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NUMERICAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?

(A) 13.14

(B) 12.96

(C) 12.43

(D) 13.34

(E) None of these



2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?

(A) 867.8

(B) 792.31

(C) 877.5

(D) 799.83

(E) None of these



3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921

(A)20.2

(B) 24.2

(C)23.1

(D) 19.2

(E) None of these



4.576÷ ? x114=8208

(A)8

(B)7

(C)6

(D)9

(E) None of these



5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?

(A)9

(B)6

(C)7

(D)8

(E) None of these



6. ?125÷5x ?=6265

(A)1253

(B) 1250

(C)1245

(D) 1550

(E) None of these



7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?

(A)7182

(B) 7269

(C)7260

(D) 7240

(E) None of these



8.384×12×2=?

(A)9024

(B) 9216

(C)6676

(D) 6814

(E) None of these



9.6534÷40÷33=?

(A)3.06

(B) 5.25

(C)4.82

(D) 6.12

(E) None of these



10. ?2704 x ?2209=?

(A)1996

(B)2444

(C)2452

(D)1983

(E)None of these



11.2536+4851—?=3450+313

(A)3961

(B)4532

(C)3624

(D)4058

(E) None of these



12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?

(A)7512

(B) 9746

(C)6523

(D) 8024

(E) None of these



13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750

(A)73

(B)89

(C)82

(D)75

(E) None of these



14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?

(A)1824

(B) 1902

(C)1829

(D) 1964

(E) None of these



15. 486+32×25—59=?

(A) 514

(B) 528

(C) 599

(D) 507

(E) None of these



16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4

(A)4.4

(B)3.2

(C)2.1

(D) 3.7

(E) None of these



17. 1008÷36=?

(A)28

(B) 32.5

(C)36

(D) 22.2

(E) None of these



18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?

(A)40.04

(B) 46.18

(C)44.08

(D) 43.12

(E) None of these



19. 65%of 320+?=686

(A) 480

(B) 452

(C)461

(D) 475

(E) None of these



20. 83250÷?=74×25

(A)50

(B) 45

(C)40

(D) 55

(E) None of these



21. ?7744=?

(A)88

(B)62

(C)58

(D)78

(E)None of these



22.35%of ?=242

(A)729

(B)652

(C)693

(D)759

(E) None of these



23. 1256+4813+765=?

(A)5642

(B) 5876

(C)6788

(D) 6878

(E) None of these



24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2



(A) 81

(C) 27

(B) 9

(D) 64

(E) None of these



25. 432+2170+35=?

(A)494

(B) 475

(C)481

(D) 469

(E) None of these



26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of

the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then

which will be the largest number?

(A) 65

(B) 52

(C) 79

(D) 63

(E) None of these



27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of

8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount

and at the same rate and same time?

(A)Rs. 349.92

(B) Rs. 300

(C)Rs. 358.92

(D) Rs. 400

(E) None of these



28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length

is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the

area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original

rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?

(A)45 cms.

(B)40 cems.

(C)50 cms.

(D)55 cms.

(E)None of these



29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number

formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,

then what will be the original number?

(A)28

(B) 48

(C)39

(D) 93

(E) None of these


30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.

If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the

resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?

(A)5/18

(B)6/13

(C)13/6

(D)7/12

(E) None of these



31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.

What is the number?

(A) 70

(B) 75

(C) 69

(D) 85

(E) None of these



32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs

were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12

each. What will be the percentage



profit?

(A) 25

(B) 15

(C) 13

(D) 17

(E) None of these



33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number

series given below?

25, 34, 52,79, 115,?

(A)160

(B) 140

(C)153

(D) 190

(E)None of these



34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the

following question ?

?/144= 49 /?

(A)95

(B) 76

(C)82

(D) 84

(E)None of these



35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of

the smallest and the largest numbers?

(A)158

(B) 148

(C)168

(D) 198

(E) None of these



36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on

travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.

What is Ajay’s income?

(A) Rs. 60,000

(B) Rs. 80,500

(C) Rs. 60,700

(D) Rs. 70,500

(E) None of these



37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be

arranged ?

(A) 150

(B) 240

(C) 120

(D) 200

(E) None of these



38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a

flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of

the remaining part of the park?

(A)984 Square m

(B) 789 Square m

(C) 1014 Square m

(D) 1024 Square m

(E) None of these



39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost

of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540,

then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A)47m

(B) 39m

(C)52m

(D)40m

(E) None of these



40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order

of their values, which one will be fourth?

(A)4/5

(B)5/4

(C)9/5

(D)8/5

(E) 7/2



41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7

respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14

respectively. What is the difference between their ages?

(A)9 years

(B) 4 years

(C)5 years

(D) 7 years

(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many

days will 18 men complete the same work?

(A)16 days

(B) 20 days

(C)26 days

(D) 30 days

(E) None of these



43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the

circumference of the circle?

(A)29.2 cm

(B) 28.9 cm

(C)30.8 cm

(D) 40.2 cm

(E) None of these



44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay

joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush

joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they

made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?

(A) Rs. 5,500

(B) Rs. 6,000

(C) Rs. 6,600

(D) As. 5,900

(E) None of these



45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are

42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?

(A)60 years

(B) 49 years

(C)45 years

(D) 58 years

(E) None of these



46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes

and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom

which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty

initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank

(leakage is still there) ?

(A) 8 minutes

(B) 7 minutes

(C) 10 minutes

(D)15 minutes

(E) None of these



47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?

(A) Rs. 690

(B) As. 520

(C) Rs. 517.5

(D) Rs. 499.2

(E) None of these



48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25

persons, then how much would each person get?



(A) Rs. 2,54,876

(B) Rs. 2,34,68

(C) Rs. 3,74,20

(D) Rs. 1,95,62

(E) None of these



49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are

drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is

white?

(A) 71/190

(B) 121/190

(C) 91/190

(D) 93/190

(E) None of these



50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what

will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?

(A) Rs. 1,320

(B) Rs. 1,500

(C) Rs.1,150

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these



ANSWERS:

1 - D 2 - C 3 - B 4 - A 5 - D 6 - A 7 - E 8 - B 9 - E 10 - B 11 - C 12

- D 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B

16 - B 17 - A 18 - C 19 - E 20 - B 21 - A 22 - C 23 - E 24 - B 25 - A 26

- A 27 - B 28 - C 29 - C 30 - D 31 - B 32 - D 33 - A 34 - D 35 - C 36 -

A 37 - E 38 - A 39 - D 40 - B 41 - E 42 - C 43 - C

44 - A 45 - B 46 - A 47 - A 48 - B 49 - E 50 - D

1. If you want to reform education, you will begin at—
(A) Primary Level
(B) Secondary Level
(C) Graduate Level
(D) All of these
Ans. (C)

2. Ideal education is helpful in the following—
(A) A person’s livelihood
(B) A person’s self-dependence
(C) Enhancement in a person’s prestige
(D) Making a person into an intellectual
Ans. (B)

3. If you win a lottery, what will you do with the money?
(A) Purchase a house
(B) Visit tourist places
(C) Purchase a car
(D) Open a school
Ans. (D)

4. Following is a mean of ‘Distance Education’—
(A) Television
(B) Radio
(C) Newspaper
(D) Magazines
Ans. (A)

5. Why is the knowledge of first-aid essential for a teacher?
(A) Students may need first-aid any time
(B) Teacher needs it for his own health
(C) For the treatment of children, when they get injured in sports ground
(D) It increases the knowledge of a teacher
Ans. (A)

6. Adult education is for—
(A) Illiterate adults
(B) School going adults
(C) Normal adult people
(D) All of these
Ans. (A)

7. When your student performs well you will—
(A) Express your happiness
(B) Admire him
(C) Feel jealous
(D) Remain quiet
Ans. (B)

8. Generally, if students are informed about their performances soon after the examination is over, it is effective in—
(A) Humiliating them
(B) Punishing them
(C) Tempting them
(D) Strengthening their inspiration
Ans. (C)

9. What should be done to maintain discipline among students?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
Ans. (B)

10. Which quality is most important for students?
(A) Hard work
(B) Obedience
(C) Humility
(D) Independent thinking
Ans. (D)

11. What will you do if your students do not take interest in studies?
(A) You will take interest in your teaching
(B) You will make your teaching more interesting
(C) You will give examples of meritorious students
(D) You will try to know the reason for lack of interest
Ans. (D)

12. Generally, it is believed that a teacher should be with the students.
(A) Strict and unapproachable
(B) Strict and introvert
(C) Respectable, but friendly
(D) Independent and approachable
Ans. (C)

13. If a student is not able to answer in your class then you will—
(A) Ask another student to answer
(B) Ask easier question
(C) Punish him
(D) Ask him to sit down
Ans. (A)

14. What will be your reaction when an otherwise punctual student comes late in your class?
(A) You will ignore it
(B) You will try to know the reason for coming late
(C) You will scold him before other students in the class
(D) Ask him to leave the class
Ans. (B)

15. If a student avoids meeting others then—
(A) He should be left alone
(B) He should be involved in group activities
(C) He should be asked to meet others
(D) He should be compelled to meet his classmates
Ans. (B)

16. You worship God because—
(A) Your friends tell you to do so
(B) It gives you inner strength
(C) You have religious atmosphere at home
(D) You fear God
Ans. (B)

17. Which of the following is most appropriate about your honesty?
(A) I am the most honest person
(B) I have done all my tasks with a sense of duty
(C) I never accepted any gift for any work
(D) I have turned down so many tempting offers
Ans. (B)

18. If a person talks bad about your parents before you, what will you do?
(A) Tell him to shut up
(B) Listen him carefully
(C) Break relationship with him
(D) Join him in this act
Ans. (A)

19. What is the most effective way to reform the aggressive behaviour of a child?
(A) He should be kept in isolation
(B) Reasons for this behaviour should be investigated
(C) He should be punished severely
(D) He should be ignored
Ans. (B)

20. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of school on time?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
Ans. (D)

21. What should a teacher do when examinations are near?
(A) Complete the syllabus by calling students at his home
(B) Complete the syllabus by devoting extra time in school
(C) Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
(D) Help them solving with important questions
Ans. (B)

22. How will you resolve you differences with your colleague?
(A) By arguing before other colleagues
(B) Complain to the Principal
(C) Resolve it mutually by trying to know the reason for this
(D) By ridiculing him
Ans. (C)

23. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher?
(A) His authority on his subject
(B) His being social
(C) His attractive personality
(D) His being rich
Ans. (A)

24. All teachers in school should be punctual because—
(A) This will make students also punctual
(B) Students will understand the importance of time
(C) This will inculcate good habit in students
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)

25. There is fear of social-evils affecting the schools. What will be your attitude to prevent it?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Similar to other teachers
(D) Indifferent
Ans. (A)

Can you provide me previous year Computer Science question paper of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (KVS PGT) exam I need it for preparation of the exam?

Under KVS PGT there is single question paper under different subjects including the following: English, Hindi, Chemistry, Economics, Commerce, Physics, Mathematics, History, Geography, Computer Science, Bio Technology and Biology respectively

Total Number of Questions:

Part I: 40 Questions (Hindi and English) -40 Marks

Part II:
160 Questions (Current Affairs: 20 questions;
Reasoning & Numerical Ability: 20 questions;
Teaching Methodology: 20 questions;
Subject Related Questions: 10) – 160 Marks

Duration of Exam: Three hours

Marking Scheme OF KVS PGT POST:

The candidates should secure the minimum cut off marks in the paper 1 only then they are evaluated in the second part of the question paper.

The minimum marks required in the first part of the paper are as follows: Hindi (5 marks) and English (5 marks) and 13 marks aggregate in both the subjects

KVS PGT Weightage of Marks:

The final selection of the candidates is made on the basis of the marks obtained by the candidates in the part 2 of the paper and interview.

Written Part 2 Exam: 70%

Interview Part of Exam: 30%

KVS PGT Previous Year Computer Science Paper

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