BSNL TTA Question Paper

Will you please provide here the BSNL Telecom Technical Assistants (TTAs) questions paper?

You are looking for the BSNL Telecom Technical Assistants (TTAs) questions paper, i am giving here:

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.

3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)

4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)

5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)

6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.

7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)

8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)

9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)

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__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Will you please provide the question paper of BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited)TTA(Telecom Technical Assistant) exam ?

As you are looking for the question paper of BSNL TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) exam , here i am providing list of few questions given below:

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -

a) It is dimensionless

b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum

c)) It?s value for all substances is less than one

d)) None

2. Pure metals generally have-

a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient

b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient

d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is

a) Air

b) Ferrite

c) Powdered ion

d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-

a) C a V1/3

b) C a V-1/3

c) C a V1/2

d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-

a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

b) A conductor having zero resistance

c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility

d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-

a) Thermistor

b) Forward biased pn junction diode

c) Reverse biased pn junction diode

d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -

a) Near the transformer

b) Near the circuit breaker

c) Away from the transformer

d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neither a nor b

d) Both a and b
9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -

a) Are available locally

b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

c) Have more electrons than holes

d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -

a) Channel resistance

b) Size of depletion regions

c) Voltage drop across channel

d) Gate reverse bias
11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -

a) 1010

b) 105

c) 10-4

d) 10-6

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?

a) acts as a fixed resistance

b) has a constant voltage across it

c) has a constant current passing through it

d) never overheats
13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ?

a) IC/IE

b) IC/IB

c) IB/IC

d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-

a) high input impedance

b) low input impedance

c) same input impedance

d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -

a) ohmic

b) bilateral

c) unilateral

d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -

a) Pair of SCRs

b) Pair of four layer SCRs

c) Diode and two resistors

d) Triac width
17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ?

a) 106/cm3

b) 103/ cm3

c) 1010/ cm3

d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero? represents -

a) Kirchhoff’s law

b) Norton’s theorem

c) Thevenin’s theorem

d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ?

a) TE1 mode

b) TM01 mode

c) TE01 mode

d) Higher order mode
20. A two-port network is symmetrical if ?

a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1

b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1

c) AD ? BC = 1

d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-

a) balun

b) broad band directional coupler

c) double stub

d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -

a) by an LC network

b) as an RC driving point impedance

c) as an RC driving point admittance

d) only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?

a) R and C

b) L and C

c) R and L

d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?

a) B

b) Z12

d) h12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-

a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.

b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.

c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.

d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -

a) 250 ?300 MHz

b) 150 ? 200 MHz

c) 90 ? 105 MHz

d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -

a) Inductive loading

b) Resistive loading

c) Capacitive loading

d) Shielding

28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -

a) 49 W

b) 60 W

c) 70 W

d) 140 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be ?

a) 25W

b) 50W

c) 100W

d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-

a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m

b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m

d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -

a) 0.4456 0

b) 1.44560

c) 2.44560

d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -

a) Polystyrene

b) Glass of low refractive index

c) Paraboloid surfaces

d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -

a) Electrodynamometer

b) PMMC

c) Electrostatic

d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?

a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A

b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A

c) A dc ammeter will read 10A

d) A dc ammeter will read zero
36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -

a) power factor of the circuit is high

b) impedance of the circuit is high

c) bandwidth is large

d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -

a) the maximum number of input channels

b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture

c) it’s internal clock period

d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
38. A memoryless system is ?

a) causal

b) not causal

c) nothing can be said

d) none

39. An air capacitor is a ?

a) time variant

b) active device

c) time invariant

d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -

a) pure metals

b) pure insulators

c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides

d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure ?

a) very low pressures

b) high pressures

c) pressures in the region of 1 atm

d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ?

a) AC voltage controllers

b) Cyclo converters

c) Phase controlled rectifiers

d) Inverters

43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ?

a) off state to on state

b) on state to off state

c) on state to on state

d) off state to off state
44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -

a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage

b) peak working off state forward voltage

c) peak working off state reverse voltage

d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-

a) is a straight line passing through origin

b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg

c) is a curve between Vg and Ig

d) has a spread between two curves of Vg ? Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-

a) two full converters in series

b) two full converters connected back to back

c) two full converters connected in parallel

d) two semi converters connected back to back
47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are ?

a) Vs, P

b) Vs/2, P

c) 2Vs, 2P

d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has ?

a) only an ohmic region

b) only a saturation region

c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages

d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -

a) increases with temperature

b) remains constant

c) slightly increase with temperature

d) decrease with temperature
50. In an electronic circuit matching means -

a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance

b) selection of components which are compatible

c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.

d) RC coupled stages
51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because

a) They have higher input impedance

b) They have high switching time

c) They consume less power

d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -

a) Increase in ICEO

b) Increase in ac current gain

c) Decrease in ac current gain

d) Increase in output resistance

53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -

a) 13. 3 KHz

b) 30KHz

c) 10KHz

d) 40KHz

54. The output of a class B amplifier -

a) is distortion free

b) consists of positive half cycles only

c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier

d) comprises short duration current pulses
55. An amplifier with negative feedback -

a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency

b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency

c) increases its bandwidth

d) all of the above
56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -

a) Block becomes redundant

b) A FM detector would be required

c) A high frequency signal generator

d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-

a) greater speed

b) slower speed

c) average speed

d) none of the above

58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by ?

a) Dt = N ? Fc

b) Dt = N ? 1/Fc

c) Dt = 1/N ? Fc

d) Dt = N ? 1/Fc
59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be ?

(y denotes don’t care)

a) y and 0

b) y and 1

c) 0 and y

d) 1 and y

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance
61. The 2′s complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch
63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs
68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above
69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation
72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen
74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device
81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain
86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace
88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance
61. The 2′s complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch
63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs
68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above
69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation
72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device
81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain
86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace
88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-

a) water

b) stone

c) air

d) hills

90. What is a collection of sheep called ?

a) bunch

b) flock

c) herd

d) comet

91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :

You can buy a book. You can read it.

a) and

b) nor

c) either

d) neither

92. What is the opposite of Asperity ?

a) gentility

b) superiority

c) kindness

d) clarity

93. The Election Commission functions under-

a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Law

c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat

d) None of these
94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-

a) President’s Rule is to be imposed

b) Emergency is declared

c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry

d) A political party of national level is to be banned
95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-

a) Becquerel

b) Madam Curie

c) Rutherford

d) Jenner

96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-

a) 1995-2000

b) 1996-2001

c) 1997-2002

d) 1998-2003

97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?

a) 5,000 MW

b) 10,000 MW

c) 15,000 MW

d) 20,000 MW

98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?

a) 1769

b) 1789

c) 1889

d) 1869

99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?

a) 1/10th of total membership

b) 1/6th of total membership

c) 1/4th of total membership

d) 1/5th of total membership
100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 9

d) 10

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

You need Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited Telecom Technical Assistants exam model paper, I am giving here:

1. A 32-bit processor has

(a) 32 registers

(b) 32 I/O devices

(c) 32 Mb of RAM

(d) a 32-bit bus or 32-bit registers

2. Clock speed is measured in

(a) bits per second

(b) Hertz

(c) bytes

(d) baud

3. A 20-bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity

(a) 1 MB

(b) 2 MB

(c) 4 MB

(d) 8 MB

4. A microprocessor contains

(a) most of RAM

(b) most of ROM

(c) peripheral drivers

(d) most of the control and arithmetic logic functions of computer

5. Which of the following is NOT a type of processor?

(a) PowerPC

(b) Motorola 8086

(c) Motorola 68000

(d) Intel Pentium

6. If interrupt arrives on the three lines INTR, RTS 6.5 and RTS 7.5, which of them will the 8085 processor acknowledge?

(a) INTR

(b) RTS 6.5

(c) RTS 7.5

7. The Intel 8086 processor is

(a) 8-bit

(b) 16-bit

(c) 32-bit

(d) 64-bit

8. An assembly language instruction

(a) always has a label

(b) always takes at least one operand

(c) always has an operation field

(d) always modifies the status register

9. An interrupt instruction

(a) causes an unconditional transfer of control

(b) causes a conditional transfer of control

(c) modifies the status register

(d) is an I/O instruction

10. Programs are written in assembly language because they

(a) run faster than High-level language

(b) are portable

(c) easier to write than machine code programs

(d) they allow the programmer access to registers or instructions that are not usually provided by a High-level language

11. Given that the subprogram putc displays the character in al, the effect of the following instruction is –

mov al, ‘c’

sub al, 2

call putc

(a) display 2

(b) display ‘c’

(c) display ‘a’

(d) display a blank

12. The result of mov al, 65 is to store

(a) store 0100 0010 in al

(b) store 42H in al

(c) store 40H in al

(d) store 0100 0001 in al

13. Microprocessor is also often called a

(a) Chip

(b) Resistor

(c) Capacitor

(d) Transistor

14. A microprocessor’s program counter has

(a) the digital value of the data

(b) the address of an instruction

(c) the address of data

15. Which of the following is a math co-processor?

(a) 8085

(b) 8086

(c) 8087

(d) 8088

16. Interrupts are classified as

(a) Hardware interrupts

(b) Software interrupts

(c) Hardware interrupts and Software interrupts

(d) none of the above

17. The system bus is made up of

(a) data bus

(b) data bus and address bus

(c) data bus and control bus

(d) data bus, control bus and address bus

18. The memory address register is used to store –

(a) data to be transferred to memory

(b) data that has been transferred from memory

(c) the address of a memory location

(d) an instruction that has been transferred from memory

19. When an interrupt occurs, the processor completes the current ___________ before jumping to the interrupt service subroutine

(a) microinstruction it is executing

(b) instruction it is executing

(c) macro it is executing

(d) subroutine it is executing

20. A microprocessor is a processor with a reduced

(a) instruction set

(b) power requirement

(c) MIPS performance

(d) none of the above

21. A scheme in which the address specifies which memory word contains the address of the operand, is called

(a) Immediate addressing

(b) Based addressing

(c) Direct addressing

(d) Indirect addressing

22. Processor gets the address of the next instruction to be processed from

(a) Instruction register

(b) Instruction counter

(c) Program counter

(d) Program register

23. Fetch operations are not required in

(a) Immediate addressing

(b) Register addressing

(c) Direct addressing

(d) Indirect addressing

24. What is meant by Maskable interrupts?

(a) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer.

(b) An interrupt that cannot be turned off by the programmer.

(c) An interrupt that can be turned off by the system.

(d) An interrupt that cannot be turned off by the system.

25. Which interrupts are generally used for critical events such as Power failure, Emergency, Shut off etc.?

(a) Maskable interrupts

(b) Non-Maskable interrupts

(c) none of the above

26. Which microprocessor accepts the program written for 8086 without any changes?

(a) 8085

(b) 8087

(c) 8088

27. How many memory locations are required to store the instruction LXI H, 0800H in an 8085 assembly language program?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

28. How many memory fetches (including instruction fetch) are required to execute the instruction LXI H, 0800H in an 8085 assembly language program?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

29. MPU stands for

(a) Multi-Processing Unit

(b) Micro-Processing Unit

(c) Mega-Processing Unit

(d) Major-Processing Unit

30. Which of the following is not possible by a microprocessor?

(a) Reading from Memory

(b) Writing into Memory

(c) Reading from Input port

(d) Writing into Input port

31. In which microprocessor does the concept of pipeline first introduced?

(a) 8086

(b) 80286

(c) 80386

(d) 80486

32. LSI stands for –

(a) Large Size Instruction

(b) Large Scale Instruction

(c) Large Size Integration

(d) Large Scale Integration

33. Which of the following is true about pseudo code?

(a) A machine language

(b) An assembly language

(c) A high level language

(d) none of the above

34. The macro processor must perform

(a) recognize macro definitions and macro calls

(b) save the macro definitions

(c) expand macro calls and substitutes arguments

(d) all of the above

35. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to

(a) 1 byte

(b) 2 byte

(c) 4 byte

(d) 8 byte

36. The TRAP interrupts mechanism of the 8085 microprocessor

(a) execute an instruction supplied by an external device through the INTA signal

(b) execute an instruction from memory location 20H

(c) executes a NOP

(d) none of the above

37. What are the states of the Auxiliary carry (AC) and Carry flag (CY) after executing the following 8085 program?

MVI H, 5DH

MVI L, 6BH

MOV A, H

ADD L

(a) AC=0 and CY=0

(b) AC=1 and CY=1

(c) AC=1 and CY=0

(d) AC=0 and CY=1

38. Contents of register A after the execution of the following 8085 microprocessor program is

MVI A, 55H

MVI C, 25H

ADD C

DAA

(a) 7AH

(b) 80H

(c) 50H

(d) 22H

39. Which of the following is a 16-bit micro processor?

(a) Motorola 6800

(b) Intel 8085

(c) Intel 8086

(d) Zilo 80

40. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor uses 36 address lines to access memory. What is the maximum memory that it can support, in gigabytes?

(a) 16

(b) 32

(c) 64

(d) 128

41. Out of the following which is not the flag in 8085 microprocessor

(a) Counter flag

(b) Carry flag

(c) Zero flag

(d) Parity flag

42. What is a basic element of Memory?

(a) Transistor

(b) Flip-flop

(c) Gate

(d) none of the above

43. Which group of instructions do not affect the flags?

(a) Arithmetic operations

(b) Logic operations

(c) Data transfer operations

(d) Branch operations

44. DMA stands for

(a) Direct Memory Allocation

(b) Distinct Memory Allocation

(c) Direct Memory Access

(d) Distinct Memory Access

45. In RST interrupts, RST stands for

(a) Repeat Start Test

(b) Restart

(c) Start

46. Which interrupt has the highest priority?

(a) TRAP

(b) RST 6

(c) RST 6.5

(d) INTR

47. In 8085 microprocessor with memory mapped I/O

(a) I/O device have 8-bit addresses.

(b) I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions.

(c) arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I/O data.

(d) there can be a max of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.

48. A microprocessor –

(a) reads instructions from memory

(b) communicates with I/O devices

(c) controls the timing of information flow

(d) all of the above

49. An instruction consists of

(a) Data and Address

(b) Register and Memory

(c) Opcode and Operand

(d) Input and Output

50. If the 8085 adds 87H and 79 H, which of the following flags will become 1

(a) Zero flag and Auxiliary Carry flag

(b) Zero flag and Carry flag

(c) Carry flag and Auxiliary Carry flag

(d) none of the above

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Answered By StudyChaCha Member