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Default University Grants Commission NET Psychology (Paper III) previous years question paper

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As you want to get the University Grants Commission NET Psychology (Paper III) previous years question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

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PSYCHOLOGY
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks
each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Match List-I with List-II and
indicate your answer with the help of
given codes.
List – I
(Task )
List – II
(Type of
memory)
p. Free recall and
recognition
1. semantic
memory
q. Sentence
verification
task
2. sensory
memory
r. Priming 3. episodic
memory
s. Scanning task 4. implicit
memory
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
2. Development of Super-Ego,
according to Freud is a result of
(A) Identification with the
opposite sex parent
(B) Resolution of
Oedipus/Electra complex
(C) Age advancement
(D) Anatomical superiority
3. Which of the following dimension/s
do not belong to Costa and
McCrae’s NEO-PI-R ?
1. Conscientiousness
2. Psychoticism
3. Agreeableness
4. Lie scale
Codes :
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
4. When information currently being
learned adversely affects the
retention of information acquired
previously, the phenomena is
referred to as :
(A) Distortion
(B) Retroactive interference
(C) Proactive interference
(D) Retrieval failure
5. Read the following two statements
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and
indicate your answer using the codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : Median is used as a
measure of scale value in
method of equal appearing
intervals.
Reason (R) : In normal distribution
mean, median and mode are
identical.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.
6. Assertion (A) : Research suggests
that delay conditioning is
generally the most effective
method for establishing a
conditioned response.
Reason (R) : Conditioned stimulus
helps predict forthcoming
presentation of the
unconditioned stimulus.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

7. Which of the following is not a
cause of forgetting ?
(A) Interference
(B) Decay
(C) Selective attention
(D) Retrieval inhibition
8. Which of the following attributions
of an event with positive outcome
shall be optimistic (non
depressogenic) ?
(A) Internal, stable and specific
causes
(B) External, unstable and global
causes
(C) Internal, stable and global
causes
(D) External, unstable and specific
causes
9. A child was classified as a case of
mental retardation. On DSM IV / IV
(TR), this diagnosis would be
recorded on :
(A) Axis I
(B) Axis II
(C) Axis III
(D) Axis IV
10. Awareness of one’s own thought
processes enabling effective learning
through correction is called :
(A) Algorithm
(B) Analogies
(C) Meta cognition
(D) Constructive process
11. How many subjects would be
required in a 3 3 2 factorial
design with ten subjects per cell ?
(A) 10
(B) 18
(C) 90
(D) 180
12. Mechanistic model of growth
focuses on :
1. Role of environmental input
and behaviour output.
2. Evolutionary origin
3. Quantitative increase in
learned responses
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
13. Selye largely ignored the
contribution of one of the following
in stress :
(A) Adrenal medulla
(B) Anterior pituitary
(C) Adrenal cortex
(D) Chronic psychological factors
14. Which of the following clinical
procedure/s is/are not based on
classical conditioning ?
1. Flooding
2. Transference
3. Client centered therapy
4. Systematic desensitization
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
15. Annual or semi-annual ratings of
each employee’s performance,
coupled with feedback about the
ratings they receive are referred to as
(A) Performance appraisals
(B) Rating inventories
(C) Behaviourally anchored rating
scales
(D) Graphic rating scales

16. Match List – I with List – II and
indicate your answer using the codes
given below :
List – I
(Hormones)
List – II
(Synthesized
from )
1. Steroidal
hormones
P. An amino
acid
2. Peptide
hormones
Q. Long chain of
amino acids
3. Protein
hormones
R. Fat molecule
4. Amino acid
derivates
S. Short chain of
amino acids
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
17. Arrange the following needs in
accordance with Maslow’s hierarchy :
1. Esteem needs
2. Love – belongingness
3. Physiological needs
4. Safety needs
5. Self-actualization
(A) 3 2 1 4 5
(B) 3 2 4 1 5
(C) 3 4 1 2 5
(D) 3 4 2 1 5
18. What is true for the contention that
we are normally driven to eat by the
anticipated pleasure of eating ?
(A) Set point theory
(B) Negative feedback system
(C) Positive incentive theory
(D) Homeostatis
19. What does reduce the problem
distance between starting point and
the goal ?
(A) Normative – utilitarian
(B) Means – end analysis
(C) Normative – logical
(D) Heuristic short cuts
20. In an experiment if a light is
repeatedly presented just before the
electric shock is given the animal
learns :
(A) Operant escape and then
operant avoidance
(B) Operant avoidance and then
operant escape
(C) Only operant escape
(D) Only operant avoidance
21. The contention that our facial
expressions influence our emotional
experience, attests to which of the
following hypotheses ?
(A) Universality hypothesis of
facial expressions
(B) Emotional specificity
hypothesis of ANS activity
(C) Emotional generality
hypothesis of ANS activity
(D) Facial feedback hypothesis
22. Match List – I with List – II and
indicate your answer with the help of
given codes :
List – I
(Cognitive
Process/System)
List – II
(Process/Locale)
p. feature
based
processing
1. right cerebral
hemisphere
q. whole
based
processing
2. top down
processing
r. abstract
category
system
3. bottom-up
processing
s. specific
exemplar
subsystem
4. left cerebral
hemisphere
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 1 3 2

23. Match List – I with List – II and
indicate your answer using the codes
given below :
List – I
(Symptom)
List – II
(Disorder)
p. Waxy
flexibility
1. Agoraphobia
q. Rapid
speech
and flight
of ideas
2. Schizophrenia
r. Excessive
fear of
crowded
places
3. Narcolepsy
s. Cataplexy 4. Mania
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 2 4 1 3
24. In the two-way ANOVA, with A and
B as the independent variables, if the
F ratio computed as MSAB/MSW is
significant, it can be concluded that
1. Main effect of A is significant.
2. Main effect of B is significant.
3. Interaction effect is significant.
Codes :
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
25. Which among the following is a
reversible lesion ?
(A) Cryogenic lesion
(B) Aspiration lesion
(C) Radio-Frequency lesion
(D) Knife cut lesion
26. Match List-I with List-II and
indicate your answer with the help of
codes given below :
List – I
(Type of Bias)
List – II
(Decision)
p. Anchoring 1. Making
estimates
from an
initial value
q. Hind sight 2. Adjusting
past events
by current
knowledge
r. Framing 3. Phrasing of
situation
guides biased
decision
s. Represent- ativeness
4. Most stereo
typical
exemplars are
selected
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
27. Arrange different types of ‘Play’ in
an increasing order of cognitive
complexity :
1. Constructive
2. Dramatic
3. Functional
4. Games
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 3 2 4

28. Some people believe that certain
objects bring luck and help them in
being successful. Such superstitions
may be the result of :
(A) insight
(B) a program of behaviour
modification
(C) autoshaping
(D) token economy systems
29. Assertion (A) : Fear or stress prior
to surgery has been associated
with slower post surgical
recovery, including delays in
wound healing.
Reason (R) : Psychological factors
can influence physical illness.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
30. The way in which a child’s efforts to
master a new or challenging task is
supported in a flexible and
contingent way by teachers, parents
or more competent persons is called
(A) Scaffolding
(B) Social influence
(C) Social mediation
(D) Social referencing
31. Which one of the following pairs is
NOT correctly matched ?
Term in factor
analysis
Meaning
/ Example
(A) Factor
extraction
method
– Principal
axes
(B) Factor
rotation
method
– Promax
(C) Inter factor
correlation
– Correlation
between
orthogonal
factors
(D) Cattell’s
scree
– Plot to decide
number of
factors retain
for
interpretation
32. Choose the right sequence for stages
of a sleep bout.
(A) II III IV REM
(B) III II REM II
(C) REM II III I
(D) I II III REM
33. Child using whole arm movement in
writing before he uses his fingers in
holding a pen or pencil is indicative
of
(A) Proximo – Distal Principle
(B) Cephalo – Caudal Principle
(C) Specific movement
(D) Neural control
34. Principle stating that a more
preferred activity can be used to
reinforce a less preferred activity is
referred to as :
(A) Trace conditioning
(B) Hull’s principle
(C) Principle of stimulus
generalization
(D) Premack principle

35. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin
model of human memory which of
the following sequence of events is
correct ?
(A) attention – sensory memory –
short term memory – long term
memory – elaborative
rehearsal.
(B) sensory memory – attention –
short term memory –
elaborative rehearsal – long
term memory
(C) attention – short term memory
– sensory memory –
elaborative rehearsal – long
term memory
(D) sensory memory – short term
memory – attention – long
term memory – elaborative
rehearsal.
36. Attribution, the process by which we
determine the causes behind other’s
behaviour, involves focusing on
which aspects of behaviour ?
(A) consensus, distinctiveness and
attraction
(B) distinctiveness, consistency
and influence
(C) consensus, consistency and
distinctiveness
(D) distinctiveness, influence and
attraction
37. Deliberate application of known
strategies to tasks, planning their use
in advance, monitoring them in
action, evaluating their output and
modifying subsequent behaviour on
the basis of performance is called.
(A) Self regulated learning
(B) Implicit learning
(C) Deductive reasoning
(D) Cognitive learning
38. At what level do we understand the
complete meaning and sense of a
language structure ?
(A) Phonemes
(B) Syntax
(C) Prosodic contour
(D) Morphemes
39. In terms of the percentage of
common variance shared by the two
variables, arrange the following
co-relations in descending order :
1. 0.60
2. –0.50
3. –0.70
4. 0.40
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
40. What do characterize Rapid Eye
Movement sleep ?
1. Delta waves
2. Loss of muscle tone
3. Low voltage – high frequency
waves
4. Higher cerebral activity
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
41. Threshold hypothesis indicates :
(A) positive correlation between
intelligence and creativity upto
a particular level of
intelligence.
(B) negative correlation between
intelligence and creativity upto
a particular level of
intelligence.
(C) curvilinear relationship
between intelligence and
creativity after a particular
level of intelligence.
(D) negative correlation between
intelligence and creativity after
a particular level of
intelligence

42. Using Sternberg’s theory as the
reference, match List-I with List-II.
List – I
(Components)
List – II
(Type)
p. Experiential 1. Analytic
q. Contextual 2. Creative
r. Componential 3. Practical
4. Successful
Codes :
p q r
(A) 3 4 2
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 3
43. Match List-I with List-II and
indicate your answer with the help of
the given codes :
List – I
(Type of
Memory)
List – II
(Type of
Information )
p. echoic
memory
1. episodic
information
q. iconic
memory
2. auditory
information
r. auto
biographical
memory
3. visual
information
s. implicit
memory
4. priming
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
44. Which of the following illnesses
caused by long term abuse of alcohol
often involves profound retrograde
amnesia ?
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Parkinson’s disease
(C) Huntington’s disease
(D) Korsakoff’s disease
45. Applied behaviour analysis involves
four steps. Which of the following
two pairs are included ?
1. Define and observe
2. Enumerate and reward
3. Observe and reinforce
4. Intervene and test
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1) and (4) are correct.
(C) (2) and (4) are correct.
(D) (3) and (4) are correct.
46. Match List-I with List-II and
indicate your answer with the help of
given codes :
List – I
(Route)
List – II
(Processing)
p. Central
route to
persuasion
1. heuristic
processing
q. Peripheral
route to
persuasion
2. elaboration- likelihood
processing
r. Distinct
routes to
persuasion
3. cognitive
Dissonance
s. Attitude- behaviour
discrepancies
4. systematic
processing
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 4 3 1

Instructions For Questions 47 to 50 :
Read the following passage and answer the
four questions that follow :
A psychologist developed a new
Anxiety Inventory of 25 items. The
Cronbach alpha for the inventory was
found to be 0.80. The inventory was
administered to a group of 50 anxiety
disorder patients before beginning their
psychotherapy. The patients had a
significantly higher mean than the
normative group of normals. The same
group of patients was retested after 12
weeks of psychotherapy. The post-test
mean was significantly lesser than the
pre-test mean. The new Anxiety Inventory
was correlated with an established anxiety
inventory and the correlation turned out to
be 0.20. The norms of the inventory were
developed in terms of normalized T scores.
47. What would be the median T score
for the new Anxiety Inventory ?
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 120
(D) Inadequate data on median T
score.
48. The above data indicate that the new
inventory has
(A) Satisfactory parallel form
reliability
(B) Unsatisfactory parallel form
reliability
(C) Satisfactory concurrent validity
(D) Unsatisfactory concurrent validity
49. What can you infer about the internal
consistency reliability of the new
inventory ?
(A) Satisfactory internal
consistency reliability
(B) Unsatisfactory internal
consistency reliability
(C) Split-half reliability needs to
be computed first to infer
about internal consistency.
(D) Inadequate data in the above
passage to infer about internal
consistency.
50. The above data indicate that the new
inventory has
(A) Unsatisfactory construct validity
(B) Satisfactory construct validity
(C) Unsatisfactory test-retest reliability
(D) Satisfactory test-retest reliability
51. Which one of the following theories
predicts that work motivation will be
low if an employee perceives that an
increased effort will have little, or no
effect on his/her performance ?
(A) Just-world theory
(B) Need-drive theory
(C) Expectancy theory
(D) Normative theory
52. Assertion (A) : If higher order factor
analysis is to be carried out,
first order factors should not
be subjected to varimax
rotation.
Reason (R) : Varimax rotation
provides oblique factors.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
53. Where are oxytocin and vasopressin
hormones synthesized ?
(A) Posterior pituitary
(B) Anterior pituitary
(C) Gonads
(D) Hypothalamus

54. Match List-I with List-II.
List – I
(Concept)
List – II
(Psychologist)
p. Parenting styles 1. Bowlby
q. Attachment 2. Piaget
r. Reciprocal
Determinism
3. Bandura
s. Centration 4. Baumrind
Codes :
p q r s
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
55. Which of the following is not a
component of Emotional Intelligence
as described by Mayer and Salovey.
1. The ability to use emotions to
facilitate thinking.
2. The ability to perceive,
appraise and express emotions
accurately.
3. The ability to perceive,
appraise and express emotions
appropriately.
4. The ability to adapt to new and
different contexts, select
appropriate contexts and
effectively shape one’s
environment to suit one’s
needs.
Codes :
(A) 4 only
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
56. Which of the following are the
characteristics of Cattell’s Culture
Fair Intelligence Test ?
1. Speed
2. Power
3. Non-verbal
4. Performance
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
57. Technique of shaping is based on
which of the following principle ?
(A) Reciprocal inhibition
(B) Response inhibition
(C) Stimulus discrimination
(D) Successive approximation
58. What did Chomsky not argue about
language development ?
(A) There is a universal grammar.
(B) It is genetically wired.
(C) There is an innate modular
language.
(D) It is based on reinforced
learning.
59. What are the two types of declarative
memory given by Edel Tulving ?
(A) Episodic and semantic
(B) Semantic and procedural
(C) Reconstructive and semantic
(D) Procedural and reconstructive
60. Assertion (A) : Illusions are
instances in which perception
yields false interpretation of
physical reality.
Reason (R) : Theory of misapplied
constancy suggests that when
looking at illusions, we
interpret certain cues as
suggesting that some parts are
farther than others because of
our powerful tendency toward
size constancy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

61. Match List-I with List-II and
indicate your answer using the codes
given below.
List – I
(Psychologists)
List – II
(Measures)
1. Buss P. Aggression
machine
2. Milgram Q. Picture-
Frustration
Study
3. Rosenzweig R. State-trait
Anger
Inventory
4. Spielberger S. Obedience
Laboratory-
Shock
generator
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
62. Components of empathy are :
(A) Perceiving and Advancing
(B) Advancing and Interpreting
(C) Judging and Communicating
(D) Perceiving and Communicating
63. Assertion (A) : Paper-pencil selfreport
personality inventories
are very useful in personnel
selection.
Reason (R) : In selection situation,
paper-pencil, self-report
inventories are sensitive to
impression management.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.
64. Which of the following statements
would be false about multiple
correlation ?
1. It ranges from – 1.00 to 1.00
only.
2. It ranges from 0 to 1.00 only.
3. It ranges from –to +
4. It ranges from –1.00 to 0 only
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
65. Which of the following components
have been proposed by Torrance ?
1. Divergent thinking
2. Elaboration
3. Transformation
4. Flexibility
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
66. Which of the following strategies are
used to gain compliance ?
1. Ingratiation and commitment
2. Reciprocity and obedience
3. Reciprocity and scarcity
4. Respect and ingratiation
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 2 and 4 are correct.
(C) 3 and 4 are correct.
(D) 1 and 3 are correct.
67. Which is not the component of
Kluver-Bucy syndrome following
the removal of anterior temporal
lobes ?
(A) Rejection of anything that is
edible.
(B) A tendency to investigate
objects with the mouth.
(C) Lack of fear.
(D) Increased sexual activity often
directed at inappropriate
objects.

68. Arrange the following tests in
increasing order of their saturation
on projective criteria.
1. Thematic Apperception Test
2. Differential Aptitude Test
3. Rorschach Ink Blot Test
4. Incomplete Sentence Blank
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
69. A listener totally rejects the
conclusion that the death penalty is
justified for the purpose of
preventing further social evil despite
he cannot readily refute the premises
the speaker is presenting for his
conclusion. His reasoning is biased.
Why ?
(A) Due to his mood states
(B) Due to his beliefs
(C) Confirmation bias
(D) Hindsight
70. Jensen uses Regression argument to
account for :
(A) Genetic contribution in
abilities
(B) Context specific abilities
(C) Group differences in
intelligence
(D) Age related changes in
intelligence
71. Assertion (A) : Working memory
involves both storage capacity
and the capacity to process
information held in the
memory system.
Reason (R) : The serial position
effect provides evidence for
the existence of two distinct
memory systems, working
memory and long term
memory.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
72. In the multiple components model of
working memory, the Central
Executive supervises and
coordinates the functioning of which
of the components ?
1. Episodic information and
procedural information.
2. Phonological loop and
visuospatial sketch pad
3. Procedural information and
abstract semantic information.
4. Semantic information and
episodic information.
(A) 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 1 and 4 are correct.
(C) 2 and 3 are correct.
(D) 2 and 4 are correct.
73. Bio feedback therapy is based on
which of the following ?
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Observational learning
(C) Operant conditioning
(D) Cognitive learning
74. Assertion (A) : People go out of
their way to maintain selfesteem
and to sustain the
integrity of their self concept.
Reason (R) : “Self-handicapping” is
a deliberate attempt to
sabotage one’s performance so
as to have a readymade excuse
for failure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
75. According to Freud, different types
of anxiety are :
1. Neurotic anxiety
2. State anxiety
3. Moral anxiety
4. Reality anxiety
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

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