Previous CPT Question Paper

I am going to participating in Common Proficiency Test so need previous year question paper, will you please provide here?

The institute conducts Chartered Accountant Common Proficiency Test (CA CPT Exam) in two modes:

Paper Pencil Mode of Examination and Online Registration Mode of Examination

The entrance test consists of objective type questions.

The medium of all the questions and instructions is English.

The question paper follows negative marking scheme, which means one fourth mark is deducted for every wrong answer.

Question paper:

1. Which of the following should be valued
compulsory at the time of admission of a
partner______
a) Goodwill b) Plant & machinery
c) Land & Buildings d) Furniture & fillings
2. Which Accounts are used to prepare Bank
Reconciliation statement?
a) Cash column & Bank statement
b) Bank column & Bank Statement
c) Cash column & Bank Balance
d) None of the above
3. The opening stock is overstated by Rs.10,000
and closing stock is understated by Rs.15,000.
The impact on the net profit of the current
year is
a) Rs.5,000 overstated
b) Rs.25,000 overstated
c) Rs. 5,000 understated
d) Rs.25,000 understated
4. If nothing is given in the financial statements
about the three accounting assumptions then
it is to be treated as it
a) Is assumed that it is not followed
b) Is assumed to be followed
c) Is assumed to be followed to some extent
d) None of the above
5. A & B have started a Joint Venture for
purchase & Sale of garments. Initial capital
contribution was Rs.25,000 & Rs.50,000. There
is no written agreement about share of P & L
among them. They purchased garments worth
Rs.50,000 & sold for Rs.75,000, the profit to be
shared among them is
a) Rs.8,333 & Rs.16,667
b) Rs.10,000 & Rs.15,000
c) Rs.12,500 & Rs.12,500
d) Rs.20,000 & Rs.5,000
6. Preference shares can be redeemed, unless
they are
a) Partly paid b) Fully paid
c) Transferred d) Re-Issued
7. On 1st April, Mr.A sold goods of Rs.10,000 to B
and drew a bill for 3 months. Mr. A discounted
the bill with bank at 15%. Amount of discount
will be?
a) Rs. 125 b) Rs.250 c) Rs.375 d) None
8. Underwriting commission will not be paid on
shares taken by
a) Promoters b) Employees
c) Directors d) All of these
9. Renewal fee of patents is a ____ expenditure.
a) Capital b) Revenue
c) Differed revenue d) Development
10. A & B are equal partners. They admitted ‘C’ for

11. The proprietor of the business is treated as
creditor for the capital introduced by him due
to_____ concept.
a) Money measurement b) Cost
c) Entity d) Dual aspect
12. Where a machine produces products of
uniform size, the method of depreciation to be
applied ______
a) Machine Hour method
b) Annuity method
c) Sinking fund method
d) Production units
13. Debentures are shown under the heading____
a) Secured Loans b) Reserves & surplus
c) Capital Reserve d) Current liabilities
14. Fixed assets are held by business for _____
a) Converting into cash
b) Generating revenue
c) Resale
d) None of the above

15. Net realizable value is _______
a) Estimated selling price
b) Estimated cost price plus marketing cost
c) Estimated selling price less cost incurred in
order to make sale
d) Estimated selling price plus cost incurred in
order to make sale
16. In Joint Venture the minimum number of coventureres
is :
a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 4
17. Retirement of a Bill means _____
a) Discounting a Bill
b) Dishonour of a bill
c) Renewal of a bill
d) Payment made before due date
18. What are the options available to the holder of
a bill in the bills of exchange (Besides retaining
the bill, till the due date)?
a) Discount with bank
b) Sent to bank for collection
c) Endorse it to his creditor
d) All of these
19. A Bill is Discounted Rs.10,000. Where is it
shown at the time of preparation of balance
sheet?
a) Liability side of balance sheet
b) Assets side of balance sheet
c) Foot note to Balance sheet
d) Debit side of profit & loss A/c
20. Expenditure spend for Increasing the cinema
hall seats is called_____
a) Capital expenditure
b) Revenue expenditure
c) Deferred revenue expenditure
d) None of the above
21. Which of the following is the meaning for the
entry recorded in the machinery A/c?
Dr Machinery A/c Cr
Date Particulars Rs. Date Particulars Rs.
31-3-13 By P & L A/c 5000
a) Portion of sale of machinery transferred to
Profit & Loss A/c
b) Machinery of Rs.5,000 sold
c) Machinery of Rs.5,000 purchased
d) Loss on sale of machinery transferred to P &
L A/c
22. Which accounting concept specifies the
practice of crediting closing stock to the
trading account?
a) Cost b) Realisation
c) Going concern d) Matching
23. A LTD before commencing business, can it
issue the shares at discount?
a) Possible
b) Not possible
c) Possible with the permission of stock
exchange
d) Possible With the approval of shareholders
and with the permission of Government.
24. In Balance sheet ______ is not shown
a) Authorised Capital
b) Un-issued capital
c) Subscribed capital
d) Paid-up capital
25. Provision for depreciation A/c is created by
debiting to
a) Machinery A/c
b) Profit & Loss A/c
c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
d) None of these
26. Amount spent to increasing the earning
capacity is a ______ expenditure
a) Capital b) Revenue
c) Deferred revenue d) Capital Loss
27. Which of the following is true?
a) Co-venturers always share profits equally
b) Number of Co-venturers can never be more
than two
c) Relation between co-Venturers is principal
and Agent
d) Co-ventures may provide funds
28. Change in the capital A/c of proprietor may
occur due to ______
a) Profit earned b) Loss incurred
c) Capital Introduced d) All of the above
29. If the goods sent on approval, two vehicles of
Rs.55,000 each, are recorded as Rs.75,000
each, then the cost of goods lying with
customers is
a) Rs.1,10,000 b) Rs.55,000
c) Rs.75,000 d) Rs.1,50,000

30. Which of the following is not correct for
debentures Issue?
a) They can be issued for cash
b) They can be issued for consideration other
than cash
c) A company can buy its own debentures
d) Can be issued in lieu of dividend
31. Goods purchased costing Rs.60,000 and cash
paid Rs.45,000 after receipt of a cash discount
Rs.9,000. What is the percentage of trade
discount got___
a) 15 % b) 10% c) 7½% d) 25%
32. _____ is prepared to ascertain the arithmetical
accuracy of posting & balancing of accounts.
a) Cash book
b) Journal
c) Trial Balance
d) Bank Reconciliation statement
33. If depreciation is charged at a fixed rate, then
depreciation in SLM method, when compared
to WDV is
a) Equal in the first year & Less in subsequent
years
b) Less in the first year & More in subsequent
years
c) Equal in the first year & More in subsequent
years
d) More in the first year & Less in subsequent
years
34. Consistency with reference to application of
accounting procedures means
a) All companies in the same Industry should
use identical accounting procedures
b) Income & assets have not been overstated
c) Accounting methods & procedures shall be
followed uniform basis year after year
d) Any accounting method can be followed as
per convenience
35. The manager earned a commission of
Rs.25,000, which is based on 10% of Net Profit.
If sales is Rs.3,50,000 is more than purchases.
No opening & closing stock. Find Direct &
Indirect expenses?
a) Rs.75,000 b) Rs.1,00,000
c) Rs.2,50,000 d) Not attainable
36. Which is not a feature of company
a) Separate legal entity
b) Perpetual existence
c) Incorporated Association
d) No separation between management &
Ownership
37. Delcredere commission 10% is to be calculated
on Rs.1,00,000 of cash sales and on Rs.50,000
of credit sales, then the commission will be
a) Rs.10,000 b) Rs.15,000
c) Rs.5,000 d) None of the above
38. For a depreciable asset, obsolescence is due to
a) Passage of time
b) Wear & Tear
c) Technological Changes
d) None of the above
39. Salaries paid Rs.4,500 is shown on credit side
of Trail Balance. The Debit side of Trial Balance
will be ______
a) Short by Rs.4,500
b) Excess by Rs.4,500
c) Short by Rs.9,000
d) Excess by Rs.9,000
40. The value of inventory as on Apr.04 is
Rs.1,60,000. The following transactions takes
place during Apl.01 to Apl.04. The value of
stock sold is Rs.40,000. The mode of sale is as
follows:-
i) The damaged goods are sold for Rs.15,000,
Sold at 25% below cost.
ii) The remaining goods are sold at cost plus
25%.
The value of stock as on 31st March is
(Damaged goods valued at NRV) ______
a) Rs.2,00,000 b) Rs.1,95,000
c) Rs.2,05,000 d) None of the above
41. An Asset purchased for Rs.60,000 and paid
Rs.10,000 and remaining amount is payable in
installments. This effect leads to ______
a) Both assets & Liabilities increased by
Rs.50,000
b) Both assets & Liabilities Decreased by
Rs.50,000
c) Assets Increased by Rs.10,000 & Liabilities
Decreased by Rs.10,000
d) Assets Increased by Rs.50,000 & Liabilities
Decreased by Rs.50,000

42. A company issued shares for 5,000 but
applications are received for 7,500 shares. Mr.
X applied for 600 shares. How many shares he
will get & how much amount is transferred to
allotment money, where application money is
Rs.3 per share?
a) 400 shares & Rs.600 b) 600 shares & Rs.600
c) 500 shares & Rs.300 d) None of the above
43. On 31-03-13 balance of Cash book is Rs.7,074
(Credit), balance as per bank statement is
Rs.3,159 (Debit). On scrutiny it was found that,
it was due to cheques issued but not yet
presented.
Bank balance on 31-03-13 to be shown in
Balance sheet is _____
a) Bank O.D. Rs.3,159
b) Cash at Bank Rs.7,074
c) Bank O.D. Rs.7,074
d) Cash at Bank Rs.3,159
44. Karthik and Dhoni entered into Joint venture,
sharing profits & Losses in the Ratio of 2:1.
Karthik purchased goods Rs.2,00,000 and
entitled to 1% commission on purchases.
Dhoni sold goods for Rs.2,50,000 and entitled
to get a commission 5% on sales. The profit on
venture will be _____
a) Rs.35,500 b) Rs.34,000
c) Rs.36,000 d) Rs.38,000
45. ______ method is used when repairs and
Maintenance goes on increase.
a) SLM method
b) WDV method
c) Machine hours method
d) Production units method
46. Wages paid Rs.2,500 for Installation of new
machinery wrongly debited to wages A/c
instead of machinery A/c. It is an error of ____
a) Omission b) Commission
c) Principle d) Clerical errors
47. Which of the following are current assets?
1) Accounts receivable
2) Salaries paid-in-advance
3) Bank Loan for 3 years
4) Preliminary expenses
a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3
c) 3 & 4 d) All of the above
48. Overriding commission is a commission, that
is____
a) Calculated on gross sales
b) Calculated on credit sales
c) Allowed for selling goods above invoice price
d) None of the above
49. On 31-3-13, prepaid expenses A/c (2012-13)
shows a closing balance of Rs.5,000. It means
a) Expenses transferred from previous years
for Accounting in current year
b) Expenses transferred to next year for
Accounting in that year only
c) Expenses transferred to next year for
accounting in that (or) future year
d) Expenses to be transferred to P & L A/c of
current year.
50. Petty cash book is used to record ____
a) Expenses for postage and conveyance
b) Purchase of Raw material
c) Paid salaries
d) None of the above
51. Ram Ltd. has issued 15% Debentures of
Rs.20,00,000 at a Discount of 10% on April,
2012. The company pays interest half yearly on
June 30th & Dec 31st every year. On March 31st ,
2013. The amount shown as interest accrued is
______
a) Rs.2,25,000 b) Rs.75,000
c) Rs.3,00,000 d) Rs.1,50,000
52. In Profit & Loss a/c, Selling & Distribution
expenses does not include______
a) Commission on sale
b) Packing expenses c) Legal expenses
d) Advertisement expenses
53. The credit balance as per pass book of ‘X’ was
Rs.65,000. Cheques issued but not paid
Rs.75,800.
Cheques deposited by one of the customers of
bank but wrongly credited in ‘X’ A/c Rs.20,600.
The balance as per cash book is _____
a) Rs.31.400 Debit b) Rs.31,400 Overdraft
c) Rs.1,20,000 Debit d) Rs. 10,400 Overdraft
54. Rectification of errors are first entered in:
a) Journal proper b) Subsidiary books
c) Trial balance d) Ledger

55. Which of the following are not miscellaneous
expenses?
a) Preliminary expenses
b) Amount spent for research & development
c) Brokerage on Issue of shares & Debentures
d) Goodwill yet to be written off.
56. Uma, being a holder of 1000 shares of Rs.20
each issued at a discount of 10% per share. She
did not pay the allotment money of Rs.4 per
share and first call of Rs.8 per share. At the
time of forfeiture, the discount on the shares
must be_____
a) Credited Rs.2,000 b) Debited Rs.2,000
c) Credited Rs.1,000 d) None of these
57. C & D are the partners of a firm, who share
profits & losses in the ratio of 5:3. D is entitled
to get 5% commission. The net profit of the
year is Rs.33,600 before charging such
commission. Find the share of the profits of C
& D.
a) C 20,000 & D 12,000
b) C 19,950 & D 11,970
c) C 21,000 & D 12,600
d) C 21,600 & D 12,000
58. Which of the following is false?
a) Assets can be arranged in the order of their
liquidity.
b) Balance sheet can be prepared vertically
c) Intangible asset is not an asset
d) None of these
59. In which method, Joint life policy premium
paid is treated as an expense and not as an
asset?
a) Ordinary expense method
b) Surrender value method
c) Joint life policy reserve method
d) None of the above.
60.
PART B – MERCANTILE LAWS
61. In case of unenforceable contract with some
technical defect, then the parties _____
a) Can sue
b) Cannot sue
c) Should be considered as illegal
d) None of the above
62. _____ Contracts are also known as Contracts
with executed consideration
a) Unilateral b) Completed
c) Bilateral c) Executory
63. An Advertisement for sale of an old Flat which
is published in leading newspaper. This kind of
offer is _____
a) Specific Offer b) Continuing Offer
c) Open Offer d) General Offer
64. There is no binding contract in case of ____ as
one’s offer cannot be construed as acceptance
by the other.
a) Cross Offer b) Standing Offer
c) Counter Offer d) Special Offer
65. A offers B to supply Books at Rs.100 each
Book. B accepts the same with condition of
10% discount. It is _____
a) Counter Offer b) Cross Offer
c) Specific Offer d) General Offer
66. In case of counter offer is made, the original
offer stands _____
a) Rejected b) Accepted Automatically
c) Accepted with modifications and variations
d) None
67. Which of the following is not an exception to
the rule “No Consideration, No Contract”?
a) Love & affection
b) Compensation for past Voluntary services
c) Contract of agency d) None of the above
68. G paid Rs.1,00,000 to H to influence the head
of the Government Organisation in order to
provide him some employment. On his failure
to provide the job, G sued H for recovery of
the amount. Which of the following is correct?
a) G can recover the amount of Rs.10,000.

b) G can recover the amount of Rs.10,000 with
interest. c) G can file a suit.
d) G cannot recover the amount.
69. A stronger party is able to dominate the will of
the weaker party, then it is known as _____
a) Undue influence b) Coercion
c) Mistake d) All of the above
70. Karthik is the coach of Sachin a minor, who
joined for Hockey coaching. The Fees is 10,000.
The Contract is _____
a) Void Agreement
b) Contingent Contract
c) Quasi Contract d) Wagering Agreement
71. _______ is a game of chance.
a) Conditional Contract
b) Contingent Contract
c) Wagering Agreement d) Quasi Contract
72. A, B, C are partners. They promised to give
60,000 to D. If C dies, who will Perform the
Contract?
a) A, B b) A, B and C’s legal representatives
c) A, B do not perform
d) None of the above
73. A contract entered between promisor and
promisee becomes impossible to perform due
to destruction of subject matter. In this case __
a) Promisee is entitled for compensation
b) Contract continues to be valid
c) Contract becomes void
d) None of the above
74. X & Y entered into an agreement to buy an
imported car for Rs.30,000. Later on they
cancelled the agreement. This is known as ___
a) Rescission b) Remission
c) Alteration d) Novation
75. A holds a house on lease. After that he buys
the house and became owner. The contract is
discharged by _____
a) Rescission b) Merger
c) Waiver d) Remission
76. Which of the following Damages are
punishment in nature?
a) Vindictive Damages b) Nominal Damages
c) Special Damages d) Ordinary Damages
77. Under Indian partnership act 1932, the
Partnership can be formed between ____
a) One Indian & Two Foreigners
b) One major person and one unsound mind
person
c) Convicts undergoing Imprisonment
d) None of the above
78. The Mode of determining the existence of
partnership is ___
a) Real relation between them
b) Sharing of profits
c) Business is to carried on by all (or) any of
them acting for all. d) All of the above
79. Each partner in a firm is in the position of ____
a) Only agent b) Only principal
c) Agent as well as principal
d) Neither agent nor principal
80. Which of the following is a form in which all
the partners are signed?
a) Pronote b) Partnership Deed
c) MOA d) None
81. The Un-registered firm does not have a _____
a) Right to file a suit on third party
b) Right to acquire property
c) Right to Transfer property
d) All of the above
82. Dormant partner is also known as ____
a) Sleeping Partner b) Active partner
c) Nominal Partner d) Sub – Partner
83. In which of the following, the partnership
duration is not fixed?
a) Particular Partnership
b) Partnership at will
c) Fixed term partnership d) None of these
84. Robert is a sleeping partner in a firm. He
detected a wrong in the accounts of the firm.
So he wants to check the complete accounts of
the firm. But the other partners objected it.
Can the objection made by the other partners
is correct or not?
a) Void, their objection is wrong.
b) Valid, they can object.
c) Valid, they have the right not to give the
accounts to the sleeping partner.
d) None of the above

85. The status of a partner making advances to the
firm in addition to his capital, then he is _____
a) A Partner of the firm
b) Employee of the Firm
c) Creditor of the firm d) All of the above
86. As per the agreement, profits should be shared
equally but loss shall be borne by one partner.
Then the partnership agreement is _____
a) Lawful b) Illegal c) Void d) Voidable
87. Which of the following is with in the scope of
implied authority of a partner in a partnership
firm?
a) Enter into partnership on behalf of the firm.
b) Admit any liability in a suit or proceeding
against the firm;
c) Acquire immovable property on behalf of
the firm d) Purchasing & selling goods,
in which the firm deals.
88. The liability of newly admitted partner arise
from ____
a) The Date of his admission
b) As per agreement
c) For the pre-existing debts of the firm
d) All of the above
89. For Dissolution of a firm, partners may apply
to the court on the ground of _______
a) Insanity of partner
b) Misconduct of Partner
c) Perpetual Losses in Business
d) All of the above
90. The mode of dissolution of firm under Indian
partnership Act 1932 is_____
a) Illustrative b) Inclusive
c) Exhaustive d) None of the above
91. Under the sale of goods act 1930, the seller in
a contract of sale transfers the ______ in
goods to the buyer for a price.
a) Possession b) Control
c) Rights d) Property
92. If the goods completely perish before contract
of sale, the contract becomes.
a) Valid b) Void
c) Voidable d) Unenforceable
93. A stipulation in a contract of sale with
reference to the goods which may be ____
a) Fair price b) Lawful price
c) Condition (or) warranty d) Delivery
94. Conditions which are presumed by law to be
present in a contract are ______
a) Express Conditions b) Implied Conditions
c) Qualified Conditions
d) Unqualified Conditions
95. When a person sells the goods by infringing
the copyright or trademark of the others, there
is breach of an implied _______
a) Condition as to title
b) Condition as to description
c) Condition as to merchantability
d) None of these
96. The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies to the
sale where ______
a) The Buyer Expressly informed the seller the
particular purpose for which the goods are
being bought
b) Sale under a Patent or Trade Name
c) When the good is of merchantable quality
and the buyer has examined the good.
d) None of the above
97. The Goods are damaged after Sale. The Risk is
to be borne by ______
a) Buyer only b) Seller only
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above
98. Q sells 100 tones of rice to P at Rs.50,000 per
tone. P makes the full payment and says that
he will take the goods on next week. Before P
could take the goods, the goods are destroyed.
The loss will be borne by _____
a) P b) Q c) Both P & Q equally d) None
99. Seller sends the goods to the buyer at larger
(or) smaller quantity than ordered quantity.
The option to the buyer is _____
a) Reject the whole quantity
b) Accepts the whole quantity
c) Accept (or) Reject the whole quantity
d) All of the above
100. Right of general lien cannot be exercised by __
a) Factor b) Banker
c) Auctioneer d) All of these

Key - Part A – FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C
16. A 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. B
26. A 27. D 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. B 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. B
36. D 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. B
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. B
46. C 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. A
51. B 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. B
56. A 57. B 58. C 59. A 60.

Part B – MERCANTILE LAWS
61. B 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. A
66. A 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. C
71. C 72. B 73. C 74. A 75. B
76. A 77. A 78. D 79. C 80. B
81. A 82. A 83. B 84. A 85. C
86. A 87. D 88. B 89. D 90. B
91. D 92. B 93. C 94. B 95. A
96. D 97. A 98. A 99. C 100. C
PART A – GENERAL ECONOMICS
1. What does “Price mechanism” exists.
a) Capitalist economy
b) Socialist economy
c) Both type of economies
d) None of the above
2. Socialist economy is also known as ____
economy
a) Mixed b) Planned
c) Capitalist d) None of the above
3. In a perfectly competitive markets , if MR is
greater than MC then a firm should
a) Increase its production
b) Decrease its production
c) Increase in sales
d) Decrease in sales
4. When total utility is increases at a diminishing
rate, then marginal utility is ______
a) Diminishing b) Zero
c) Maximum d) one
5. The cross elasticity of demand between two
perfect substitutes will be
a) Zero b) Infinity
c) Very high d) Very low
6. The shape of IC for complementary goods is
a) Straight line b) L- Shaped
c) Convex to the origin d) Circular
7. Kinked demand curve is related to
a) Oligopoly b) Monopsony
c) Monopoly
d) Monopolistic competition
8. In long-run a monopolist always earn ___
profits
a) Normal b) Abnormal
c) Zero profit d) Loss
9. The concept ‘Returns to scale’ is related with _
a) Very short period b) Short period
c) Long period d) None of the above
10. A Higher IC shows ______
a) A Higher level of satisfaction
b) A Higher level of Income
c) A Higher level of production
d) None of the above
11. Positive science only explains _____
a) What it is?
b) What ought to be?
c) What is right or wrong?
d) None of the above
12. In a Cobb – Douglas production function, two
inputs are ____
a) Land and Labour
b) Capital and Labour
c) Capital and Entrepreneur
d) Entrepreneur and land
13. From which of the following the concept of
consumer’s surplus has been derived
a) Law of diminishing marginal utility
b) Law of demand
c) Law of supply
d) Indifference curve analysis
14. The Price line / Budget line of a consumer is
a) Parallel to x-axis
b) Parallel to Y- axis
c) Straight line joining two axis
d) None of the above
15. The Demand for factors of production is ___
Demand
a) Fundamental b) Derived
c) Market d) Joint
16. Production function is
a) Purely technical relationship between input
& output
b) Purely economic relationship between input
& out put
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these

17. Which statement among below is correct in
reference to AFC?
a) Never becomes zero
b) Curve never touch x-axis
c) Curve never touch y-axis
d) All of these
18. Innovation theory of entrepreneur is
propounded by
a) Prof knight b) Schumpeter
c) Max weber d) Peter Ducker
19. If a seller obtains Rs.3,000 after selling 50 units
and Rs.3,100 after selling 52 units then MR will
be
a) 59.62 b) 50.00 c) 60.00 d) 59.80
20. The Price of a tiffin box is Rs. 100 per unit and
the quantity demanded in a market is 1,25,000
units . Company increased the price to Rs.125
per unit due to this increase in price quantity
demanded decreases to 1,00,000 units. what
will be price elasticity of demand ______
a) 1.25 b) 0.80 c) 1.00 d) None
21. Economics which is concerned with welfare
propositions is called.
a) Socialistic economics
b) Capitalistic economics
c) Positive economics
d) Normative economics
22. Under which of the following forms of market
structure does a firm has very considerable
control over the price of its product?
a) Monopoly
b) Perfect competition
c) Monopolistic competition
d) Oligopoly
23. The price of a commodity decreases from 10 to
8 and the quantity demanded of it increases
from 25 to 30 units .Then the coefficient of
price elasticity will be _____
a) 1 b) -1 c) 1.5 d) -1.5
24. In which among the following systems the
“Right to property” exists
a) Mixed b) Capitalist
c) Socialist d) Traditional
25. Objectives of price discrimination in
international market is
a) To capture foreign markets
b) To dispose of surplus stock
c) To earn maximum profit
d) All of the above
26. What is the elasticity between midpoint &
upper extreme point of a straight line
continuous demand curve?
a) Infinite b) Zero c) >1 d) <1
27. Who is responsible for collecting & presenting
statistics in India
a) ISI b) CSO c) ICAER d) NCERT
28. Value added method is used to measure__
a) National Income b) Domestic Income
c) Gross Income d) Personal Income
29. Bad and doubtful debts of scheduled
commercial banks are known as___
a) Non-performing Assets
b) Withdrawals of assets
c) Non-recoverable Assets
d) None of the above
30. Direct taxes are___ in nature
a) Progressive b) Regressive
c) Proportionate d) Digressive
31. The portion of total deposits which a
commercial bank has to keep with itself in
liquid assets is known as__
a) CRR b) SLR
c) Repo Rate d) Reverse Repo Rate
32. Under strategic sale method disinvestment
price is fixed on___
a) Prevailing price b) Estimated rate
c) Pre-determined rate d) Market based rate
33. Land development bank provide loans for a
period of______
a) One year b) Two to five years
c) Five to seven years
d) Fifteen to twenty years
34. Censes of population is done in India at an
interval of ___
a) 5 years b) 10 years
c) 15 years d) None of the above

35. Which of the following is the largest
contribution of GDP in India.
a) Agriculture b) Tourism
c) Industries d) Service
36. Which index is used to measure inequality of
income and wealth?
a) Gini index b) Price index
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above
37. Which of the following is not controlled by RBI
a) Cash deposit ratio b) Cash reserve ratio
c) SLR d) SCR
38. Which of the following is not a component of
demand pull inflation
a) An increase in the government expenditure
with no change in tax rate
b) A downward shift of saving function
c) A rise in money wage rate
d) An upward shift of investment function
39. National Income differs from Net National
Product at market price by the amount of
a) Net indirect taxes
b) National debt interest
c) Subsidies
d) Current transfers from the rest of the world
40. The production method of calculating national
income is also known as ____
a) Value added method
b) Income method
c) Expenditure method
d) None of the above
41. Which of the following type land tenure
system were prevailed in India at the time
independence?
a) Zamindari System b) Mahalwari System
c) Ryotwari System d) All of the above
42. Fiscal deficit can be reduced by__
a) Increasing subsidy
b) Restrict privatization
c) Reprioritize planning scheme
d) Reduction of tax revenue
43. The rate at which discounting of bills of first
class is done by RBI is called
a) Repo rate b) Bank rate
c) Prime lending rate d) None of the above
44. Convertibility of rupee means ___
a) Determine its own exchange rate in
international market
b) Conversion of rupee into various Foreign
currencies
c) Transfer of funds in international market
d) None of the above
45. Globalization means__________
a) Creation of global trading blocks
b) Dismantling trade barriers
c) Introducing single currency in the world
d) None of the above
46. Which of the following is a qualitative method
of credit control?
a) Bank rate b) Open market operations
c) Variation in the reserve requirement
d) Regulation of consumer credit
47. When price rise because of growing factor
prices then that inflation is called as
a) Deflation b) Demand full inflation
c) Stagflation d) Cost push inflation
48. Fiscal policy means
a) Policy related to money matter
b) Policy related to income and expenditure of
the government
c) Policy related to disbursement of funds to
state government
d) Policy related to foreign trade matters
49. The term disinvestment is more popularly used
a) Where a holding company sells shares of a
subsidiary company
b) Where a investment company off loads its
holding
c) Where central / State government sells its
holding of public sector companies
d) None of the above
50. One major proposal of new industrial policy
(1991) was
a) Impose restriction on technical know-how
for one year
b) All types of industries have been made
licensed
c) NRI’S will not be allowed for capital
investment in India
d) Facility of direct foreign investment up to
51% in high priority industries

PART B - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
51. Find value of 
3 z
x
y
z
x
y log . log log
a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) 3
52. Find the value of 2 Log . 9 Log 3 4
a) 3 b) 9 c) 2 d) 1
53. If 0 c b a 3 3 3 then find the value of
54. Of the 200 candidates who were interviewed
for a position at call center, 100 had a two
wheeler, 70 had a credit card and 140 had a
mobile phone. 40 of them had both a two
wheeler and a credit card, 30 had both a credit
card and mobile phone, 60 had both a two
wheeler and a mobile phone and 10 had all the
three. How many candidates had none of
them?
a) 0 b) 20 c) 10 d) 18
55. If f(x) =
5 x
25 x2
-
-
then f(5) =
a) 0 b) 1 c) 10 d) Un defined
56. f(x) = n
1
n) x a ( ,a>0 and n is positive integer
then f[f(x)] =
a) x b) a c) x1/n d) a1/n
57. An AP has 13 terms whose sum is 143. The
third term is 5, then first term is
a) 4 b) 7 c) 9 d) 2
58. The solution of the inequality 14 x 12 6 x 8 
is
a) (-2,2) b) (-2,0) c) (2, ) d) (-2, )
59. If kx-4 = (k-1)x which of the following is true
a) x = -5 b) x = -4 c) x = -3 d) x = 4
60. If the equations kx + 2y = 5 , 3x + y = 1 has no
solution then the value of k is
a) 5 b) 2/3 c) 6 d) 3/2
61. If b2 - 4ac is a perfect square but not equal to
zero then the roots of the equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 are
a) Real and equal
b) Real, irrational and equal
c) Real, rational and unequal
d) Imaginary
62.  


2 x
a x ax x
Lt
2
2 x
which of the following
is true

64. The points on the curve 1 x x x y 2 3 .
Where the tangent is parallel to x-axis are

65. Divide 80 into two parts so that their products
is maximum, then the numbers are
a) 15,65 b) 25,55 c) 35,45 d) 40,40
66. A seller makes an offer of selling certain
articles that can be described by the equation
x=25-2y where x is price per unit and y denotes
the no. of units. The cost price of the article is
Rs.10 per unit. The maximum quantity that can
be offered in a single deal to avoid loss is
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
67. dx a x 2
a)
2
a log a x 2
b)
a log
a . 2 x 2
c)
a log 2
a x 2
d) None
68. How many different words can be formed
with the letters of the word “LIBERTY”
a) 4050 b) 5040 c) 5400 d) 4500

69. In how many ways can a family consist of 3
children have different birthdays in a leap year
a) 366 x 365 x 364 b)
3 C 366
c)
3 C 365 d) 3 366
3 C 
70. If
3 r r 3 C C 15 15

then r =
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
71. The ratio of numbers is 1:2:3 and sum of their
squares is 504 then the numbers are
a) 6,12,18 b) 3,6,9
c) 4,8,12 d) 5,10,15
72. In what time will a sum of money double itself
at 6.25% p.a simple interest
a) 5 Yrs b) 8 Yrs c) 12yrs d) 16Yrs
73. The difference between and C.I & S.I at 7% p.a
for 2 years is Rs. 29.4. then principal is
a) Rs.5,000 b) Rs.5,500
c) Rs.6,000 d) Rs.6,500
74. What principle will amount to Rs.370 in 6 years
at 8% p.a at simple interest
a) Rs.210 b) Rs.250 c) Rs.310 d) Rs.350
75. G.M of a, b, c, d is 3 then G.M of

76. The pair of averages whose value can be
determined graphically?
a) Mean & Median b) Mode & Mean
c) Mode & Median d) None of the above
77. In normal distribution mean ,median and
mode are
a) Equal b) Not equal
c) Zero d) None of the above
78. If Arithmetic Mean =
2
4 8 
, then Variance is :
a) 2 b) 6 c) 1 d) 4
79. Coefficient of mean deviation about mean for
the first 9 natural numbers is :

80. Mean =5, S.D = 2.6, Median = 5, Q.D = 1.5 then
Coefficient of Q.D is :
a) 35 b) 39 c) 30 d) 32
81. The difference between maximum and
minimum value of the data is known as :
a) Range b) Size
c) Width d) Class
82. Price and Demand is example for :
a) No correlation
b) Positive correlation
c) Negative correlation
d) None of these
83. Determine the coefficient of correlation
between x and y series
X – Series Y – Series
Number of items 15 15
Arithmetic mean 25 18
Sum of Square of
deviation of mean
136 138
Sum of product deviation of x and y series
from mean = 122
a) -0.89 b) 0.89 c) 0.69 d) -0.69
84. If r = + 1 or - 1 then the two regression lines __
a) Have 300 angle between them
b) Have 450 angle between them
c) Coincide
d) Perpendicular to each other
85. If mean of X and Y variables is 20 and 40
respectively and the regression coefficient Y on
X is 1.608 then the regression line of Y on X is :
a) Y = 1.608 X + 7.84 b) Y = 1.56 X + 4.84
c) Y = 1.608 X + 4.84 d) Y = 1.56 X + 7.84
86. What is the formula for calculating the
deflated index :
a) x100
year current of Index Price
Value Current
b) x100
Year Last of Index Price
Value Current
c)
year current of Index Price
Value Current
d)
year Last of Index Price
Value Current

87. The index number for the year 2012 taking
2011 as base using simple average of price
relatives method from the data given below is:
Commodity A B C D E
Price in 2011 115 108 95 80 90
Price in 2012 125 117 108 95 95
a) 112 b) 117 c) 120 d) 111
88. An index time series is a list of ____ numbers
for two or more periods of time.
a) Index b) absolute
c) Relative d) None
89. The difference between upper limit and lower
limit of a class is called:
a) Class Interval b) Class boundaries
c) Mid - value d) Frequency
90. If the class intervals are
10 -14, 15 -19, 20 -24,…
Then the first class boundaries are :
a) 9.5 – 14.5 b) 10 – 15
c) 9 – 15 d) 10.5 – 15.5
91. If P (A) = 0.45, P (B) = 0.35, P (A and B) = 0.25
then B / A P =
a) 1.4 b) 1.8 c) 0.714 d) 0.556
92. Two coins are tossed simultaneously then the
probability of getting exactly one head is

93. The probability that a cricket team winning a
match at Kanpur is 2/5 and loosing a match at
Delhi is 1/7. What is the probability of the
team winning at least one match?

94. Find the expected value of the following
probability distribution
X -20 -10 30 75 80
P (x) 3/20 1/5 1/2 1/10 1/20
a) 20.5 b) 21.5 c) 22.5 d) 24.5
95. In a certain poisson frequency distribution, the
probability corresponding to two successes is
half of the probability corresponding to three
successes. The mean of the distribution is
a) 6 b) 12 c) 3 d) 2.95
96. If the points of inflexion of a normal curve are
6 and 14 then standard deviation is
a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32
97. There are 75 students in a class and their
average marks is 50 and S.D of marks is 5.
Number of students who have secured more
than 60 marks (Given that area under the
normal curve for z = 2 is 0.4772) is ______
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
98. Which of the following is non-probability
sampling?
a) Systematic sampling
b) Quota sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Stratified sampling
99. Sample in which the number of units is less
than _____ is called a small sample
a) 100 b) 75 c) 50 d) 30
100. Standard deviation of a sampling distribution is
known as:
a) Standard Error b) Sampling Error
c) Probable Error d) Mean Deviation


Key - Part A – GENERAL ECONOMICS
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. C
21. D 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. D
26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. A
31. B 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. D
36. A 37. A 38. C 39. A 40. A
41. D 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. B
46. D 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. D

Part B – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
51. C 52. D 53. C 54. C 55. D
56. A 57. D 58. D 59. D 60. C
61. C 62. B 63. D 64. A 65. D
66. B 67. C 68. B 69. A 70. B
71. A 72. D 73. C 74. B 75. A
76. C 77. A 78. D 79. C 80. C
81. A 82. C 83. B 84. C 85. A
86. C 87. D 88. A 89. A 90. A
91. C 92. D 93. B 94. B 95. A
96. A 97. B 98. B 99. D 100. A

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member