UGC National Eligibility Test Commerce previous year question papers

Can you please give me the UGC National Eligibility Test Commerce previous year question papers?

As you are looking for the previous year question paper of UGC NET exam of Commerce so here I am giving you the syllabus of it and the question paper is in the form of PDF file

Syllabus for UGC NET (Commerce)

Unit I

Second Generation reforms
Policy Environment
Liberalization
Legal Environment of business in India
Industrial Policy and Implementation
Industrial Growth and Structural changes
Globalization and Privatization
Environment protection
Economic policies
Economic Planning
Economic Environment
Consumer protection
Competition Policy
Business Environment

Unit II

Valuation and Absorption of shares
Reconstruction
Ratio analysis
Partnership Accounts
Marginal costing
Holding company accounts
Fund flow analysis
Financial Statements
Cash flow analysis
Capital and Revenue
Budgetary control
Basic Accounting Concepts
Advanced Company Accounts

Unit III


Pricing Strategies
Laws of variable Proportion
Laws of returns
In difference Curve analysis
Elasticity of Demand
Different market Conditions
Demand Analysis
Cost, revenue and Price determination
Unit IV

Sampling needs
Sampling Methods and Errors
Data Entry
Data Collection and Analysis
Computer Application to Functional areas
Co relation and Regression
Business Statistics and Data Processing
Analysis and Interpretation of data
Unit V


Staffing
Planning process
Planning Objectives and Strategies
Organizational Structure
Leadership
Decision making
Corporate Ethics and Governance
Controlling
Business Management

Unit VI


Product Decisions
Pricing Decisions
Organizing and Control
Marketing Planning
Marketing mix
Marketing Management
Market Segmentation
Market Environment
Evolution of Marketing
Consumer Behavior

Unit VII


Working capital Management
Financial Management
Financial and Operating Leverage
Dividend Policy
Cost of capital
Capital Structure
Capital budgeting

Unit VIII


Wage and Salary Administration
Training and Development
Succession Planning
Recruitment and Selection
Performance Appraisal
Morale and Productivity
Industrial Relations in India
Incentives and Fringe benefits
Human Resource Planning
Health, Safety, Welfare and Social Security
Employee Participation in Management
Compensation

Unit IX


Types of banks
Rural banking
RBI
NPA
NABARD
Development banking
Capital Adequacy norms
Banking Sector Reforms
Banking Importance to business
Banking and Financial Institution

Unit X


WTO
Theoretical foundations of International Business
Structure of India’s Foreign Trade
Regulation and Promotion of Foreign Trade
International Liquidity
International Economic institutions
International Business
Balance of payments

List of Elective Subjects


Marketing
International Business
Income Tax Law and Tax Planning
Human Resource Management
Accounting and Finance

Apart from the above subjects, a general paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude is also part of the UGC NET (Commerce) syllabus which is as follows -

Communication
Data interpretation
Higher Education System – Governance, Polity and Administration
Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Logical Reasoning
People and Environment
Reading Comprehension
Reasoning (Including mathematical)
Research Aptitude
Teaching Aptitude

There will two types of questions, objective type questions and short essay type questions.

UGC NET Commerce Question Paper

Attached Files Available for Download

UGC NET Commerce Question Paper.pdf (1.70 MB, 18 views)

As you want to get the UGC National Eligibility Test Commerce previous year question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. In accounting, profit prior to
incorporation is treated as
(A) Revenue Reserve
(B) Secret Reserve
(C) Capital Reserve
(D) General Reserve
2. Receipts and Payments Account is
prepared by
(A) Manufacturing concerns
(B) Non-Trading concerns
(C) Trading concerns
(D) Companies registered under
Companies Act, 1956
3. Owners equity stands for
(A) Fixed Assets minus Fixed
Liabilities.
(B) Fixed Assets minus Current
Liabilities.
(C) Current Assets minus Fixed
Liabilities.
(D) Total Assets minus Total outside
Liabilities.
4. When the Debt Turnover Ratio is 4,
what is the average collection period ?
(A) 5 months (B) 4 months
(C) 3 months (D) 2 months
5. Which of the following will result into
sources of funds ?
(i) Increase in current assets
(ii) Decrease in current assets
(iii) Increase in current liabilities
(iv) Decrease in current liabilities
Codes :
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
6. In marginal costing, contribution is
equal to
(A) Sales – Fixed cost
(B) Sales – Variable cost
(C) Sales – Profit
(D) Sales – Variable Cost + Fixed
cost
7. The funds available with a company
after paying all claims including tax
and dividend is called
(A) Net Profit
(B) Net Operating Profit
(C) Capital Profit
(D) Retained Earnings
8. Assertion (A) : Accounting
information refers to only events
which are concerned with
business firm.
Reason (R) : Accounting information
is presented in financial
statements.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
9. When average cost is declining
(A) Marginal cost must be declining.
(B) Marginal cost must be above
average cost.
(C) Marginal cost must be below
average cost.
(D) Marginal cost must be rising.
10. ABC Ltd. has declared 40% dividend.
Which one of the following does it
mean ?
(A) The company has declared 40%
of net profit as dividend.
(B) The company has declared 40%
of profits after tax as dividend.
(C) The company will provide
dividend 40% on issued capital.
(D) The company will provide
dividend 40% on paid-up capital.
11. The main objective of Accounting
Standards is
(A) To prepare the accounting
reports which is easily
understood by common man.
(B) To comply with the legal
formalities.
(C) To harmonise the diversified
accounting practices.
(D) To comply with the
requirements of the International
Accounting Standards (IAS).
12. Given below are two statements :
I. Activity ratios show where the
company is going.
II. Balance Sheet ratios show how
the company stand.
Codes :
(A) I is correct, but II is wrong.
(B) Both I and II are correct.
(C) I is wrong, but II is correct.
(D) Both I and II are wrong.
13. Income and Expenditure Account of
non-profit organisation is a
(A) Real Account
(B) Nominal Account
(C) Personal Account
(D) Representative Personal Account
14. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
I. Inventory includes raw
materials, finished goods and
work – in – progress.
II. Inventory is a part of the
working capital.
III. Inventory includes goods likely
to be purchased.
Codes :
(A) I, II and III
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I and II
15. If the current ratio is 2 : 1 and working
capital is ` 60,000, what is the value of
the Current Assets ?
(A) ` 60,000
(B) ` 1,00,000
(C) ` 1,20,000
(D) ` 1,80,000
16. Which of the following steps of
purchase decision process is in
sequence ?
1. Problem recognition
2. Search for alternatives
3. Evaluation of alternatives
4. Purchase action
5. Post purchase action
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
(C) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
17. What is customer value ?
(A) Ratio between the customer’s
perceived benefits and the
resources used to obtain these
benefits.
(B) Excess of satisfaction over
expectation.
(C) Post purchase dissonance
(D) None of the above

18. Match the items of List – I with items
of List – II.
List – I List – II
a. The silent mental
repetition of information.
1. Encoding
b. The process by which
we select a word or
visual image to represent
a perceived object.
2. Rehearsal
c. Where information is
kept temporarily before
further processing.
3. Working
Memory
d. The stage of real
memory in which
information is processed
and held for just a brief
period.
4. Store house
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
19. Fill in the blanks :
Statements Alternatives
a. Loyal customers
____ products.
1. Less
attention
b. Loyal customers are
____ sensitive.
2. Cheaper
c. Loyal customers pay
____ to competitor’s
advertising.
3. Less price
d. Serving existing
customer is ____
4. Buy more
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
20. Assertion (A) : High customer
expectations lead to dissatisfaction as
product performance never matches
them.
Reason (R) : Product performance is
always customer specific.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
incorrect.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is
incorrect.
21. Under which concept of marketing do
you find greater emphasis on
techniques and technology of
production ?
(A) Product
(B) Selling
(C) Marketing
(D) None
22. Which is used for short-term sales
achievement ?
(A) Personal selling
(B) Advertising
(C) Sales Promotion
(D) Public Relations
23. Public distribution system relates to
(A) Marketing system
(B) Retailing system
(C) Industrial system
(D) Selling system
24. Who do buy more, complain less,
spread positive word of mouth, ensure
a large customer base and repeat
business ?
(A) Satisfied customers
(B) Delighted customers
(C) Industrial customers
(D) None of the above

25. There are impulses which persuade a
customer to buy certain products
without evaluating the positive and
negative value of the same.
(A) Emotional motives
(B) Blind motives
(C) Egoistic motives
(D) All the above
26. Which subject is relevant to the study
of consumer behaviour ?
(A) Economics
(B) Psychology
(C) Sociology
(D) All the above
27. Find an incorrect statement.
(A) Consumer attitude can be
summarized as evaluation of an
object.
(B) Attitudes are learned.
(C) Attitudes are synonymous with
behaviour.
(D) Attitudes have motivational
qualities.
28. Who is considered Father of Scientific
Management ?
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Victor Vroom
(D) Henry Fayol
29. Who did give the concept of hierarchy
of needs ?
(A) Fredrick Herzberg
(B) Victor Vroom
(C) Douglas Mcgregor
(D) A.H. Maslow
30. Assertion (A) : Management is a
continuous process.
Reason (R) : Managers first plan, then
organise and finally perform the
function of controlling.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both(A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not a correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is
correct.
31. Induction of employees relates to
(A) Organisational awareness
(B) Training programme
(C) Introduction
(D) Assignment of duties
32. ‘Kinked’ demand curve is related with
(A) Monopoly
(B) Discriminating monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect competition
33. Who is not associated with HRM ?
(A) Michael J Jucius
(B) Dale Yodar
(C) Edvoin B. Flippo
(D) K.K. Devit
34. Merit rating is not known as
(A) Efficiency Rating
(B) Service Rating
(C) Job Rating
(D) Experience Rating

35. Match the items of List – I with the
items of List – II.
List – I List – II
a. FEMA 1. 1986
b. Indian Factories Act 2. 1999
c. Industrial Dispute Act 3. 1948
d. Consumer Protection Act 4. 1947
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
36. If price of any commodity decreases
by 20% and the demand for that
commodity increases by 40%, then
elasticity of demand would be
(A) perfectly elastic
(B) perfectly inelastic
(C) unit elastic
(D) highly elastic
37. Which of the following statements is
true ?
(A) In case of inferior goods, the
income effect is negative,
although the substitution effect
is positive.
(B) In inferior goods, the income
and substitution effects are
positive.
(C) In inferior goods, the income
and substitution effects are
negative.
(D) In case of inferior goods, the
income effect is positive
although the substitution effect
is negative.
38. In perfect competition, the demand
curve of a firm is
(A) Vertical
(B) Horizontal
(C) Positively sloped
(D) Negatively sloped
39. Which one is not non-financial
incentive ?
(A) Additional bonus on minimum
wasteful expenditure.
(B) Permanent job.
(C) Participatory decision making.
(D) Recognition of individuality.
40. HRM does not include
(A) job evaluation
(B) performance appraisal
(C) sales promotion
(D) job enrichment
41. The term (1-B) is called
(A) Level of the test
(B) Power of the test
(C) Size of the test
(D) None of the above
42. The area under normal distribution
covered within µ  3 limits is
(A) 0.6827
(B) 0.9545
(C) 0.9973
(D) 1.0000

43. Sampling distribution of mean is very
close to the standard normal
distribution when
(A) Population is normally
distributed.
(B) Population is not normally
distributed, but sample size is
large.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).
44. If the value of co-efficient of
determination is 0.64, what is the
value of coefficient of correlation ?
(A) 0.40
(B) 0.80
(C) 0.08
(D) 0.04
45. Which one of the following is not a
source of conflict in project ranking in
capital budgeting decision as per NPV
and IRR ?
(A) Independent Investment Project
(B) No Capital Budget Constraints
(C) No time disparity
(D) None of the above
46. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Trade policy 1. Economic
conditions
b. Trade flows 2. Economic
policies
c. Price trends 3. Global linkages
d. Internal sectoral
linkages
4. Structure and
Nature of
Economy
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
47. Which one of the following is not a
benefit of privatisation ?
(A) Encourage entrepreneurship.
(B) Concentration of economic
power.
(C) Better management of
enterprise.
(D) Freedom from bureaucracy.
48. ‘BOLT’ system in the Indian
Securities market is related to
(A) National Stock Exchange
(B) Bombay Stock Exchange
(C) Over the Counter Exchange of
India
(D) Multi Commodity Stock
Exchange
49. Which one of the following is not a
money market instrument ?
(A) Commercial paper
(B) Participatory certificates
(C) Warrants
(D) Treasury Bills
50. Which one is related with microfinancing
?
(A) SHG
(B) Anganwadi workers
(C) Women Entrepreneurs
(D) None of the above
51. Which one of the following is not an
element of internal environment ?
(A) Mission/Objectives
(B) Human Resources
(C) Customers
(D) Shareholders’ values

52. The presence of fixed costs in the total
cost structure of a firm results into
(A) Financial leverage
(B) Operating leverage
(C) Super leverage
(D) None of the above
53. “The cost of capital declines when the
degree of financial leverage increases.”
Who advocated it ?
(A) Net operating income approach
(B) Net income approach
(C) Modigliani-Miller approach
(D) Traditional approach
54. A view that the dividend policy of a
firm has a bearing on share valuation
advocated by James E. Walter is based
on which one of the following
assumptions ?
(A) Retained earnings is only source
of financing.
(B) Cost of capital does not remain
constant.
(C) Return on investment fluctuates.
(D) All the above.
55. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Matching
approach
1. Dividend Policy
b. Structural
ratios
2. Inventory
Management
c. Ordering
quantity
3. Financing
Working Capital
d. Bonus shares 4. Capital Structure
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
56. Assertion (A) : Operating style of the
international business can be
spread to the entire globe.
Reason (R) : The style is limited to
the internal economy only.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
57. The Comparative Cost Advantage
Theory was given by
(A) David Ricardo
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Raymond Vernon
(D) Michael E. Porter
58. The companies globalise their
operations through different means :
(A) Exporting directly
(B) Licensing/Franchising
(C) Joint ventures
(D) All the above
59. The components of W.T.O. are
(A) Ministerial Conference
(B) Disputes Settlement Body
(C) Director General
(D) All the above
60. India is not associated with
(A) SAARC
(B) NAFTA
(C) BRICS
(D) None of the above

61. Which one of the following is true
statement ?
(A) A balance of trade deals with
export and import of invisible
items only.
(B) A balance of payment deals with
both visible and invisible items.
(C) The current account is not a
component of balance of
payment.
(D) All the above.
62. SDRs are popularly known as
(A) Currency Notes
(B) Paper Gold
(C) Silver Coin
(D) Gold Coin
63. Which one is not international
institution ?
(A) IMF
(B) IDA
(C) IBRD
(D) TRAI
64. Assertion (A) : Indent may be open or
closed. Open indent does not
specify the price and other details
of the goods. The closed indent
specifies the brand, price,
number, packing, shipping mode,
insurance, etc.
Reason (R) : This is required as a part
of export procedures.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
65. Which one of the statements is not
true ?
(A) Institutional infrastructure
facilitates market intelligence.
(B) STC is the chief canalizing agent
for export and import of
agricultural products.
(C) IIPO organizes trade fairs and
exhibitions.
(D) Letter of credit does not indicate
that the bank will pay the value
of imports to the exporter.
66. Match the items of List – I with items
of List – II.
List – I List – II
a. Selective credit
control
1. Consumer
Credit
Regulation
b. Encourage credit
for desirable use
2. Cash Reserve
Ratio
c. Quantitative
credit control
3. Variation in
Margin
d. Bank Rate 4. Re-discounting
Rate
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 2 1 3 4
67. Assertion (A) : Use of paper money is
replaced by plastic money. The
future will see the electronic
money clearance through
satellite networking.
Reason (R) : RBI is encouraging
e-banking.
Codes :
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true.

68. Which one is not Finance Company ?
(A) Hire-Purchase Finance Company
(B) IRDA
(C) Mutual Benefit Finance
Companies
(D) Loan Companies
69. The Securities and Exchange Board of
India was not entrusted with the
function of
(A) Investor Protection.
(B) Ensuring Fair practices by
companies.
(C) Promotion of efficient services
by brokers.
(D) Improving the earnings of equity
holders.
70. Which one is not Non-Marketable
securities ?
(A) Corporate Securities
(B) Bank Deposits
(C) Deposits with Companies
(D) Post Office Certificates and
Deposits
71. Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT)
under Sec.115 JB of the Income Tax
Act is applicable on
(A) Partnership firm
(B) Association of persons
(C) Certain companies
(D) All types of companies
72. For the Assessment Year 2011-12,
deduction under Sec. 80G is available
without any limit but at the rate of
50% on
(A) Prime Minister’s National Relief
Fund.
(B) National Foundation for
communal Harmany.
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru Memorial
Fund.
(D) Chief Minister Relief Fund.
73. Interest on capital paid by a firm to its
partners, under the Income Tax Act,
1961, is allowed
(A) 6%
(B) 12%
(C) 15%
(D) 18%
74. Under capital gains head of the
Income Tax Act, the income from sale
of Household Furniture is
(A) Taxable Income
(B) Capital Gain
(C) Revenue Gain
(D) Exempted Income
75. Under Section 80E of the Income Tax
Act, 1961 deduction in respect of
payment of interest on loan taken for
higher education shall be allowed
up to
(A) ` 10,000
(B) ` 15,000
(C) ` 20,000
(D) Without any limit



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Contact Details:
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Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg,
Balmiki Basti,
Vikram Nagar,
New Delhi,
Delhi 110002 ‎
093 33 778791
India

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	UGC National Eligibility Test Commerce previous year question papers-1.pdf (162.5 KB, 30 views)
	UGC National Eligibility Test Commerce previous year question papers.pdf (1.70 MB, 27 views)

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