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I need the Bharat Sanchar Nigam LTD Telecom Technical Assistants (TTAs) exam, question paper please provide here?
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![]() This is the BSNL Telecom Technical Assistants (TTA) exam questions: 1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is (A) 2/20 (B) 63/100 (C) 16/20 (D) 63/20 2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is (A) Zero (B) Non-Zero (C) Unity (D) Non of these 3. Limit sin x/x is x?0 (A) not defined (B) 1 (c) zero (D) -1 4. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its (A) average velocity (B) velocity at the instant of collision (C) initial velocity (D) all of these 5. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of (A) 1µm (B) 100 µm (C) 1mm (D) 1 Å 6. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer (A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source (B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source (C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged (D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted 7. Moving electric charges will interact with (A) electric field only (B) magnetic field only (C) both of these (D) none of these 8. Gamma radiation is most similar to (A) sound waves (B) X-ray (C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons 9. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is (A) meson (B) anti proton (C) positron (D) muon For detailed paper here is attachment:
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This exam is held by twenty four BSNL Telecom circles. The exam pattern may vary depending on the different BSNL telecom. The Syllabus it covers are applied mathematics, physics, basic electricity, electronics devices and circuits and more. Questions Q.1.What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages? Browser Mail Client FTP Client Messenger Q.2.What is the address given to a network called? System Address Sys ID Process ID IP Address Q.3.Which one of the following is a valid DOS command? LIST *.* LIST???. RECOVER A: RENAME A:SAMPLE.TXT C:TEST.DOC Q.4.All system settings in WINDOWS are stored in: CONTROL.INI MAIN.INI SYSTEM.INI SETTING.INI Q.5.Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer? 2 10 16 32 Q.6.Which of the following is not an output device: Printer Scanner Flat Screen Touch Screen Q.7.A microprocessor is a processor with reduced instruction set power requirement MIPS performance none of the above Q.8.Which of the following is not an output of an assembler? executable program source listing with line numbers and errors a symbol table object program Q.9.Which layer of OSI model is responsible for routing and flow control: Presentation Transport Network Data Link Q.10.Arrays are passed as arguments to a function by value reference both a and b none of the above Q.11.Array is: linear data structure non-linear structure none of the above Q.12.A data structure in which elements are added and removed from only one end, is known as: Array Stack Queue None of the above Q.13.C language is available for which of the following Operating Systems? DOS Windows Unix All of the above Q.14.A diamond-shaped box in an Entity-Relationship diagram refers to: Entity Relationship Attribute Q.15.Which of the following statements in regard to Directories is false? Directories can exist inside directories The root directory is always at the highest level Directories with files can be deleted Directories cannot be renamed Q.16.The principle means of identifying entities within an entity set is: Primary Key Record Attribute Tuple Q.17.Modem refers to: Modulator Modulation Demodulator Modulator and Demodulator Q.18.Which one of the following is not a Normal Forms (Normalization) rule with regards to the Relational Model? All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary Key. Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables. Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed within their own tables with an associated Primary Key. Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in another table. Q.19.What is a file server? A computer that performs a service for other computers A computer that controls the printers on the network A computer that stores files that are created by network users Q.20.If c is a variable initialized to 1, how many times the following loop be executed: while(c>0 && c<60) { c++; } 59 60 61 none of the above Q.21.Which of the following have the fastest access time? Magnetic Tapes Magnetic Disks Semiconductor Memories Compact Disks Q.22.DMA stands for: Direct Memory Allocation Distinct Memory Allocation Direct Memory Access Distinct Memory Access Q.23.It is better to buffer a table when When a table is read infrequently When a table is linked to check tables When a table is read frequently and the data seldom changes When a single record is to be picked up Q.24.Array subscripts in C always start at: 1 0 1 Value provided by user Q.25.Which type of commands in DOS needs additional files for their execution? Batch Commands Internal Commands External Commands Q.26.The Operating System is responsible for: Controlling peripheral devices such as monitor, printers, disk drives Provide an interface that allows users to choose programs to run and to manipulate files Manage users’ files on disk All of the above Q.27.RAM stands for Read Access Memory Read After Memory Random Access Memory Random After Memory Q.28.A company whishes to connect two sites in different parts of the country together. It is decided to use the telephone system. What device should be connected to the fileservers on each site? Router Modem Switch Hub Q.29.What is the Protocol used for the Internet? IPX/SPX NetBIOS/NetBEUI CDMA/CA TCP/IP Q.30.A floppy disk is consisting of 40 tracks, each track contains 100 sectors, and the capacity of a sector is 512 bytes, what is the approx. size of that disk? 1 MB 2 MB 4 MB 8 MB Q.31.Choose the answer which best describes the term Primary Key: The Primary Key is a field that contains data that can be duplicated. The Primary Key is a field that contains data that is unique. The Primary Key is a field that is never associated with any field in other tables. The Primary Key field is a concept used only in Microsoft Access. Q.32.Which technique is used to reduce the size of a file: Compression Decompression Encryption Decryption Q.33.BIOS stands for Binary Input Output Set Binary Input Output System Basic Input Output Set Basic Input Output System Q.34.What is the binary equivalent of a decimal number 68: 1000100 1100100 1000010 1000001 Q.35.The declaration void fun(int) indicates the fun is a function which: has no arguments returns nothing both a and b none of the above Q.36.Assembly language to machine language translation is: One-to-One One-to-Many Many-to-One Many-to-Many Q.37.An RDBMS is a: Remote DBMS Relative DBMS Reliable DBMS Relational DBMS Q.38.Maximum size of IP address is: 12 bits 24 bits 32 bits 48 bits Q.39.The overall logical structure of a database can be expressed graphically by: Data Flow Diagram Flow Chart Directed Graph Entity-Relationship Diagram BSNL TTA exam paper 1. In a D.C. generator, if the brushes are given a small amount of forward shift, the effect of armature is a. Totally demagnetizing b. Totally magnetizing c. Partly demagnetizing and partly cross magnetizing d. Totally cross magnetizing 2. The air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor is kept as small as possible a. To get a stronger magnetic field b. to improve the air circulation c. To reach the higher speed of rotation d. To make the rotation easier. 3. Two series motors are coupled. One motor runs as generator and other as motor. The friction losses of the two machines will be equal when a. Both operates at same voltage b. Both have same back emf c. Both have same speed d. both have same excitation 4. Plugging of D.C. motor is normally executed by a. Reversing the field polarity b. Reversing the armature polarity c. Reversing both the armature and field polarity d. Connecting a resistance across the armature. 5. Transformer oil transformer provides a. Insulation and cooling b. B. Cooling and lubrication c. Lubrication and insulation d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication 6. Leakage fluxes of transformer may be minimized by a. Reducing the magnetizing current to the minimum b. Reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum c. Reducing the number of primary and secondary turn to the minimum d. Sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings 7. Electric power is transformed upon one coil to other coil in a transformer a. Electrically b. Electro Magnetically c. Magnetically d. Physically 8. The most suitable and economical connection for small high voltage transformer isa. Star- Delta connection b. Delta- Delta connection c. Delta- Star connection d. Star- Star connection 9. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at a. Unity power factor b. Leading power factor c. Lagging power factor d. Either lagging or leading power factor 10. In an A.C. machine, the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept rotating for the following rason a. Armature handles very large currents and high voltages b. Armature friction involving deep slots to accommodate large coils is easy if armature is kept stationary c. Ease of cooling the stator than rotor d. None of the above. 11. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is the a. Angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles b. Angle between the magnetizing current and back emf c. Angle between the supply voltage and back emf d. None of the above 12. A 3-phase synchronous motor is said to be "floating" when it operates a. On no load and without loss b. On constantly varying load c. On pulsating load d. On high load and variable supply voltage 13. Speed of synchronous motor depends upon a. Number of poles b. Supply frequency c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b) 14. Imbalance in the shaft of an induction motor occurs due to a. Slip rings b. Overheating of winding c. Non uniform of air gap d. Rigid consturcion 15. Squirrel cage induction motor has a. Zero starting torque b. Very small starting torque c. Medium starting torque d. Very high starting torque 16. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is similar to that of a a. Synchronous motor b. Repulsion - start induction motor c. Transformer with a shorted secondary d. Capacitor - start, induction - run motor 17. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor are similar to those a. D.C. shunt motor b. D.C. series motor c. A.C. motor d. None of the above 18. Single phase A.C. motor generally used for vacuum cleaners is a. Universal motor b. Repulsion motor c. Hysteresis motor d. Reluctance motor 19. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of a. Switch yard b. Transformers c. Alternators d. Transmission lines 20. The type of braking used in traction system is a. Mechanical braking b. Electro - pneumatic braking c. Vacuum braking system d. All the above 21. The function of processing zenger diode in a UJT circuit used for triggering of SCRs is to a. Expedite the generation of triggering pulses b. Delay the generation of triggering pulses c. Provide a constant voltage to UJT to prevent erratic firing d. Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the source voltage changes 22. The frequency of a ripple in the output voltage of a 3 - phase semi converter depends upon a. Firing angle and load resistance b. Firing angle and supply frequency c. Firing angle and load inductance d. Only on load circuit parameters 23. The SCR is turned off when the anode currents falls below a. Forward current rating b. Break - over voltage c. Holding current d. Latching 24. V4 characteristics of emitter of a UJT is a. Similar to CE with linear and saturation region b. Similar to FET with a linear and pinch of region c. Similar to tunnel diode in some respects d. Linear between the peak point and valley point 25. A transformer works on a. DC b. AC c. AC & DC both d. Neither AC not DC 26. Which of the following device is used in transformer? a. Tube light b. Electric heater c. Mobile phone d. Rectifier module 27. Earth electrodes can be in the form of a. rods or piper b. stripes c. plates d. any of above 28. Carbone or metal brushes are used in a. DC generators only b. AC generators only c. Both AC & DC generation d. None of above 29. Energy is lost due to Joule's heating effects in winding of transformer. This is called a. Copper loss b. Eddy current loss c. Flux loss d. None 30. In refrigeration cycle heat is lost in a. Cooling coil b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Expansion valve 31. The power factor of AC circuit is a. R/X b. R/Z c. Z/R d. Zero 32. Silicon controlled output is good if ripple factor is a. Switch b. Transformer c. Amplifier d. None of above 33. The rectifier output is good if ripple factor is\ a. More b. Less c. Constant d. None of above 34. Protective relays can monitor large AC current by means of a. Current transformer b. Potential transformer c. Micro transformer d. None of above 35. The combines AM of two similar batteries connected in parallel is: a. halved b. doubled c. remain constant d. none of above 36. The current in circuit having 5 V EMI source and 10 Ohm resistance is: a. 2 Amp b. 50 Amp c. 5 Amp d. ½ Amp 37. The chopper is a device to change a. Voltage b. Current c. Frequency d. None of these 38. The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc) is proportional to: a. speed b. square of speed c. cube of speed d. none of these 39. Which of these need to be measured after rewinding the motor: a. no load current b. air gap c. winding resistance d. all of the above 40. Five percent increase in supply frequency will change the synchronous speed of motor by: a. -5% b. +5% c. -10% d. +10% 41. Which of the following is the best inverter? a. square wave inverter b. sine wave inverter c. pure sine wave inverter d. triangular wave inverter 42. For driving a motor in a tape recorder or record player, the motor used is generally: a. a synchronous motor b. a hydraulic motor c. an induction motor d. a dc series motor 43. The DC motor starter used with a constant speed shunt motor is: a. 2 point starter b. 3 point starter c. 4 point starter d. 5 point starter 44. A commutator in a DC motor converts a. AC to DC b. DC to AC c. Both AC to DC and DC to AC d. None of these 45. Two transformers running in parallel will share the load according to their: a. leakage reactance b. pu impedance c. efficiency d. rating 46. The size of the Earth Wire is determined by: a. the ampere capacity of the service wires b. the atmospheric conditions c. the voltage of service wires d. none of these 47. The function of lightning arrester is: a. to limit the short circuit fault current b. to provide path to high voltage surge to earth c. to reduce arcing d. none of these 48. Surge protector provide: a. high impedance to normal voltage b. low impedance to surge c. both (a) and (b) d. none of these 49. Earthing is necessary to give protection against a. voltage fluctuation b. overloading c. danger of electric shock d. high temperature of conductors 50. The primary function of fuse is to a. protect the appliance b. open the circuit c. prevent excessive current d. protect the line
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