Paper for UGC NET II

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1. Under Cournot Model of Duopoly,
each duopolist will produce
(A) half the output
(B) one-fourth of the output
(C) one-sixth of the output
(D) one-third of the total output
2. As long as the substitution effect
dominates the income effect, the
labour supply curve is
(A) negatively sloped
(B) positively sloped
(C) bend backward
(D) shifting towards left
3. The distinguishing characteristics of
monopolistic competition are
I. Product differentiation
II. Non-price competition
III. Large number of firms and
freedom to entry and exit
IV. Firms are interdependent
Codes :
(A) I & III are correct.
(B) I, II and IV are correct.
(C) I, II and III are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
4. Assertion (A) : Monopoly is Pareto
inefficient.
Reason (R) : It would be possible to
change the allocation of
resources to make the amount
of income he would be
prepared to pay in exchange of
the reduction in price.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not
correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is incorrect explanation
of (A).
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is
incorrect.
5. If MPL/MPK does not change with
any proportionate change in labour
and capital then the production
function is
(A) Linear
(B) Non-linear
(C) Homogeneous
(D) Homothetic
6. Match the items in the List – I with
items in List – II. Select the correct
answer from the code given below :
List – I List – II
I. Agency
Theory of
Firm
1. O.E. Williamson
II. Xinefficiency
2. M.C. Jensen and
W.J. Meckling
III. The Utility
Maximisation
Model
3. Wilfredo Pareto
IV. Edgeworth
box diagram
first used by
4. Harvey
Leibenstein
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
7. At the point of tangency between
short- run average total cost and long- run average cost, the short-run
marginal cost
(A) greater than long-run marginal
cost
(B) less than long-run marginal
cost
(C) is far above long-run marginal
cost
(D) equals long-run marginal cost
ECONOMICS
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

8. The equilibrium in a market is
incomplete with increasing returns to
scale only in the case of
(A) imperfectly competitive market
(B) monopolistic market
(C) perfectly competitive market
(D) none of the above
9. If 1 = Involuntary unemployment;
2 = Disguised unemployment;
3 = Frictional unemployment; and
4 = Structural unemployment, then
full employment is consistent with
(A) 1 & 2 (B) 2 & 3
(C) 3 & 4 (D) 1 & 4
10. In Keynes’ equation of absolute
income hypothesis, C = α0 + by,
where C = Consumption expenditure;
α0 = Consumption expenditure when
income (y) is zero; and b = Marginal
Propensity to Consume (MPC), then
which of the following statements is
false ?
(A) MPC is independent of the
level of income.
(B) MPC is dependent on the level
of income.
(C) APC falls as income rises.
(D) APC > MPC.
11. Which of the following statements is
false ?
(A) The balanced budget multiplier
is unity when taxes are lump
sum taxes.
(B) The balanced budget multiplier
is less than unity when taxes
are ad valorem taxes.
(C) Tax multiplier is less than
government expenditure
multiplier.
(D) Tax multiplier is more than
government expenditure
multiplier.
12. Match the theory/criterion of
investment determination as given
below in List – II with their
propounders given below in List – I :
List – I List – II
I. Dale
Jorgenson
a. Q-Theory
II. J.M. Keynes b. Neo-classical
Theory
III. James Cohin c. Accelerator
Theory
IV. James Clark d. Present Value
Criterion
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) a d b c
(B) b d a c
(C) c d a b
(D) c a d b
13. Assertion (A) : In liquidity trap, the
demand for money is perfectly
interest elastic.
Reason (R) : Because in this
situation, all the investors
expect the market rate of
interest to rise towards the
natural rate of interest.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
14. The rate of net investment spending
per time period depends on steepness
of the downword slope of
(A) Marginal efficiency of
Investment Schedule
(B) Marginal efficiency of Capital
Schedule
(C) LM-Schedule
(D) IS-Schedule

15. Which of the following is not
specifically mentioned as a
determinant of the demand for
money ?
(A) Wealth
(B) Nominal yield on alternative
assets
(C) Inflation rate
(D) Real rate of interest
16. Whose model of the following
economists makes use of the stock
adjustment principle to explain
business cycles ?
(A) N. Kaldor
(B) J.R. Hicks
(C) P. Samuelson
(D) J.M. Keynes
17. The concept of vicious circle of
poverty is associated with
(A) J.M. Keynes
(B) Ragner Nurkse
(C) Karl Marx
(D) J.S. Mill
18. Inverted ‘U’ shaped income
distribution hypothesis is associated
with
(A) J.B. Clark
(B) David Ricardo
(C) Simon Kuznets
(D) Adam Smith
19. Components of HDI are
I. Longevity
II. Infant mortality
III. Educational attainment
IV. Decent standard of living
Codes :
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) II, I, and IV are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
20. Arrange the proponents of classical
theory of development in a sequential
order :
I. David Ricardo
II. Adam Smith
III. J.S. Mill
IV. Robert Malthus
Codes :
(A) II IV III I
(B) IV III I II
(C) III II IV I
(D) I II III IV
21. Assertion (A) : In Marxian scheme
of things, M → C → M', where
M' > M and M' – M is surplus
value.
Reason (R) : The main cause of this
surplus value is raw materials,
machines, etc.
Codes :
(A) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
22. Match the items in the List – I with
items in List – II :
List – I List – II
I. Structural view of
Underdevelopment
1. Classical
Economists
II. Laissez-faire Policy 2. Hollis
Chenery
III. Departmental
Scheme of
Expanded
Reproduction
3. Steady State
Growth
IV. Golden Age of
Accumulation
4. Karl Marx
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

23. Match the items in the List – I with
items in List – II :
List – I List – II
I. Critical Minimum
Effort Thesis
1. R.F. Kahn
II. Knife-edge
Equilibrium
2. Rosentein-
Rodan
III. Bastard Golden
Age
3. Leibenstein
IV. Big Push Theory 4. Harrod
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
24. Which years in India have been the
best and the worst in terms of growth
rate of national income ?
(A) 2007-08 and 1997-98
(B) 2006-07 and 1966-67
(C) 1988-89 and 1979-80
(D) 2003-04 and 1957-58
25. Rank the States in ascending order of
the crude birth rate in the recent
years :
I. Andhra Pradesh
II. Karnataka
III. Madhya Pradesh
IV. Uttar Pradesh
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) I, II, IV, III
(D) II, I, IV, III
26. Which five year plan of India has
recorded the largest gap in terms of
growth rate between the services
sector and the industrial sector ?
(A) Seventh Plan
(B) Eighth Plan
(C) Ninth Plan
(D) Tenth Plan
27. Provide the correct answer about the
desired growth target of the
manufacturing sector in the medium
term as per the National
Manufacturing Policy of India.
(A) 6 – 8 percent
(B) 8 – 10 percent
(C) 10 – 12 percent
(D) 12 – 14 percent
28. Which of the following countries
have better Human Development
Index (HDI) as per the HDR 2011 ?
I. Sri Lanka
II. Pakistan
III. Kenya
IV. Egypt
Codes :
(A) Sri Lanka and Egypt
(B) Sri Lanka and Kenya
(C) Pakistan and Sri Lanka
(D) Pakistan and Kenya
29. What was the amount of outlay under
MGNREGA in 2011-12 by the
Government of India ?
(A) ` 25,000 crore
(B) ` 30,000 crore
(C) ` 40,000 crore
(D) ` 55,000 crore
30. Provide correct answer about the
share of India in the world
merchandize exports in 2010 :
(A) 0.5 percent
(B) 0.9 percent
(C) 1.1 percent
(D) 1.5 percent
31. If the cost of transporting a goods
between two nations exceeds the
pretrade difference for the goods
between two nations, then trade in
that goods is
(A) possible (B) impossible
(C) reversal (D) cannot say

32. According to the Rybczynski
theorem, the growth of only one
factor at constant relative commodity
prices, leads to an absolute expansion
in the output of
(A) both commodities
(B) the commodity using the
growing factor intensively
(C) the commodity using the nongrowing
factor intensively
(D) any of the above
33. The exchange rate is kept the same in
all parts of the market by
(A) exchange arbitrage
(B) interest arbitrage
(C) hedging
(D) speculation
34. Which are relevant conditions
assumed by the factor price
equalization theorem ?
I. The countries are characterised
by different factor endowments.
II. The countries are characterised
by different production
functions.
III. The industries are characterised
by different factor intensities.
IV. Each country will export the
commodity which uses its
abundant factor relatively
intensively.
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, III, II
35. Which of the following is true with
respect to the monetary approach to
the balance of payments ?
(A) It views the balance of
payments as an essentially
monetary phenomenon.
(B) A balance of payments deficit
results from an excess demand
of money in the nation.
(C) A balance of payments surplus
results from an excess supply
of money.
(D) Balance of payments
disequilibrium are not
automatically corrected in the
long run.
36. When a nation imposes an import
tariff, the nation’s offer curve will
(A) shift away from the axis
measuring its export
commodity.
(B) shift away from the axis
measuring its import commodity.
(C) not shift.
(D) any of the above is possible.
37. If the international terms of trade
settle at a level that is between each
country’s opportunity cost then
(A) there is no basis for gainful
trade for either country.
(B) both countries gain from trade.
(C) only one country gains from
trade.
(D) one country gains and the other
country loses from trade.

38. Arrange the following in
chronological order :
I. The Indirect Tax Enquiry
Committee (Jha Committee)
II. Tax Reforms Committee
(Chelliah Committee)
III. Taxation Enquiry Commission
(Matthur Commission)
IV. The Direct Tax Enquiry
Committee (Wanchoo Committee)
Codes :
(A) III, II, IV, I
(B) III, I, IV, II
(C) II, III, I, IV
(D) III, IV, I, II
39. Which of the following are relevant
in Zero Base Budgeting ?
I. Each item of expenditure is
challenged in pre-budget
review.
II. No minimum level of
expenditure is allowed to be
taken as given.
III. Expenditure of each item is
increased marginally.
IV. Most item of expenditure is
taken for granted when budget
is prepared for the next year.
Codes :
(A) I and III are correct.
(B) I, II and IV are correct.
(C) I and II are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
40. Match the items given in List – I with
those in List – II :
List – I List – II
I. Optimal
Income
Taxation
1. Charles Tiebout
II. An Economic
Theory of
Politics
2. Peter A. Phyrr
III. Local Public
Goods
3. F. Ramsey
IV. Zero Base
Budgeting
4. Anthony Downs
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
41. Which of the following is tantamount
to absence of taxation ?
(A) Shifting of the tax
(B) Tax transformation
(C) Evasion of tax
(D) Tax capitalisation
42. Which of the following tax is within
the jurisdiction of States as
enumerated in List – II of the
Schedule VII of the Constitution of
India ?
(A) Taxes on Railway freights and
fares.
(B) Taxes on sale and purchase of
newspapers and on
advertisement therein.
(C) Rate of stamp duty in respect
of certain financial documents.
(D) Taxes on luxuries, including
entertainments, betting and
gambling.

43. Cohin Clark has argued that for most
countries of the world, the safe upper
limit of taxation is
(A) 40 percent of national income
(B) 30 percent of national income
(C) 25 percent of national income
(D) 20 percent of national income
44. Which of the following tax can be
shifted easily ?
(A) Lump-sum tax imposed on the
monopolist
(B) Tax imposed on residential
house
(C) Capital goods meant for sale
(D) Succession duty
45. In a binomial distribution, the sum of
mean and variance is 15 and the
product of mean and variance is 54,
then the number of observations (n)
is equal to
(A) 27 (B) 30
(C) 24 (D) 33
46. If ‘r’ is the correlation coefficient and
byx and bxy are the regression
coefficients of the regression lines y
on x and x on y respectively, then r =
(A) bxy × byx
(B) bxy / byx
(C) 1 – bxy byx
(D) bxy byx
47. χ2 (chi-square) test is used to test
(A) analysis of variance
(B) association between the
qualitative variables
(C) difference between means of
two distributions drawn from
the same population.
(D) difference between the means
of two distributions drawn
from different population.
48. Random sampling implies that
(A) the observations are selected
purposively.
(B) the observations are selected in
a systemic manner.
(C) the observations are selected in
an adhoc manner.
(D) the observations are selected in
clusters.
49. Given the following information,
match the item in List – I with
List – II :
List – I List – II
I. Coefficient of
Variation
1. μ4/σ4
II. Coefficient of
Correlation
2. μ3/σ3
III. Coefficient of
Skewness
3. σ/ –x
IV. Coefficient of
Kurtosis
4. ∑xy / σx σy
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
50. Assertion (A) : Fisher’s index is an
ideal index.
Reasoning (R) : Fisher’s index
satisfies Time Reversal and
Factor Reversal Tests.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is correct explanation of
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Hii guys I have Filled for appear UGC National Eligibility Test Exam , So will you please provide me Previous Year UGC NET II Exam Paper For my Exam preparation ?

Friend On your demand Here I am providing Previous Year UGC NET II Exam Paper fro your Exam preparation :

1. Who said ‘Art is an expression of
intuition’ ?
(A) Schopen Hauer
(B) Baumgarten
(C) Croce
(D) I.A. Richards

2. Name the Western Philosopher who
said, ‘Art’ is imitation and twice
removed from the truth’.
(A) Socretes
(B) Plato
(C) Aristotle
(D) Augustine

3. Who was the teacher of Leonardo da
Vinci ?
(A) Lorenzo Ghiberti
(B) Donatello
(C) Andrea del Verrocehio
(D) George Vessri

4. Name the Modern European
Sculptor who created ‘Gates of
Hell’, in reply of ‘Gates of Paradise’
by Ghiberti.
(A) Rodin
(B) Henry Moore
(C) Alexander Calder
(D) Jean Arp


5. ‘Kantha’ is a folk form of textile.
Where does it come from ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Bihar
(C) Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradsh

6. In which country ‘Futurism’ was
originated ?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) Holland

7. Who is the eminent Neo-tantric
painter of India ?
(A) Jatin Das
(B) Nirod Majumdar
(C) Ganesh Pyne
(D) G. R. Santosh

8. Prayag Jha Chillar is know for
(A) Sculpture
(B) Painting
(C) Installation
(D) Printmaking

9. Name the contemporary Indian
painter who created ‘Yayati’ series.
(A) Manjit Bawa
(B) Ganesh Haloi
(C) A. Ramchandran
(D) Laxma Goud
10. Modhera Sun-temple was erected
during the period of
(A) Solanki
(B) Chalukya
(C) Rashtrakuta
(D) Chola
11. Who sculpted “Triumph of Labour” ?
(A) D. P. Roychoudhury
(B) P. V. Jankiram
(C) M. Dharmani
(D) Mahendra Pandya
12. ‘Descent of Ganga’ at
Mahabalipuram was carved in
(A) Marble
(B) Sand Stone
(C) Granite
(D) Limestone
13. Nagaji Patel is a well-known
(A) Sculptor
(B) Painter
(C) Architect
(D) Printmaker

14. Who prepared ‘repousse’ sculpture
based on Indian iconographic forms
cast in copper and other metals ?
(A) Meera Mukherjee
(B) K. K. Hebbar
(C) Shiv Singh
(D) P. V. Jankiram
15. Cire-perdue is a casting process of
(A) Cement
(B) Plaster of paris
(C) Metal
(D) Rubber
16. Who is known as the “Father of
Modern “Advertising” ?
(A) David Ogilvy
(B) Jack Trout
(C) Susan Gillette
(D) Aleque Padamsee
17. Which film becomes 4th highest
Oscar winning flick with 8 Awards ?
(A) Avatar
(B) Titanic
(C) Slumdog Millionaire
(D) Apocalypse Now
18. Digital printing can be used for
(A) Short-run printing job
(B) Widely circulated Newspaper
(C) Cost-effectiveness in printing
(D) Printing on other surfaces
excluding paper


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