. Distinguish between the following. Attempt any four :
(i) .Specific performance. and .injunction..
(ii) .Battery. and .assault..
(iii) .Set-off. and .counter claim..
(iv) .Review. and .revision..
(v) .Summons. and .warrant of arrest..
(4 marks each)
4. (a) Discuss the evidentiary value of an instrument not duly stamped under the Indian
Stamp Act, 1899.
(4 marks)

(b) Describe the offence of .hacking. the computer system as provided under the provisions
of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
(4 marks)

(c) State the meaning and characteristics of immovable property as per the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882.
(4 marks)

(d) What do you mean by the rule of lis pendens ? Write down the essentials of rule of
lis pendens as provided in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(4 marks)

5. (a) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate
word(s)/figure(s) :
(i) .Lease. means a lease of ____________ property.
(ii) There are two types of stamping namely, adhesive stamping and ____________
stamping.
(iii) .Private key. means the key of a key pair used to create a ____________ as
given under section 2(1)(zc) of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
(iv) No court shall take cognizance of an offence after six months, if it is punishable
with ____________ only.
(v) All ____________ shall have the right to seek information subject to the
provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
(vi) Attack on the reputation of a person is called ____________ .
(vii) ____________ is at times appended to a section to explain the meaning of words
contained in the section.
(viii) A licence does not transfer any ____________ in the property and the licensee
has no right to possession.
(1 mark each)
(b) Write the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the following :
(i) Which of the following conditions are necessary for the application of section 41

of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 .
(a) The transferor is the ostensible owner
(b) The transferor has given his consent
(c) The transfer is not for consideration
(d) Both (a) and (b) above.
(ii) Which of the following conditions are required for the principle of res
judicata to suits as applied by courts vide section 11 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908 .
(a) The matter directly and substantially arise in former and later suits
(b) The former suit has not been decided
(c) The said suit has not been heard and decided
(d) All the above are required for the application of res judicata.
(iii) Which of the following are the different classes of criminal courts .
(a) High Courts
(b) Sessions Courts
(c) Judicial Magistrates
(d) All of the above.
(iv) Which of the following judicial authorities shall not conduct a summary trial .
(a) Any Judge of a High Court
(b) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Any Metropolitan Magistrate
(d) Any first class Magistrate specifically empowered by a High Court.

(v) To avoid any inconsistency or repugnancy either in a section or between sections
and other parts of the statutes, the rule applied is that of .
(a) Harmonious construction
(b) Literal construction
(c) Reasonable construction
(d) None of the above.
(vi) Any person aggrieved by an order of the Controller of Certifying Authorities or
of the Adjudicating Officer can appeal to the Cyber Appellate Tribunal within .
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days.
(vii) Under law of torts, exception to the strict liability is .
(a) Inevitable accident
(b) Inevitable mistake
(c) Consent of the plaintiff
(d) All of the above.
(viii) .Computer network. means the interconnection of one or more computers through
the use of .
(a) Satellite
(b) Microwave
(c) Terminals
(d) All of the above.
(1 mark each)

6. State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are true or false :
(i) The right to know, receive and impart information has been recognised within the right
to freedom of speech and expression.
(ii) The rules of evidence are the same in civil and criminal proceedings and there is no
strong and marked difference as to the effect of evidence in civil and criminal proceedings.
(iii) The courts of India are not bound by the specific provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963.
(iv) The Right to Information Act, 2005 imposes stringent penalty on a public information
officer (PIO) for failing to provide information and the penalty is `150 per day upto
a maximum of `15,000.
(v) Under section 24 of the Registration Act, 1908 a document executed by several persons
at different times may be presented for registration and re-registration within six months
from the date of each execution.
(vi) The mere existence of arbitration clause in agreement bars the jurisdiction of civil courts
automatically.
(vii) The chance of an heir apparent succeeding to an estate, the chance of a relation obtaining
a legacy on the death of kinsman or any other mere possibility of a like nature cannot
be transferred.

(viii) Delay in registration of a deed of gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 postpones
its operation.
(2 marks each)

7. (a) An instrument bears a stamp of sufficient amount, but of improper description. Can
it be certified as duly stamped ? How the instrument can be rectified and what would
be the date of its execution ?
(6 marks)

(b) Achal gives an instrument to Basu which is unstamped. This instrument is also not
registered .
(i) Will the instrument be admitted in evidence ?
(ii) Will the situation change if the instrument is stamped but not registered before
passing to Basu and Basu gets it registered subsequently ?
(5 marks)

(c) Ragini told Rajendra in the year 2007 that she had committed theft of the jewellery
of her neighbour Asha. Thereafter, Ragini and Rajendra were married in the year 2008.
In the year 2009, criminal proceedings were instituted against Ragini in respect of the
theft of the said jewellery. Rajendra is summoned to give evidence in the said criminal
proceedings.
Decide whether Rajendra can disclose the communication made to him by Ragini in
the year 2007, in the criminal proceedings in respect of the theft of the jewellery.
(5 marks)

8. (a) Mohan and Sohan are jointly tried for the murder of Rohan. It is proved that Mohan
said, ..Sohan and I murdered Rohan... Can the court consider the effect of this confession
as against Sohan ? Give reasons.
(5 marks)

(b) The driver of a petrol lorry, while transferring petrol from the lorry to an underground
tank at a garage, struck a matchstick in order to light a cigarette and then threw it, still
alight on the floor. An explosion and a fire ensued.
Who is liable for the damage so caused ? Decide giving case law on this point.
(5 marks)

(c) Shyam, a police officer comes to know from reliable sources that four persons are staying
in a house and planning to kidnap and murder Rajan. They are equipped with automatic
weapons. The police officer apprehends that they will commit the crime at any moment.
He directly goes to that house and, without any warrant or order from the Metropolitan
Magistrate, arrests all the four persons along with weapons in their possession. Is the
arrest of all the four persons valid ? Decide with reasons.
(6 marks)
.
1. (a) State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are true or false :
(i) The existing equity shareholders are necessarily to accept the rights offer.
(ii) Contingent liability in respect of a transaction between holding and wholly
owned subsidiary companies will not appear in the footnote of the consolidated
balance sheet.
(iii) In case of inter-company unrealised profits included in unsold goods, minority
shareholders are not affected in any way.
(iv) In case of inadequacy of profits, dividend can be paid out of capital reserve.
(v) Redemption of preference shares amounts to reduction in the capital of the
company.
(2 marks each)
(b) Write the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the following :
(i) Discount allowed on the re-issue of forfeited shares cannot exceed .
(a) 10% of paid-up capital
(b) 10% of the capital re-issued
(c) The amount received on forfeited shares
(d) Capital reserve account.
(ii) Sections 349 and 350 of the Companies Act, 1956 contain the provisions relating
to the manner of determination of net profit for the purpose of calculating the .
(a) Disposal of net profit
(b) Managerial remuneration
(c) Fair value of assets
(d) Fair value of shares.
(iii) As per Accounting Standard.28, an impairment loss should be recognised
whenever the recoverable amount of an asset is less than its .
(a) Original cost
(b) Opportunity cost
(c) Carrying amount
(d) None of the above.

(iv) When a company issues debentures at par or at a discount which are redeemable
at a premium, the premium payable on redemption of the debentures is to be
treated as .
(a) Revenue loss
(b) Capital loss
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above.
(v) Expenses incidental to the creation and floatation of a company are called .
(a) Underwriting expenses
(b) Preliminary expenses
(c) Trade expenses
(d) Establishment expenses.
(1 mark each)
(c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate
word(s)/figure(s) :

(i) Section 81 of the Companies Act, 1956, provides that where a public company
proposes to increase its subscribed capital at any time after the expiry of
___________ year(s) of its formation or at any time after the expiry of
___________ year(s) from the first allotment of shares whichever is earlier, it
should satisfy certain conditions.
(ii) Preliminary expenses being of capital nature may be written-off against
___________.
(iii) Goodwill is an intangible asset, but is not a ___________ asset.
(iv) Accumulated losses of the subsidiary company upto the date of acquisition of
shares by the holding company are called ___________ losses.
(v) International Accounting Standards are issued by the ___________.
(1 mark each)
2. (a) Calculate the value of one equity share from the following information :
(i) 60,000 equity shares of `10 each, `7 paid-up.
(ii) `2,00,000, 10% preference shares of `100 each, fully paid-up.
(iii) Expected annual profits before tax `4,00,000.
(iv) Tax rate 35%.
(v) Transfer to general reserve 20% of profits every year.
(vi) Normal rate of return 20%.
(6 marks)

(b) KBC Ltd. issued 50,000 equity shares. The whole of the issue was underwritten as
follows :
Underwriter . K : 40%
Underwriter . B : 30%
Underwriter . C : 30%
Applications for 40,000 shares were received in all, out of which applications for
10,000 shares had the stamp of Underwriter . K; those for 5,000 shares that of
Underwriter . B; and those for 10,000 shares for Underwriter . C.
The remaining applications for 15,000 shares did not bear any stamp.
Determine the liability of the underwriters.
(5 marks)
(c) Write a note on 'buy-back of shares'.
(4 marks)
3. (a) The following are the balance sheets of H Ltd. and its subsidiary S Ltd. as on
31st March, 2012 :
Equity and Liabilities H Ltd. S Ltd.
(`) (`)
Shareholders' funds :
Share capital
Shares of `100 each fully paid 5,00,000 2,00,000
Reserves and surplus :
General reserve 1,00,000 .
Profit and loss account 80,000 (.)1,00,000
Non-current liabilities :
6% Debentures . 1,00,000
Current liabilities :
Trade payables 75,000 45,000
7,55,000 2,45,000
Assets
Non-current assets :
Fixed assets 3,50,000 1,50,000
Non-current investments :
6% Debentures in S Ltd. (acquired at cost) 60,000 .
1,500 Shares in S Ltd. at `80 each 1,20,000 .
Current assets :
Inventories 90,000 40,000
Trade receivables 60,000 30,000
Cash 75,000 25,000
7,55,000 2,45,000

H Ltd. acquired the shares on 1st August, 2011. The profit and loss account of S Ltd.
showed a debit balance of `1,50,000 on 1st April, 2011. During June, 2011 goods
of S Ltd. costing `6,000 were destroyed by fire against which insurer paid
only `2,000. Trade payables of S Ltd. include `20,000 for goods supplied by H Ltd.
on which H Ltd. made a profit of `2,000. Half of the goods were still in stock on
31st March, 2012.
Prepare a consolidated balance sheet and show the complete working.
(9 marks )
(b) Shreya Ltd. had an issue of 1,000, 12% redeemable preference shares of `100 each,
repayable at a premium of 10%. These shares are to be redeemed now out of the
accumulated reserves, which are more than the necessary sum required for redemption.
Show the necessary entries in the books of the company, assuming that the premium
on redemption of shares has to be written off against the company's securities premium
reserve account.
(6 marks)
4. (a) A limited company issued a prospectus inviting applications for 30,000 shares of `10
each at a premium of `2 per share. The amount was payable as follows :
`
On application . 2
On allotment . 5 (including premium)
On first call . 3
On second and final call . 2
Applications were received for 45,000 shares and allotment was made on pro-rata basis
to the applicants of 36,000 shares. Money overpaid on applications was employed on
account of sum due on allotment.
Ramesh, to whom 600 shares were allotted, failed to pay the allotment money and on
his subsequent failure to pay the first call, his shares were forfeited. Mohan, the holder
of 900 shares failed to pay the two calls and his shares were forfeited after the second
and final call.
Of the shares forfeited, 1,200 shares were sold to Krishna credited as fully paid for
`9 per share, the whole of Ramesh's share being included.
Show journal and cash book entries and prepare the balance sheet.
(12 marks)

(b) Explain the nature of profit or loss prior to incorporation. How is it treated in the
books of accounts ?
(3 marks)

PART . B
(Answer Question No.5 which is compulsory
and any two of the rest from this part.)
5. (a) State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are true or false :
(i) Cost sheet is the same as statement of cost and profit.
(ii) Zero base budgeting is based on incremental approach.
(iii) When a factory operates at full capacity, fixed cost also becomes relevant for
make or buy decisions.
(iv) Marginal costing is different from direct costing.
(v) Management accounting is based on double entry system.
(2 marks each)

(b) Write the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the following :
(i) The rate of change of labour force in an organisation during a specified period
is called .
(a) Labour efficiency
(b) Labour turnover
(c) Labour productivity
(d) None of the above.
(ii) Differential cost analysis is incorporated in the .
(a) Cost books
(b) Financial books
(c) Statutory books
(d) None of the above.
(iii) Marginal costing is a very useful technique to management for .
(a) Cost control
(b) Profit planning
(c) Decision making
(d) All of the above.
(iv) When prices of materials have a rising trend, then the suitable method for issuing
the materials will be .
(a) FIFO
(b) LIFO
(c) HIFO
(d) Standard cost price.

(v) Cash flow statement is required for the financial planning of .
(a) Short range
(b) Long range
(c) Medium range
(d) Very long range.
(1 mark each)
(c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate
word(s)/figure(s) :
(i) A document which provides for assembly of different costs in respect of a cost
centre or a cost unit is called _____________.
(ii) Economic order quantity depends on _____________ and _____________ costs.
(iii) In case the amount of overheads recovered from production is more than the
actual overheads, there is said to be _____________ of overheads.
(iv) Abnormal idle time cost should be charged to _____________.
(v) Bin card shows ____________ at any moment of time.
(1 mark each)

6. (a) From the following particulars relating to Genius Ltd., prepare balance sheet as on
31st March, 2013 :
Fixed assets/turnover ratio (based on sale) 1:2
Debt collection period 2 months
Gross profit 25%
Consumption of raw materials 40% of cost of goods sold
Stock of raw materials 4 months consumption
Finished goods 20% of turnover at cost
Fixed assets to current assets 1:1
Current ratio 2
Long-term loan to current liability 1:3
Capital to reserve 5:2
Cost of fixed assets `10,50,000
(12 marks)

(b) Marginal costing rewards sales whereas absorption costing rewards production. Comment.
(3 marks)

7. (a) From the information given below prepare cash flow statement for Smile Ltd. :
Balance Sheets
As on As on
31-03-2012 31-03-2013
(` in '000) (` in '000)
Equity and liabilities
Shareholders' funds :
Share capital 1,800 2,000
Reserves and surplus :
General reserve 50 30
Profit and loss account 140 160
Non-current liabilities :
Loan on mortgage @ 8%
(taken on 1st July, 2012) . 50
Current liabilities :
Bank overdraft 115 114
Trade payables 22 40
Short-term provisions :
Provision for final dividend 90 80
2,217 2,474
Assets
Non-current assets :
Freehold building 1,000 1,160
Machinery and plant 340 490
Furniture and fittings 7 6
Goodwill 150 130
Investment in shares 100 120
Preliminary expenses 15 5
Current assets :
Inventories 440 422
Trade receivables 160 134
Prepaid expenses 4 5
Cash in hand 1 2
2,217 2,474

Additional information :
(i) Depreciation on freehold building @ 2½% on cost `12,00,000; on machinery
and plant @ 10% on cost `5,00,000; on furniture and fitting @ 5% on cost
`10,000.
(ii) Dividend received `6,000 was used in writing down the book value of investment
in shares.

(iii) Goodwill was written off out of general reserve.
(iv) The proposed dividend for the year ended 31st March, 2012 was paid off and
interim dividend of `60,000 was paid out of profit and loss account.
(12 marks)
(b) Distinguish between 'production account' and 'cost sheet'.
(3 marks)
8. (a) The following data are available in a manufacturing company for a year period :
(` in lakhs)
Fixed expenses :
Wages and salaries 9.50
Rent, rates and taxes 6.60
Depreciation 7.40
Sundry administrative expenses 6.50
Semi-variable expenses (at 50% capacity) :
Maintenance and repairs 3.50
Indirect labour 7.90
Sales department salaries, etc. 3.80
Sundry administrative expenses 2.80
Variable expenses (at 50% of capacity) :
Materials 21.70
Labour 20.40
Other expenses 7.90
98.00
Assume that fixed expenses remain constant for all levels of production, semi-variable
expenses remain constant between 45% and 65% of capacity and increasing by 10%
between 65% and 80% capacity and by 20% between 80% and 100% capacity.
Sales at various levels are . at 50% capacity : `100 lakh; at 60% capacity : `120
lakh; at 75% capacity : `150 lakh; at 90% capacity : `180 lakh; and at 100% capacity :
`200 lakh.
Prepare a flexible budget for the year and forecast the profits at 60%, 75%, 90% and
100% of capacity.
(9 marks)

(b) A company has fixed expenses of `90,000 with sales of `3,00,000 and a profit
of `60,000 during the first half year. If in the next half year, the company suffered
a loss of `30,000.
Calculate .
(i) P/V ratio, break-even point and margin of safety for the first half year.
(ii) Expected sales volume for next half year assuming that selling price and fixed
expenses remain unchanged.
(iii) The break-even point and margin of safety for the whole year.
(6 marks)
.
Contact Details:
The Institute of Company Secretaries of India
C-37,
Sector 62,
Noida,
Uttar Pradesh 201301 ‎
0120 452 2058
India

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