TNPSC AE ECE post exam model papers

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1. A shopkeeper sells 10 toffees for a
rupee, gaining thereby 20%. How
many did he buy for a rupee?
A. 11 C. 15
B. 12 D. 13
2. If 2A=3B=4C, then A : B : C is
A. 2 : 3: 4 C. 6 : 4 : 3
B. 4 : 3 : 2 D. 3 : 4 : 6
3. If the selling price of an article is
4
3
times of its cost price, then the
profit percentage is
A. 33
1
3
C.
20
1
2
B.
25
4
D.
3 4. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5.
If each number is increased by 10,
the ratio becomes 5 : 7. The
numbers are
A. 3, 5 C. 15, 25
B. 12, 20 D. 18, 30
5. Median of x = {10, 2, 14, 5, 8, 16} is
A. 8 C. 10
B. 9 D. 11
6. Which one of the following
properties is not satisfied by mean?
A. It is a simple measure
B. It is easy to compute
C. It is a stable measure
D. It is not affected by extreme
values.
7. If L and S are the largest and
smallest values of a data, then the
range is measured by the formula
A. L + S C. S – L
B. L – S D. LS
8. If the standard deviation of {x1, x2,
x3} is 2, then the standard deviation
of {x1 +5, x2+ 5, x3 + 5} is
A. 0 C. 5
B. 2 D. 7
9. Which one of the following is not
correct?
A. CPU is a hardware
B. WRITE is a FORTRAN command
C. VDU is software
D. DIR is a computer command
10. What is the decimal equivalent for
(10110)2?
A. 12 C. 32
B. 22 D. 42
11. IDBI is a subsidiary of
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. State Bank of India
C. National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development
D. None of these
12. What type of Bank rate is followed
in India?
A. Discount rate
B. Penal rate
C. Accommodate rate
D. None of these
13. Statutory meeting relates to
A. Private Company
B. Foreign Company
C. Public Company
D. Chartered Company
14. Which is the most activity-wise
small scale industrial unit in Tamil
Nadu?
A. Food processing
B. Textile processing
C. Metal processing
D. Paper processing
15. Which district stands first in the
ratio of male-female in Tamil Nadu?
A. Madurai
B. Tiruchirapalli
C. Salem
D. Tuticorin
16. The author of the book Ain-i-Akbari
was
A. Abul Fazl
B. Amir Khushru
C. Abul Faizi
D. Nizamuddin Ahmed.
17. Match List I correctly with List II
and select your answer using the
codes given below:
List I
a. Raja Rammohan Roy
b. Swami Vivekananda
c. Dayananda Saraswati
d. Madam Blavatsky
List II
1. Arya Samaj
2. Ramkrishna Paramahamsa
3. Brahmo Samaj
4. Theosophical Society
Codes :
a b c d
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 2 1 4
D. 4 1 2 3
18. Choose the correct statement :
A. Kashi Central Hindu College was
established in 1891
B. Aligarh Movement was started
by Muhammed Ali Jinnah
C. Aligarh Muslim University was
established in 1920
D. Visvabharati University was
started by Devendranath Tagore.
19. Which one of the following is not
correctly matched?
A. Bhagat Singh – “Delhi Chalo”
B. Dayanand Saraswati – “Go back
to Vedas”
C. Gandhiji – “Untouchability is a
Crime”
D. Nehru – “Long years ago we
have made tryst with destiny”
20. From the names given below,
identify the name of the first Prime
Minister of India :
A. Rajaji
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Rajendra Prasad
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
TNPSC CSS-I ORIGINAL PAPER
EXAM HELD ON 7-1-07 – FULLY SOLVED
Questions : 200 H DEGREE STD., H Marks : 300
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & GENERAL ENGLISH
2
21. MISA was passed in
A. 1950 C. 1970
B. 1963 D. 1971
22. Prime Minister of India is
A. the leader of the Rajya Sabba
B. the leader of the Lok Sabha
C. the leader of the masses
D. none of them
23. The retirement age of a Supreme
Court Judge is
A. 60 years
B. 64 years
C. 62 years
D. 65 years
24. Which of the following languages
is not included in the Eighth
Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
A. Urdu C. English
B. Sanskrit D. Sindhi
25. In which conference, in the year
1944, the Justice Party was
reorganised into Dravidar
Kazhagam?
A. Madras
B. Kancheepuram
C. Madurai
D. Salem
26. Which model is the base for the
First Five-Year Plan?
A. Lewis model
B. Mahalanobis model
C. Harrod-Doman model
D. Keynesian model
27. The Deputy Chairman of the
Planning Commission
A. is the Prime Minister
B. is the Planning Minister
C. holds the rank of a Cabinet
Minister
D. is an economist of repute.
28. The headquarters of World Health
Organisation is located at
A. Geneva C. New York
B. Washington D. London
29. What is the purpose for which the
treasury bills are issued?
A.Very short term liability of the
Government
B. Short term liability of the
Government
C. Mid-term liability of the
Government
D. The commercial paper market
30. The ICICI promotes
A. private sector
B. public sector
C. joint sector
D. co-operative sector
31. Who was the last of the later Chola
Kings?
A. Raja Raja III C. Kulottunga III
B. Rajendra III D. Veera Rajendra
32. ‘Man is a social animal’ – Who said
this?
A.Comte C. Aristotle
B. Spencer D. MacIver
33. Folkways are mostly dealt with by
A. Summer C. Spencer
B. Comte D. MacIver
34. Which one of the following
introduced the process of
Aryanization in Tamil language?
A. Sanskrit elements
B. British aspects
C. Western elements
D. Varnas
35. One of the founders of the Justice
Party was
A. P.T. Rajan
B. C.N. Annadurai
C. K. Kamaraj
D. Bhaktavatsalam
36. The Constitution of India was adopted
on
A. 25th August, 1947
B. 26th January, 1950
C. 26th November, 1949
D. 11th January, 1948
37. How many representatives are
being sent by the union territories
to the Lok Sabha?
A. 10 C. 25
B. 20 D. 45
38. Which one of the following Articles
of the Constitution of India directs
State Government to organise
Village Panchayat?
A. Article 51 C. Article 48
B. Article 40 D. Article 32
39. The President of India is elected for
A. life C. 5 years
B. 4 years D. 6 years
40. In the Lok Sabha who discharges
the duties of the Speaker during
his absence?
A.Vice-President
B. Home Minister
C. Finance Minister
D. Deputy Speaker
41. Who was the first Muslim ruler of
Delhi?
A. Iltutmish
B. Balban
C. Qutbuddin Aibak
D. Mahmud of Ghazni
42. When was the ‘National Museum’
established in Delhi?
A. 1947
B. 1949
C. 1948
D. 1950
43. Which one of the following is
correctly matched?
A. Brahma – Creation
B. Vishnu – Destruction
C. Shiva – Maya
D. Shakti – Preservation
44. Ethics is the study of
A. theory of behaviour
B. theory of activity
C. theory of karma
D. theory of morality
45. Logic is a (an)
A. objective science
B. normative science
C. descriptive science
D. natural science
46. Natural poetic philosopher is
A. Sri Aurobindo
B. Bharathiyar
C. Tagore
D. Subramaniya Sivam
47. The Integral Advaitism is advocated
by
A. Gandhiji
B. Sri Aurobindo
C. J. Krishnamurthy
D. Dr. Radhakrishnan
48. The saint who lived at Thillai was
A. Nedumarar
B. Sadaiyanar
C. Thiruneelakandar
D. Gananadhar
49. Which one of the following is
correctly matched?
A. Arunagiri Nadhar
– Thencherimalai
B. Kumara Devar
– Thirukuntram
C. Manikkavasagar
– Thirumandapam
D. Gnana Sambandhar
– Thiruvenkadu
3
50. “Free Labourers' Party” was
founded by
A. E.V. Ramasamy
B. Ambedkar
C. Dr.Muthulakshmi Reddy
D. C.N.Annadurai
51. Ajanta caves are located in the State
of
A. Maharashtra
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Orissa
D. Karnataka
52. The longest rail route in India is
A. Delhi – Mumbai
B. Delhi – Kolkata
C. Guwahati – Thiruvananthapuram
D. Amritsar – Puri
53. Periyar Wildlife Sacturay is
situated in the State of
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Andhra Pradesh
54. Match List I correctly with List II
and select your answer using the
codes given below :
List I List II
a. Seismograph 1. Himalayas
b. Deccan Plateau 2. Andaman
c. Barren Island 3. Earthquake
d. Tethys Sea 4. Basalt Lava
Codes :
a b c d
A. 1 2 4 3
B. 2 3 1 4
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 2 1 4 3
55. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : In recent decades,
villages between Kombai and
Bodinaickanur in Theni district of
Tamil Nadu suffer severely from
sandstorms.
Reason (R) : These villages lie in the
rain-shadow regions of the
Western Ghats.
Now select your answer according
to the coding scheme given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation
of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
56. Rapid and sudden sliding of large
mass of mixture of snow/ice with
rock materials is
A. Landslide C. Rockslide
B. Avalanche D. Tsunami
57. Pick the correct statement from the
following:
A. Kaziranga National Park is unique
among Indian wildlife habitats for
Rhino and Wild Buffalo.
B. Kaziranga National Park is unique
among Indian wildlife habitats for
Lions and Wild Buffalo.
C. Kaziranga National Park is unique
among Indian wildlife habitats for
Tigers and Elephants.
D. Kaziranga National Park is unique
among Indian wildlife habitats for
Elephants and Lions.
58. INSAT II-B was successfully
launched in
A. July, 1993
B. April, 1975
C. July, 1979
D. November, 1981
59. Red soil is fond widely in
A. Gangetic plain
B. Peninsular India
C. Himalayan mountain
D. Coastal plains
60. Coffee cultivation in India is in the
state of
A. Kerala
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Himachal Pradesh
61. Which one of the following
universities was started in the year
1983?
A. Madurai Kamarajar University
B. Periyar University
C. Mother Teresa Women's
University
D. Madras University
62. In which year was ‘Local Self
Government’ established in India?
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1911
D. 1910
63. Which one of the following is
correctly matched?
A. National Game – Cricket
B. National Tree – Banyan tree
C. National Flower – Rose
D. National Animal – Lion
64. Consider the following statements:
I. Free verses are different from
traditional verses.
II. So, free verses have no
grammatical boundaries.
Of the statements :
A. Both are correct
B. Both are wrong
C. I alone is correct
D. II alone is correct
65. Which one of the following is
correctly matched?
A. Vanamamalai – Folklore
B. Agasthialingam – Literature
C. Kailasapathy – Linguistics
D. Cenavaraiyar – Folk dance
66. Which one of the following is the
first novel in Tamil?
A. Kamalambal Charithiram
B. Prathapa Mudaliar Charithiram
C. Padmavathi Charithiram
D. Mohamul
67. In which year was Tamil Virtual
University inaugurated?
A. 2000 C. 2002
B. 2001 D. 2003
68. Who among the Chief Ministers of
Tamil Nadu introduced the Nutrition
Meals Schemes?
A. Bhaktavatsalam
B. Kamaraj
C. Karunanidhi
D. M.G.Ramachandran
69. In which year was the Madras
University established?
A. 1857 C. 1887
B. 1887 D. 1926
70. Match List I correctly with List II
and select your answer using the
codes given below :
List I
a. Parthasarathy
b. K.V. Manisekharan
c. Prabhanjan
d. Balakumaran
List II
1. Merkuri Pookkal
2. Kakkai Chiraginile
3. Kurinjimalar
4. Nilachoru
Codes :
a b c d
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 1 3 2
4
71. The institute which gives primary
importance to agriculture in Tamil
Nadu is located at
A. Mudumalai
B. Kooduvancheri
C. Coimbatore
D. Budhanoor
72. The person responsible for the
Poondi Drinking Water Project was
A. Rajaji
B. Sathyamurthy
C. Kamaraj
D. Bakthavathsalam
73. The first satellite sent India is
A. Apollo - 7 C. Bhaskara
B. Aryabhatta D. Apple
74. Which of the following animals was
killed by the car of Manuneedhi
Chola's son?
A. Kitten C. Puppy
B. Lamb D. Calf
75. If 30% of a certain number is 12-
6, then the number is
A. 41 C. 43
B. 42 D. 40
76. Fast track courts were launched by
Centre on
A. April 1, 2001
B. May 10, 2002
C. June 15, 2000
D. None of these
77. In which year did India become the
founder member of WTO?
A. 1985 C. 1994
B. 1990 D. 1996
78. Which of the following districts
ranks first on the basis of
population density (2001)?
A. Coimbatore
B. Tiruchirapalli
C. Salem
D. Chennai
79. Which State has the highest density
of population as per the 2001
Census?
A. Kerala
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D.West Bengal
80. Who is the present Lok Sabha
Speaker?
A. A.B. Bardhan
B. Jyoti Basu
C. Somnath Chatterjee
D. None of them
81. Insectivorous plants capture insects
for obtaining
A. calcium C. carbon
B. nitrogen D. cobalt
82. The protein essential for chromatin
formation is
A. Actin C. Histone
B. Tubulin D. Myosin
83. The treatment of milk to eliminate
pathogenic bacteria is known as
A. isolation C. pasteurization
B. sterilisation D. fermentation
84. The five kingdom concept was
proposed by
A. Linnaeus C. Theophrastus
B. Whittaker D. John Ray
85. The nucleolus is rich in
A. DNA and proteins
B. DNA and lipids
C. RNA and lipids
D. RNA and proteins
86. “One gene – one enzyme
hypothesis” was coined by
A. Henry Osborn
B. Beadle and Tatum
C. Jacob and Monod
D. Best and Tailor
87. World Environment Day is
A. 21st March
B. 5th June
C. 1st December
D. 2nd December
88. Instrument used to measure the
blood pressure is
A. Sphygmomanometer
B. Blood pressure meter
C. Thermometer
D. Stethoscope
89. Natality is
A. birth rate C. death rate
B. survival rate D. none of these
90. Diphtheria disease is connected
with
A. lungs C. throat
B. liver D. blood
91. Sound travels at maximum speed in
A. vacuum C. air
B. water D. steel
92. A woman's voice is shriller than a
man's voice due to
A. higher frequency
B. higher amplitude
C. lower frequency
D. weak vocal chords
93. Which one of the following devices
convert electrical energy into
mechanical energy?
A. Dynamo
B. Electric motor
C. Transformer
D. Inductor
94. The process of nuclear fission
occurs mainly in
A. nuclear reactors
B. chemical reactions
C. hydrogen bomb
D. sun
95. The process responsible for the
enormous energy in the sun is
A. nuclear fission
B. nuclear fusion
C. the burning of gases
D. as yet unknown
96. Which one of the following is
correctly matched?
A. Vitamin A – Anaemia
B. Glucose – Eyesight
C. Iodine – Goitre
D. Cyanocobalamin – Diabetes
97. Which one of the following is neither
an element nor a compound?
A. Silver C. Air
B. Water D. Sucrose
98. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : Electric cookers are
coated with magnesium oxide.
Reason (R) : It protects them against
fire.
Now select your answer according
to the coding scheme given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
99. The element(s) which exist in liquid
state at room temperature is (are)
I. Sodium
II. Bromine
III. Mercury
IV. Magnesium
Of these :
A. I alone is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. all are correct
5
100. Which of the following is the correct
order of calorific values of fuel?
A. Hydrogen > Petrol > Wood
B. Wood > Hydrogen > Petrol
C. Petrol > Wood > Hydrogen
D.Wood > Petrol > Hydrogen
101. Find out the error :
As she is sick she walks slow
1 2 3 4
A. 1 C. 4
B. 2 D. 3
102. Adjective of ‘trouble’ is
A. trouble C. troublesome
B. troubled D. none of these
103. Find out the adverb
A. quickly C. hard
B. fresh D. just
104. Adjective of ‘space’ is
A. spacious C. spouse
B. specific D. spice
105. Find out the odd word :
A. funnily C. gamely
B. funkily D. gainful
106. Find out the odd word :
A. interview C. interviewer
B. interviewee D. intimate
107. Read the following passage :
Like South Indians, the Japanese
are rice-eaters. They are particular
about not leaving a single grain of
rice in the plate at the end of the
meal. They never waste anything.
................. never waste anything.
A. Romans C. Americans
B. Indians D. Japanese
108. Read the following passage :
The world is compared to a great
machinery. Every man is like a
wheel which, however tiny it maybe,
is essential for the running of the
machinery, which is to provide for
the hundreds of millions of people.
What is the world compared to?
A. The world is compared to a
computer.
B. The world is compared to a
workshop.
C. The world is compared to a
machinery.
D. The world is compared to a
mechanic.
109. Read the following passage :
Insects are small creatures having six
legs, no backbone and body divided into
three parts. They are the most plentiful
of all living creatures. From man's
point of view, insects can be divided
into two kinds.
............... are the most plentiful of
living creatures.
A. Reptiles
B. Herbivores
C. Insects
D. None
110. Read the following passage :
Lencho wrote a letter to God. The
postmaster and the postman
laughed at this. But the postmaster
admired his faith. He did not want
him to be disappointed. He gathered
some money and sent him under the
signature, ‘God’,
Who had sent the money?
A. Lencho
B. Postmaster
C. Postman
D. Lencho's brother
111. Fill in the blank with the correct tense
Malini and Susheela _____ (prepare)
for the exams now.
A. are preparing
B. were preparing
C. is preparing
D. have prepared
112. Plural form of ‘negro’ is
A. negro C. neglects
B. negroes D. none of these
113. Plural form of ‘species’ is
A. species C. spice
B. spices D. none of these
114. Plural form of ‘two’ is
A. two C. toes
B. twos D. none of these
115. Plural form of ‘medium’ is
A. media C. medicos
B. medium D. none of these
116. Select the past participle of ‘stand’:
A. stood
B. was standing
C. is standing
D. none of these
117. Find out the error :
It was a prettiest bird
1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 1
B. 2 D. 4
118. Find out the error :
We can see the stars in a sky
1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 1
B. 2 D. 4
119. Find out the error :
He was a nobler man
1 2 3 4
A. 2 C. 4
B. 1 D. 3
120. Find out the error :
He climbed at the tree
1 2 3 4
A. 4 C. 1
B. 2 D. 3
121. Choose the correct antonym :
Ravishankar had done a heroic deed.
A. courageous C. timid
B. brave D. difficult
122. Find out the word with a prefix:
A. income C. grateful
B. save D. strengthen
123. Find out the word with a prefix:
A. hill C. roughly
B. submarine D. growth
124. Find out the word with a prefix:
A. shortage C. brave
B. malpractice D. smooth
125. Find out the word with a suffix:
A. otherwise C. beside
B. quick D. hold
126. Find out the word with a suffix:
A. inland C. worth
B. lead D. golden
127. Find out the word with a suffix:
A. asleep C. punishment
B. cruel D. free
128. Select the future continuous
tense :
A. shall come
B. shall have been coming
C. is coming
D. shall be coming
129. Select the simple present tense:
A. I am going to the hospital.
B. They were listening to the teacher.
C. Empty vessels make much noise.
D. none of these.
130. Fill in the blank with the correct
tense.
I ............. (finish) my work by this
time next month.
A. will be finished
B. am finished
C. will have finished
D. will be finishing
6
131. Choose the correct synonym :
He taught the students to cultivate
their minds.
A. teach C. develop
B. trained D. change
132. Choose the correct synonym :
Mother Teresa's eyes lit up with
her usual kind smile.
A. cruel C. warm
B. sad D. style
133. Choose the correct synonym :
Some birds will fly away when the
weather turns cold:
A. sky C. report
B. climate D. reason
134. Choose the correct synonym :
Suddenly Rani heard the sound of
water trickling.
A. pouring C. crawling
B. dripping D. gushing
135. Choose the correct synonym :
The roads should be repaired
immediately.
A. at once C. slowly
B. belatedly D. hastily
136. Choose the correct synonym :
The policeman unlocked the cell.
A. opened C. widened
B. closed D. repaired
137. Choose the correct antonym :
They understood the weakness of
their enemy.
A. powers C. boldness
B. arms D. strength
138. Choose the correct antonym :
Everyone should give respect to
their parents.
A. disobey C. cheat
B. disrespect D. love
139. Choose the correct antonym :
The interior part of the earth
remains very hot.
A. inner C. outside
B. inside D. exterior
140. Choose the correct antonym :
It was a rough wooden bed.
A. smooth C. silky
B. soft D. rocky
141. Name the correct tense form of the
underlined words:
By this time day after tomorrow
I shall have reached my friend's
house.
A. Simple Past
B. Future Perfect
C. Future Continuous
D. Future Perfect continuous.
142. Select the correct tense :
After I ............. (finish) my work, I
went to bed.
A. has finished C. had finished
B. have finishedD. finished
143. Select the correct tense :
By this time tomorrow we ...........
(wait) here.
A. shall be waiting
B. waited
C. will wait
D. are waiting
144. Select the correct tense form of the
verb :
Columbus ................ (discover)
America.
A. will discover
B. discovered
C. was discovered
D. will be discovered
145. Fill in the blank :
I got my shirt ............. in blue.
A. dyed C. doer
B. died D. none of these
146. Fill in the blank :
Amul ......... of Gujarat supplies milk.
A. diary C. daily
B. dairy D. none of these
147. Fill in the blank :
He gave me a bearer.............
A. check C. cheque
B. chalk D. none of these
148. Select the suitable word :
Smoking ........ our health.
A. effect C. affects
B. defect D. none of these
149. Match the following Column A with
Column B :
Column A Column B
1. ancient a. unrefined
2. crude b. olden
3. invade c. refused
4. denied d. attack
Codes :
1 2 3 4
A. a b d c
B. b c d a
C. c a d b
D. b a d c
150. Match the following Column A with
Column B :
Column A Column B
1. gushing a. particle
2. speck b. perhaps
3. hanging c. bursting
4. probably d. suspending
Codes :
1 2 3 4
A. d c a b
B. b c d a
C. c a d b
D. a c d b
151. Fill in the blank with gerund :
It is wise ....................................... new
ideas.
A. to accept C. to be accepted
B. accepting D. accept
152. Fill in the blank with gerund :
It is our aim ................... the status
of women.
A. raising C. to raisen
B. to be raised D. to raising
153. Change the following Noun into Verb
form
‘acquisition’
A. acquisitive
B. acquisitiveness
C. acquire
D. none of these
154. Change the following Verb into Noun
form :
‘apply’
A. applied C. apply for
B. applicable D. application
155. Select the correct question tag:
He can't speak English
fluently.............?
A.Will he? C. Can he?
B. Does he? D. Did he?
156. Select the correct question tag:
I am right...................?
A. Aren't I? C. Have I?
B. Can I? D. Haven't?
157. Select the correct question tag:
Let's go to the beach .................?
A. Shall we? C. Haven't you?
B. Will you? D. Do you?
158. Select the correct question tag:
He has left already..............?
A. Hasn't he? C. Will he?
B. Doesn't he? D.Won't he?
7
159. Select the correct question tag:
He doesn't like tea ..............?
A. Does he? C. Will he?
B. Did he? D. Do he?
160. Select the correct question tag:
You didn't notice him ..............?
A. Don't you? C. Can you?
B. Did you? D.Will you?
161. Find out the error :
I have some book on Physics
1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 4
B. 2 D. 1
162. Identify the Imperative sentence:
A. She has completed it
B. How tall the building is?
C. Bring me the red file at once.
D. Can you come with me?
163. Identify the Interrogative sentence:
A. Where are you coming from?
B. He is a doctor
C. She wants to become a lawyer
D. What a lovely sight!
164. Identify the Passive voice :
A. He writes a story
B. My uncle presented my sister a
bangle
C. Let the door be opened
D. Raja was playing football
165. Identify the Present Perfect
Continuous Tense :
A. I like to dance
B. She is writing a letter now
C. Mohan is working in this office
D. Kamala has been serving in this
institution since 1985
166. Identify the Passive voice :
A. Let the patients not be disturbed
B. Rahim is a lawyer
C. He goes to Mumbai
D. Rani and Vimala are playing chess
167. Fill in the blank with the suitable
infinitive :
................. the mountain is
dangerous.
A. To be climbed
B. To climbing
C. To climb
D. none of these
168. Fill in the blank with the suitable
infinitive :
I was happy ................. the news.
A. to hearing C. heard
B. to be heard D. to hear
169. Fill in the blank with the suitable
infinitive :
The children are anxious ..........
A. to learn
B. to be learnt
C. to learning
D. to have been learnt
170. Fill in the blank with gerund :
................. too many sweets is bad
for health.
A. To eating
B. To be eaten
C. Ate
D. Eating
171. Identify the complex sentence:
A. On hearing be bell, the boys stood
up.
B. When the boys heard the bell,
they stood up.
C. The boys heard the bell and they
stood up.
D.We stood up on hearing the bell.
172. Identify the simple sentence :
A. Besides making a promise, she
kept it.
B. Come here now or you cannot
meet him.
C. Lalita was very weak but she
walked to her office.
D. She heard the news and at once
she began to cry.
173. Identify the simple sentence :
A. He is too weak to walk.
B. As Mary was rich she enjoyed all
luxuries.
C. He saves some money and so he
can buy a car.
D. The problem was very difficult
and so I cannot solve it.
174. Identify the complex sentence :
A. I saw a building which was
beautiful.
B. He was too foolish to follow me.
C. She obeys her husband's orders.
D. I do not know about his arrival.
175. Identify the odd word :
A. diplomat
B. statesman
C. ambassador
D. farmer
176. Find out the error :
I were received by the officers
1 2 3
at the airport
4
A. 4 C. 1
B. 2 D. 3
177. Find out the error :
The thief have been brought
1 3
to Chennai by van
3 4
A. 2 C. 4
B. 1 D. 3
178. Find out the error :
I does not know the answer
1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 2
B. 1 D. 4
179. Find out the error :
He is going to college on bus
1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 4
B. 2 D. 1
180. Find out the error :
Ramayana is a holy book
1 2 3 4
A. 4 C. 2
B. 3 D. 1
181. Identify the sentence pattern :
Raju presented me a dictionary.
A. SVO C. S.V.IO.DO
B. SVOA D. SVOC
182. Identify the sentence pattern :
They named him Diyana.
A. S.V.O.A C. A.S.V.C
B. S.V.O.C D. S.V.IO.DO
183. Identify the sentence pattern :
The children like sweets.
A. S.V.C
B. S.V.O
C. A.S.V.C
D. S.V.O.C
184. Identify the sentence pattern :
I met my uncle at the railway station.
A. S.V.O
B. S.V.O.A
C. S.V.O.C
D. S.V.IO.DO
185. Which of the following sentences
does not belong to the degrees of
comparison?
A. No other boy is as active as Raja.
B. Rani is the most obedient girl.
C. Have you finished your work?
D. Peacock is one of the most
beautiful birds.

186. Identify the superlative degree.
A. The gold is one of the costliest
metals.
B. Very few flowers are as beautiful
as lotus.
C. Rohini is not older than Krishna.
D. No other boy is so tall as Kumar.
187. Identify the degree :
Gopi was not so clever as Raghu.
A. Comparative degree
B. Superlative degree
C. Positive degree
D. None of these
188. Identify the correct degree :
No other leader was as famous as
Gandhiji.
A. Superlative degree
B. Comparative degree
C. Positive degree
D. None of these
189. Identify the correct degree:
Asoka is more famous than Babur.
A. Positive degree
B. Comparative degree
C. Superlative degree
D. None of these
190. Identify the compound sentence:
A. It is very cheap, but it is durable.
B. If you work hard, you will get
a prize.
C. Although it is very cheap, it is
durable.
D. People living in luxury, know
nothing about poverty.
191. Fill in the blank with article :
............... palm tree is generally very
tall.
A. The C. An
B. A D. No article
192. Fill in the blank with suitable
article:
Her husband is ............. shrewd
person.
A. the C. some
B. an D. a
193. Fill in the blank with suitable
article:
Germany is ........... European country.
A. a C. the
B. an D. no article
194. Fill in the blank with suitable
article:
Ramu is ............. engineer.
A. the C. a
B. an D. few
195. Fill in the blank with suitable
article:
The child is eating ............. apple.
A. a C. none
B. the D. an
196. Fill in the blank with suitable
preposition :
He has been trying ............. finish
the work.
A. to C. in
B. by D. with
197. Fill in the blank with suitable
preposition :
The mango was cut ............. my
brother.
A. to C. by
B. with D. at
198. Fill in the blank with suitable
preposition :
My house is ............. a lake.
A. by C. beside
B. at D. under
199. Fill in the blank with suitable
preposition :
He was waiting ............. the bus.
A. for C. with
B. to D. by
200. Fill in the blank with suitable
preposition :
He will come ............. Sunday.
A. on C. in
B. at D. by

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

As you want the question paper of TNPSC AE ECE post exam so here it is given below

1. Density of matter is
defined as
A. mass / volume
B. mass × volume
C. volume / mass
D. none of these
2. The resultant upthrust on a
body partly immersed in liquid
acts through
A. the centre of gravity
B. the metacentre
C. the centre of pressure
D. none of these
3. A transverse wave travels along
z-axis. The particles of the
medium travels along
A. z-axis C. y-axis
B. x-axis D. in x-y plane
4. Joule-Thomson cooling is
A. temperature dependent
B. temperature independent
C. dependent on the molecular
weight of the gas
D. dependent on the total mass of
the gas
5. The principle of action of points
is used in
A. capacitors
B. inductors
C. resistors
D. lightning arrestors
6. A jet engine works under the
principle of
A. mass
B. energy
C. linear momentum
D. angular momentum
7. To find the temperature of the
sun, the following law is used:
A. Charles’ law
B. Stefan’s fourth power law of
radiation
C. Boyle’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law
8. Calotropis is an example of the
following phyllotaxy:
A. opposite and decussate
B. spiral
C. whorled
D. alternate
9. Radio carbon dating is used to
A. find diseases
B. find the age of relics
C. find the carbon content in the
atmosphere
D. none of these
10. Frequency modulation is more
advantageous than amplitude
modulation because
A. there will be no distortion
B. distortion will be maximum
C. no internal noises produced
D. internal noises can be filtered
11. X-rays travel with the velocity of
A. light
B. sound
C. positive rays
D. alpha rays
12345678901234567890123456789012123456789012345678 901234567890121234567890123456789012345678901212
12345678901234567890123456789012123456789012345678 901234567890121234567890123456789012345678901212
12. A loudspeaker converts
A. electrical energy into sound
energy
B. sound energy into electrical
energy
C. small sound into a large sound
D. none of the above
13. The transverse wave nature of
light was proved by
A. interference C. polarisation
B. diffraction D. refraction
14. Electric iron takes a long time
to cool because of
A. greater emissivity
B. lesser emissivity
C. less absorptive power
D. more absorptive power
15. Helium is preferred to hydrogen
in airships because it
A. has greater lifting power
B. is less dense
C. cheaper
D. does not form explosive
mixture with air
16. Excessive consumption of
alcohol damages the
A. liver C. heart
B. kidneys D. lungs
17. Which of the following has the
smell of garlic?
A. White phosphorus
B. Red phosphorus
C. Phosphorus chloride
D. Phosphine
18. A common nitrogenous fertilizer is
A. urea
B. superphosphate
C. triple phosphate
D. potassium chloride
27. The acid which etches glass is
A. nitric acid
B. sulphuric acid
C. hydrofluoric acid
D. hypochlorous acid
28. Which of the following diseases
is likely to spread in the entire
community if a leaky septic tank
contaminates the water supply?
A. Cholera C. Tuberculosis
B. Cancer D. Leprosy
29. Yeast help in the production of
A. oxygen C. alcohol
B. glucose D. salts
30. Many pulses are obtained from
plants of the family
A. Euphorbiaceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Asteraceae
D. Musaceae
31. Which of the following
protozoans possesses definite
shape?
A. Amoeba
B. Paramecium
C. Both of these
D. None of these
32. Which of the following is used
for culture medium of bacterial
growth?
A. Iodine C. Sugar
B. Agar-Agar D. Alcohol
33. Malaria is caused by
A. virus C. protozoa
B. bacteria D. fungi
34. One of the following is the
simplest land plant:
A. Bryophytes C. Algae
B. Lichens D. Fungi
19. Which element is a metalloid in
the following?
A. Copper C. Aluminium
B. Arsenic D. Gold
20. Night blindness is caused due to
the deficiency of
A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B D. Vitamin E
21. Mercury is used in
thermometers because it
A. is heavy
B. is a liquid
C. expands uniformly
D. is a metal
22. Sodium chloride is the scientific
name of
A. common salt C. rust
B. soft coke D. chalk
23. Fresh foods and fruits contain
more of
A. proteins C. vitamins
B. fats D. carbohydrates
24. Electric bulbs are filled with
the gas
A. oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. argon
D. nitrogen
25. The sides of a match box
contains
A. red phosphorus
B. white phosphorus
C. phosphorus pentoxide
D. none of these
26. Penicillin was discovered by
A. Edward Jenner
B. J.C. Bose
C. Alexander Fleming
D. William Harvey
35. Bacteria generally multiply by
A. binary fission
B. multiple fission
C. longitudinal fission
D. all of these
36. Agar-agar is obtained from
A. gelidium C. ectocarpus
B. laminaria D. fucus
37. Which one of the following
animals is cold-blooded?
A. Pigeon C. Dog
B. Fish D. Man
38. Nitrogen fixation is done by
A. blue-green algae
B. green algae
C. brown algae
D. red algae
39. Which type of cancer is the most
common?
A. Carcinoma C. Lymphoma
B. Sarcoma D. Leukaemia
40. Which bacteria produce vinegar
in sugar solutions?
A. Escherichia
B. Acetobacter
C. Acetobacter aceti
D. Rhizobium
41. Baker’s yeast is
A. Zygosaccharomyces
octosporus
B. Saccharomyces cerevisae
C. Laminaria
D. S. Ludwigii
42. The tallest tree occurs in
A. Pteridophytes
B. Monocots
C. Gymnosperms
D. Dicots
43. Which of the following has been
identified as the main source of
environmental pollution in the
city of Delhi?
A. Automobiles
B. Cement Industry
C. Fertilizer Industry
D. Thermal Power Station
44. pH of water is
A. 4 C. 12
B. 7 D. 0
45. The deficiency of iodine causes
A. diabetes C. rickets
B. scurvy D. goitre
46. The poisonous substance that
is present in tobacco is
A. Morphine C. Nicotine
B. Aspirin D. Reserpine
47. Which one of the following is
excreted in Urine?
A. Sugar C. Protein
B. Creatin D. Fat
48. Who are more likely to get
tapeworm?
A. Fish eaters C. Meat eaters
B. Pork eaters D. Beef eaters
49. In which animal was the AIDS
virus first detected?
A. Rat C. Horse
B. Rabbit D. Monkey
50. Hargovind Khurana is credited
for the discovery of
A. synthesis of protein
B. synthesis of gene
C. synthesis of nitrogenous bases
D. none of these
51. Which one of the following
types of sex chromosomes
represents a male human being?
A. YY C. XY
B. XX D. XO
56. Ribosomes in a cell play a
significant role in
A. Lipid synthesis
B. Photosynthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Secretion
57. The first sermon of Gautam
Buddha was delivered at
A. Sarnath C. Gaya
B. Lumbini D. Kapilavastu
58. Who wrote Arthashastra?
A. Kautilya
B. Gandhiji
C. Nehruji
D. None of the above
59. Who was the first Muslim
invader of India?
A. Ghazni Mahmud
B. Ghori Mahmud
C. Aibak
D. Mohamed Bin Kasim
60. “Jazia Tax” was reimposed
during the reign of
A. Akbar C. Jahangir
B. Aurangzeb D. Humayun
61. The Battle of Plassey was fought
in the year
A. 1757 C. 1576
B. 1775 D. 1761
62. When was the Battle of Buxar
fought?
A. 1761 C. 1763
B. 1762 D. 1764
63. When was the Permananent
Land Revenue Settlement
introduced?
A. 1793 C. 1791
B. 1792 D. 1790
64. When did the rule of East India
Company come to an end?
A. 1857 C. 1859
B. 1858 D. 1860
52. Triple Antigen is administered
to prevent the attack of
A. diphtheria, tetanus and
tuberculosis
B. tetanus, tuberculosis and
malaria
C. diphtheria, tetanus and
whooping cough
D. diphtheria, tetanus and malaria
53. Match List I with List II
correctly and select your answer
using the codes given below:
List I
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast
C. Stomata
D. Cell wall
List II
1. Photosynthesis
2. Transpiration
3. Respiration
4. Osmosis
Codes:
a b c d
A. 1 3 4 2
B. 3 1 4 2
C. 1 3 2 4
D. 3 1 2 4
54. Nucleotide is made up of
I. Phosphoric acid
II. Deoxyribose sugar
III. Nitrogenous bases
Which one is correct?
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. III alone
55. A bacteriophage is
A. a bacterium living on dead tissue
B. a virus that attacks bacteria and
destroys them
C. a bacterium that fights viruses
D. a blue-green algae
65. Who is the first Indian Woman
Police Service Officer?
A. Kiran Bedi C. Sasikala
B. Chandrika D. Jaya
66. Who wrote the novel ‘Ponniyin
Selvan’?
A. Kalki
B. Kannadasan
C. Bharathiyar
D. Bharathidasan
67. Darwin wrote the book
A. Philosophic Zoologique
B. Systema Naturae
C. Origin of Species
D. Natural Selection in Evolution.
68. The Indian Ruler who fought
with Alexander the Great was
A. Porus
B. Asoka
C. Harsha
D. Chandragupta II
69. The longest river in the
Southern part of India is
A. Kaveri
B. Vaigai
C. Godavari
D. Mullai
70. Who is called as Nightingale of
India?
A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Subbu Lakshmi Reddy
C. Annie Beasant
D. Jhansi Rani
71. Which is the largest epic in the
World?
A. Mahabharata
B. Silappadhikaram
C. Manimekalai
D. Natrinai
72. Which city formulates the
Doctrine of Panchsheel?
A. Delhi C. London
B. Bandung D. Washington
73. Who was the father of Indian
Archaeology?
A. Major General Alexander
B. John Marshall
C. Smith
D. Herbert
74. By whose advice Sarafoji II built
the Saraswati Mahal Library?
A. Schwartz C. Caldwell
B. Ziegnbalg D. Plutchau
75. Which one of the following cities
is famous for the manufacture
of shoes?
A. Basti C. Indore
B. Mysore D. Batanagar
76. Which one of the following
states does not have a common
boundary with Bangladesh?
A. Meghalaya C. Nagaland
B. Tripura D. Mizoram
77. Which one of the following cities
is famous for the manufacture
of locks?
A. Hyderabad C. Nellore
B. Aligarh D. Nagpur
78. India’s naval base is located at
A. Mumbai
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Karwar
D. Tuticorin
79. According to 1991 census, in
which state do women outnumber
men?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu
86. Which one of the following is
not correctly matched?
A. Darjeeling - West Bengal
B. Mount Abu - Rajasthan
C. Kodaikanal - Tamil Nadu
D. Simla - Uttar Pradesh
87. Which state gets maximum
rainfall from North-east
monsoon?
A. Karnataka C. Gujarat
B. Tamil Nadu D. Maharashtra
88. Find the oddly matched pair:
A. Bose Research Institute -
Kolkata
B. Raman Research Institute -
Chennai
C. National Museum - New Delhi
D. Survey of India - Dehra Dun
89. Which Indian lake has high
salinity?
A. Dal C. Wular
B. Chilka D. Sambar
90. Match List I with List II
correctly and select your answer
using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. Srinagar 1. Krishna
B. Agra 2. Ganga
C. Varanasi 3. Yamuna
D. Vijayawada 4. Jhelum
Codes:
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 3 2 1 4
C. 2 1 4 3
D. 1 4 3 2
91. Oriental agriculture is practised in
A. Britain C. Arabia
B. Canada D. India
92. Through which state does the
Tropic of Cancer pass?
A. Bihar
80. Telugu Ganga Project is
associated with the river
A. Godavari C. Cauvery
B. Krishna D. Mahanadi
81. Which of the following takes
place due to deforestation?
A. Ground water depletion
B. Soil erosion
C. Foods
D. All of these
82. The basin area of Narmada lies
in which of the following states?
A. Maharashtra and Madhya
Pradesh
B. Maharashtra and Rajasthan
C. Maharashtra and Bihar
D. Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
83. Which one of the following is a
Kharif crop?
A. Wheat C. Pulses
B. Paddy D. Mustard
84. Match List I with List II
correctly and select your answer
using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. Titagarh 1. Fertilizer
B. Nepanagar 2. Paper
C. Sindri 3. Cement
D. Kutni 4. Newsprint
Codes:
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 2 1 4 3
C. 3 2 4 1
D. 2 4 1 3
85. Which one of the following is
not correctly matched?
A. Rourkela Steel Plant - Orissa
B. Bhilai Steel Plant -
Maharashtra
C. Durgapur Steel Plant - West
Bengal
D. Bokaro Steel Plant - Bihar
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Andhra Pradesh
93. The Reserve Bank of India was
started in
A. 1935 C. 1956
B. 1948 D. 1960
94. The First Five Year Plan was
launched in
A. 1948 C. 1956
B. 1951 D. 1960
95. The Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
Scheme is meant for
A. improving village economy
B. training urban house building
C. promoting small scale
industries
D. providing employment to rural
youth
96. The State which tops in the yield
of foodgrains per hectare is
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Haryana
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Punjab
97. In India the density of
population is highest in the
following state according to
1991 Census:
A. Kerala C. Bihar
B. Tamil Nadu D. West Bengal
98. Which crop is grown in largest
area in India?
A. Rice C. Jute
B. Sugarcane D. Wheat
99. Decimal coinage was introduced
in India in the year
A. 1957 C. 1955
B. 1957 D. 1960
100. As per the Land Ceiling Act,
ceiling on land holding in Tamil
Nadu is
A. 30 standard acres
B. 20 standard acres
C. 15 standard acres
D. 10 standard acres
101. The contribution of Agriculture
in Indian National Income is
nearly
A. 50% C. 75%
B. 38% D. 25%
102. The Bank which recently
launched a scheme ‘Swagat’ is
A. Punjab National Bank
B. Gujarat Bank Ltd
C. Punjab Bank
D. Canara Bank
103. The largest producer of fish in
the world is
A. China C. Japan
B. USSR D. Norway
104. A personal account cannot be
opened in
A. a Cooperative Bank
B. a Scheduled Bank
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. None of these
105. The First Five Year Plan
covered the period
A. 1947-52 C. 1951-56
B. 1950-55 D. 1952-57
106. Who has the authority to issue
one rupee currency note in India?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Union Finance Ministry
C. State Bank of India
D. President of India
107. Which one of the following
distributions is continuous?
A. Binomial C. Normal
B. Poisson D. None of these.
115. On what date did the
Constitution of India come into
force?
A. 14th August, 1947
B. 15th August, 1947
C. 26th January, 1950
D. 26th November, 1949
116. Who was the first Chief Justice
of free India?
A. Justice Mahajan
B. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
C. Justice Shelat
D. None of them
117. Which Article of the
Constitution gives the power to
dismiss a State Government?
A. 356 C. 17
B. 360 D. 365
118. Pondicherry’s capital is
A. Pondicherry
B. Mahi
C. Karaikkal
D. None of these
119. Who is the Lt.Governor of
Pondicherry?
A. Chaman Lal
B. Rajani Rai
C. Agarwal
D. None of them
120. Which is the capital of Assam?
A. Dispur
B. Raipur
C. Imphal
D. Panaji
121. Who is India’s Vice-President?
A. L.K. Advani
B. K.R. Narayanan
C. Krishna Kant
D. None of them
108. What is a Scheduled bank?
A. A bank having a deposit of
Rs.100 crores
B. A bank which has been
included in the Second
Schedule of Reserve Bank of
India
C. A bank having more than 100
branches
D. A bank for scheduled caste
109. Agricultural Income Tax is
levied in Tamil Nadu by
A. the State Government
B. Municipalities
C. Panchayats
D. None of these
110. Among the various types of
income from an industrial
activity one of the following is
uncertain:
A. Rent C. Interest
B. Wages D. Profit
111. What is the link-language of
India?
A. English C. French
B. Greek D. Hindi
112. What is the minimum age to
become a Governor?
A. 25 C. 35
B. 30 D. 60
113. What is the life of the Rajya
Sabha?
A. 6 years C. Permanent
B. 5 years D. None of these
114. Who appoints the Prime
Minister of India?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. President of India
D. Chief Justice of India
122. Who is India’s Finance Minister?
A. T.R. Balu
B. Jaswant Singh
C. Yashwant Sinha
D. None of them
123. Who is India’s Home Minister?
A. Ram Naik
B. Jaswant Singh
C. L.K. Advani
D. None of them
124. Who is India’s Minister for
Agriculture?
A. Nitish Kumar
B. Advani
C. Uma Bharti
D. None of them
125. Who is the Supreme commander
of Indian Defence Forces?
A. Prime Minister
B. Defence Minister
C. President
D. None of them
126. Who can be the Ex-officio
Chairman of the Planning
Commission in India?
A. President
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Home Minister
127. The Vice-President of India is
elected by
A. Members of the Lok Sabha
B. Members of the Rajya Sabha
C. Members of Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha
D. Members of State Assemblies
128. The second largest spoken
language in India is
A. Tamil C. Punjabi
B. Bengali D. Telugu
129. When was the partition of
Bengal revoked by the British
Government?
A. 1911 A.D. C. 1917 A.D.
B. 1914 A.D. D. 1919 A.D.
130. Quit India Movement was
adopted by Indian National
Congress at
A. Bombay C. Pune
B. Ahmedabad D. Calcutta
131. Who was the President of the
Indian National Congress during
Moderate-Extremist split?
A. Rashbehari Bose
B. Pheroze Shah Mehta
C. Madan Mohan Malaviya
D. Bipin Chandra Pal
132. Who was the President of
Indian National Congress
during 1886, 1889 and 1906?
A. A.O. Hume
B. Badruddin Tyabji
C. W.C. Banerjee
D. Dadabhai Naoroji
133. Dadabhai Naoroji is a (an)
A. moderate
B. extremist
C. terrorist
D. none of these
134. Bal Gangadhar Tilak is
A. a moderate
B. an extremist
C. a terrorist
D. none of these
135. Who among the following are
the extremists?
A. Dadabhai Naoroji and
Badruddin Tyabji
B. Surendranath Banerjee and
Madan Mohan Malaviya
142. The Moplah Rebellion was
broken out in 1921 in?
A. Kerala
B. Punjab
C. Madras
D. Uttar Pradesh
143. The boundary between India and
Pakistan was demarcated by
A. Sir Cyril Radcliffe
B. Lord Mountbatten
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lawrence
144. Who among the following
attended the three Round Table
Conferences?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Madan Mohan Malaviya
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. B.R. Ambedkar
145. Who inaugurated the individual
Satyagraha in 1940?
A. M.K. Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
D. Sardar Vallbhbhai Patel
146. Against what did Gandhiji start
the Satyagraha Sabha in 1919?
A. Indian Council Act.1909
B. Rowlatt Act
C. Government of India Act,
1919
D. Jallianwala Bag massacre
147. Who is the author of ‘Wings of
Fire’?
A. Khushwant Singh
B. Abdul Kalam
C. Arun Shourie
D. Frank Moraes
148. What is ‘Mir’?
A. Russian Space Station
B. American Space Station
C. Indian Space Station
D. None of these
C. W.C. Banerjee and Pheroze
Shah Mehta
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Shri
Aurobindo
136. Who established the Bihari
Students Conference?
A. Sri Aurobindo
B. W.C. Banerjee
C. Bipin Chandra Pal
D. Rajendra Prasad
137. Who drafted the first Indian
Draft Swaraj Constitution?
A. Vijyaraghavachariar
B. T.T. Krishnamachari
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
138. Who prepared the Preamble of
the Indian Constitution?
A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Rajendra Prasad
139. Who founded the English
Weekly ‘New India’?
A. Bipin Chandra Pal
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
140. Who among the following is
remembered as Lokmanya?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Bipin Chandra Pal
C. Lala Lajpat Rai
D. Dadabhai Naoroji
141. An artificial gene was created in
a test tube in 1970 by
A. Khurana
B.Wilhelm
C.Watson
D. Crick.
149. Which one of the following
vitamins is produced in the
sunrays?
A.Vitamin A C. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B D.Vitamin D
150. Who is the author of ‘Discovery
of God’?
A. Raziq Zakaria
B. Abdul Kalam
C. Dr.S. Radhakrishnan
D. None of them
151. Who is the Secretary-General
of UNO in 2001?
A. Kofi Annan C. George Bush
B. Robert D. Bill Clinton
152. Who is awarded the Gandhi
Peace Prize for 2000?
A. Bill Clinton
B. Nelson Mandela
C. K.R. Guptaji
D. None of them
153. Who is India’s first ever woman
Foreign Secretary?
A. Chokila Iyer
B. Padma Priya
C. Mamta Banerjee
D. None of them
154. Who is the new Indian
Ambassador to USA in 2001?
A. Lalit Mansingh
B. M.K. Rao
C. K.C. Pant
D. None of them
155. The first recipient of Bharat
Ratna was
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Govind Vallabh Pant
C. B.C.Roy
D. C.V.Raman
156. Who is India’s Chief Election
Commissioner?
A. M.S. Gill
B. T.N. Seshan
C. P.K. Rao
D. None of them
157. Where would the bacterium
E.Coli be readily found?
A. Soil
B. Ponds
C. Human intestine
D. Refuse dumps.
158. Who is the Registrar General
and Census Commissioner of
India in 2001?
A. J.K. Banthia
B. M.S. Gill
C. T.N. Seshan
D. None of them
159. What was the average literacy
rate according to 1991 census
in India?
A. 40 per cent C. 48 per cent
B. 42 per cent D. 52 per cent
160. Which among the following is
the oldest dynasty?
A. Kanva C. Maurya
B. Kushan D. Sunga
161. For what Mundandurai is
especially famous for?
A. Horses C. Tigers
B. Cows D. Dogs
162. For what Koonthankulam in
Tamil Nadu is noted for?
A. Birds
B. Flowers
C. Teakwood
D. None of these
170. Which is the capital of
Bangladesh?
A. Dhaka C. Lahore
B. Karachi D. None of these
171. In which conference, the
Panchsheel was given?
A. Bandung C. Bangalore
B. Cairo D. None of these
172. Where is the headquarters of
ILO?
A. Rome C. London
B. Mecca D. Geneva
173. Among the following, which
country has an Unwritten
Constitution?
A. India C. France
B. Japan D. England
174. Where is Mount Abu?
A. India C. Pakistan
B. China D. None of these
175. Where is the Indian Institute of
Science?
A. Bangalore C. Chennai
B. New Delhi D. Mumbai
176. Nasik is on the banks of the river
A. Godavari C. Cauvery
B. Sutlej D. Vaigai
177. What book did V.O.
Chidambaram author?
A. Meyyarivu
B. Veera Viduthalai
C. Pennin Perumai
D. None of these
178. Who is the author of
‘Gitanjali’?
A. Tagore
B. Bharathiyar
C. Bharathidasan
D. Kannadasan
179. IDBI is a
A. Bank C. Committee
B. Board D. Centre
163. Where is Agasthiar falls in Tamil
Nadu?
A. Courtallam
B. Kumarar Kovil
C. Papanasam
D. Kalakkad
164. Where is Manonmaniam
Sundaranar University in Tamil
Nadu?
A. Chennai C. Tiruchi
B. Thanjavur D. Tirunelveli
165. "Saraswati Pandaram" was a
A. kitchen C. library
B. treasury D. shrine
166. Which falls is called as ‘The Spa
of the South’?
A. Manimuthar
B. Kodaikanal
C. Courtallam
D. None of these
167. Who among the following gave
a suitable definition for
democracy?
A. Lincoln
B. Washington
C. J.F. Kennedy
D. None of them
168. The first Indian to be the
President of UN General
Assembly was
A. Indira Gandhi
B. R. Venkataraman
C. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
D. None of them
169. Remains of Roman civilization
have been found in
A. Arikamedu
B. Hampi
C. Mohenjodaro
D. Lothal
180. Fiscal Policy is connected with
A. public revenue and expenditure
B. population
C. money issue
D. exports and imports
181. 3:24 as to?
A. 5:30 C. 7:35
B. 8:35 D. 8:64
182. What is the perimeter of the
triangle ABC formed by joining
the centres of the three circles?
A
C B
I
III
II
Radius of I is 3 cm
Radius of II is 5 cm
Radius of III is 4 cm
A. 12 cm C. 24 cm
B. 15 cm D. 32 cm
183. What is the value of the
following determinant?
8 3 2
11 4 3
14 5 4
A. 0 C. 10
B. 1 D. –15
184.
1
3 2
2 12

A. 5
19 B. 19
5 C. 4
5 D. 5
4
185. How many squares are there in
the given figure?
A. 10 B. 15 C. 8 D. 9
186. If the vertex of a parabola is
(2, 0) and the directrix is the
y-axis, then its focus is
A. (–2, 0) C. (–4, 0)
B. (4, 0) D. (3, 0)
187. If x
54
96
x , find x
A. 72 C. 36
B. 27 D. 63
188. 0.5 0.5 0.5
0.4 0.1
? 

A. 0.5 C. 0.75
B. 1.5 D. 0.05
189. If A is 1
3 and B is 1
2 of C then
A:B:C is
A. 1:3:6 C. 3:1:6
B. 2:3:6 D. 3:2:6
190. OA 2i j, and OB i j k −
are two vectors.The vector
perpendicular to both OA and
OB
is
A.
2i j k −
C.
i k −−2 3
B. 3 i + k D.
+ k -
191. How is 3
4 expressed as
percentage?
A. 0.75% C. 75%
B. 60% D. 7.5%
192. How is 1
2 % expressed as a
decimal fraction?
A. 0.5 C. 0.005
B. 0.05 D. 0.0005
193. 5
7 of 644=
A. 640 C. 1460
B. 460 D. none of these
194. If the day tomorrow is Sunday,
what was it yesterday?
A. Wednesday C. Friday
B. Thursday D. Saturday
195. If a clock strikes once at 1
O’clock, twice at 2 O’ clock, how
many times will it strike in 24
hours?
A. 156 C. 40
B. 78 D. 12
196. Complete the following series:
7, 8, 10, 13, 17, .........
A. 22 C. 30
B. 25 D. 40
197. The average of three numbers
is 28. The second number is
twice the first. The third number
is twice the second. The three
numbers in order are
A. 12, 24, 48
B. 24, 12, 48
C. 24, 20, 40
D. 20, 40, 24
198. For an auditorium 1
4 th of the
seats were occupied by boys and
3
8 th by girls. What percentage
of the audience consisted of
these children?
A. 62.5% C. 75%
B. 70% D. 80%
199. Choose the one which is
different from the rest three?
A. 11 C. 15
B. 13 D. 17
200. Area under normal curve
between Z −∞and Z=0 is
A. 0.25 C. 0.50
B. –0.50 D. 0.75

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