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  #1  
Old February 20th, 2012, 06:13 PM
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Default Previous Entrance Examination Papers of BHU Msc

Dear Sir,


Can you Provide Me the Previous Entrance Examination Papers of BHU Msc At my Email ID meersaquib@gmail.com
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  #2  
Old February 28th, 2012, 02:52 PM
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Default Re: Previous Entrance Examination Papers of BHU Msc

Shozib,
Please let me know that in which specialization you are pursuing your M.Sc from Banaras Hindu University. If you can tell me thing then I would undoubtedly be able to assist you in a better way.
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  #3  
Old November 18th, 2012, 03:29 PM
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Default Re: Previous Entrance Examination Papers of BHU Msc

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sumit Bhardwaj View Post
Shozib,
Please let me know that in which specialization you are pursuing your M.Sc from Banaras Hindu University. If you can tell me thing then I would undoubtedly be able to assist you in a better way.
previous entrance examination papers of Zoology B.H.U M.sc plz........................send me
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  #4  
Old March 21st, 2014, 02:07 PM
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Default Re: Previous Entrance Examination Papers of BHU Msc

I want to give the entrance examination of Banaras Hindu University for the admission in M.Sc in Chemistry so I need the previous year question papers so can you provide me that as it is very urgent for me?
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  #5  
Old March 21st, 2014, 02:21 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2013
Default Re: Previous Entrance Examination Papers of BHU Msc

As you want to get the previous year question papers of entrance examination of Banaras Hindu University for the admission in M.Sc in Chemistry so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. The change in entropy when two moles of a monatomic perfect gas is compressed to
half its volume and simultaneously heated to twice its initial temperature is
(1) Rln2 (2) 3Rln2 (3) 5Rln2 (4) 7Rln2
2. A heat engine operates between 1000 K and 600 K. The heat discharged into the cold
sink in a reversible process when 5 kJ of heat is supplied by the hot source, is
(i) 2 kJ (2) 2•5 kJ (3) 3 kJ (4) 5•5 kJ
(273) 1 (P.T.D.)
11P/206/30
3. For which of the following processes q = 0, w = 0, AU = 0 and AH = O?
(I) Reversible isothermal process in a perfect gas
(2) Reversible adiabatic process in a perfect gas
(3) Adiabatic expansion of a perfect gas into vacuum
(4) Reversible constant-volume process in a perfect gas
4. The fugacity or a certain gas at 200 K and 50 bars is 25 bars. The difference of its
chemical potential from that of a perfect gas in the same s~te is
(I) 200R In 25 (2) 200Rln2 (3) -200Rln2 (4) -200Rln25
5. The entropy of mixing I mole of )lexane with I mole of )leptane at 298 K is 11•4 JK-1
The Gibbs energy 9f mixing (assuming the solution to be ideal) is
(I) -1•72kJ (2) -3•44 kJ (3) 1•72 kJ (4) 3•44 kJ
6. The number of degrees of freedom of the system
KCI03 (s)-= 2KCI(s) +302 (g)
is
(1) zero (2) one (3) two (4) three
7. The expression that relates the partial molar properties of the components in a mixture
is mown as
(1) van\ Hoff equation
(3) Du)lem-Margules equation
(2) Gibbs-Du)lem equation
(4) Raoult's law
8. For a very dilute electrolyte solution with r + < 1, y + should increase with increase in
(273)
(I) solvent's density
(3) ionic strength
2
(2) solvent's dielectric constant

9. Which of the following statements is not' correct?
(1) AGmix at constant temperature and pressure must be negative
(2' Intermolecular interactions are negligible in an ideal solution
(3) Solute-solute interactions are negligible in an ideally dilute solution
(4' Activity coefficients are never negative
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) If ~Go> 0, no amount of products can be obtained when the reaction is run at
constant temperature and pressure
(2) It is possible for the entropy of a closed system to decrease substantially in an
irreversible process
(3) In any closed system with P - V work only, G is always minimised at equilibrium
(4) A (TS) =TAS+S'oT
11. The condition for the attainment of phase-equilibrium in a closed electrochemical
system is the equality of
(\) surface potentials
(3) chemical potentials
(2) electric potentials
(4) electrochemical potentials
12. The direction of a chemical reaction at constant temperature and pressure is the
direction of
(273)
(\) decrease of Gibbs free energy of the system
(2) decrease of Helmholtz free energy of the system
(3) increase of entropy of the system
(4) decrease of enthalpy of the system

13. The quantum yield of the photochemical decomposition of HI
HI+hv-> H+I
H+HI-> H2 +1
I+I+M~ 12 +M
with respect to HI is
(1) 0'5 (2) 1 (3) 1'5 (4) 2
14. HI is absorbed strongly on gold. Assuming Langmuir isotherm to apply, the order at the
reaction 2H1~ H2 +12 on gold is
(I) zero (2) 0'25 (3) 0•5 (4) 1
15. Which of the following statements is not correct for Langmuir isotherm?
(1) It applies to monolayer adsorption
(2) Under conditions a « 1 and a (Freundlich exponent) = I, it reduces to Framdlich
isotherm
(3) It applies to dissociative adsorption
(4) It applies to chemisorption
16. The activation energy and entropy of a bimolecular gas phase reaction at 600 K are
200kJmorl and -200JK-1 mol-1 respectively. The free energy of activatiuo is
(1) 70 kJ mol-I (2) 80 kJ mol-I (3) 310 kJ mol-I (4) 320 kJ mol-I
17. Among the following statements which is the correct one?
(273)
(1) The heat of chemisorption is always larger than that of physisorption
(2) Langmuir isotherm specifically assumes the existence of active centres
(3) Promoters are themselves catalysts
(4) Increase in surface tension with concentration leads to negative adsorption

18. The activation energy of the gas-phase association between F2 and 1Fs. a first-order
reaction in each of the reactants, is 58•6 kJ mol-I, The activation enthalpy at 340 K is
(1) 53 kJ moI-1 (2) 55•8kJmol-1 (3) 58•6 kJ mol-1 (4) 61.4kJmor1
19. In a photochemical reaction A -+ 2B +C, the quantum efficiency with 500 nm light is
2 x 102 mol einstein -1. After exposure of 300 m moles of A to the light, 2 m moles of B is
formed. The number of photons absorbed by A is
(1) lxl018 (2) 3x 1018 (3) 6xl018 (4) 9x 1018
20. The condition for which the reaction rate of an enzymolysis that follows
Michaelis-Menten kinetics, is half its maximum value, is
(1) (8)« K M
21. For the me_chanism
(2) (8)~KM (3) (8)~K M 12
A2 ~ 2A (fast)
A +B -> P (slow)
the reaction order with respect to A2 is
(I) 0 (2) 0•5 (3) 1
(4) (8)>> K M
(4) 2
22. Which of the following relations does not hold for the activity (A) of a radioactive
substance?
(I) ~ =G)"'''' (2) ~=exp(_0.693_t_)
Ao to.5
(3) to.5/to.1 =ln2 (4) ~=1-0.693..!.... at t .... O
Ao to.5

23. A powder diffraction photograph from tungsten shows lines which indices as (110).
(200), (211), (220), (310), (222), (321), (400), .... The symmetry of the unit cell is
(1) primitive (2) end-centred (3) face-centred (4) body-centred
24. Among the following halides which one fonns van der Walls crystals?
(1) NaCI (2) BeC12 (3) HgCl2 (4) HF
25. A form of CaCO, (c) has orthorhombic lattice with a=5•0 A, b =8•0 A, c=5•6 A and'
density = 3•0 gm em -3 at room temperature. The number of Ca 2+ ions per unit cell of"
the crystal is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
26. The ratio of the translational partition functions of D2 and H2 at the same temperature
and volume is
(1) 2 (2) 1-414 (3) 2•83 (4) 4
27. In which of the following systems is the energy level separation the largest?
(1) an electron in a radical in a field of 0•300 T
(2) a 14N nucleus in 600 MHz NMR spectrometer
(3) a proton in the same spectrometer
(4) a deuteron in the same spectrometer
28. Which of the following functions is not an eigenfunction of d
2
2?
dx
(1) cos lex (2) exp(_lex2 ) (3) lex (4) exp(ilex)
29. The ratio of mean molar masses of a given polymer sample as determined by light
scattering, sedimentation and osmotic pressure measurement methods is
(1) 1:1:2 (2) 2:1:2 (3) 1:2:1 (4) 2:2:1

30. In milk at 37°C Lactobacillus acidophilus has a generation time of 75 minutes. What is
the population relative to the initial value at 150 minutes?
(1) 4•0 (2) 2•25 (3) 2•0 (4) 1-75
31. If the pressure of a gas at constant temperature is doubled, the viscosity of the gas will
be
(1) quadrupled (2) doubled (3) halved (4) unchanged
32. Among the following molecules which one shows pure rotation spectra?
(1) N, (2) H2S' (3) CO2 (4) CH.
33. The SI unit of radiation dose is
(1) becquerel (2) curie (3) rad (4) gray
34. It is found tha~ a particle in a one-dimensional box of length of L can be excited to n = 2
state from the ground state by the light of frequency v. If the box length i. doubled, the
frequency needed to produce the above transition becomes
(1) v/4 (2) v/2 (3) 2v (4) 4v
35. For a hydrogen •atom in an n == 4 state, the maximum possible z-component of orbital
angular momentum is
(I) 2h (2) 3h (3) ..ff2 h (4) ,f6 h
36. Which one of the following is an acceptable approximate wave function Cor a state of the
helium atom?
(273)
(1) [Is(l) 15 (2)-1s(1) 1s (2)lIa (I)P(2»
(2) [15 (1)15 (2)lIa (l)a(2)+p(I)P(2))
(3) [1s(I)2s (2)+25 (I) 1s (2)J[a (I)a (2))
(4) [Is (1) 25 (2) +2s (1) Is (2))[a (I) P(2) -p (I) a (2))

37. Which one of the following statements concerning H~ is incorrect?
(1) The non-degenerate LCAO-MOs (without spin) must be either symmetric or antisymmetric
for inversion
{2} The lowest energy MO (without spin} of the molecule is anti-symmetric for
inversion
(3) The ground state has a multiplicity of two
(4) The MOs transform into ACs of the helium ion as the two nuclei are fused together
38. Which one of the following is the correct formula for the lowest energy eigenfunction for
a particle in a one-dimensional box having infmite barriers at x = -L {2 and L (2?
(1) ~ ain(7)
(3) if exp C;
39. Which of the following equations is used to calculate the number of theoretical plates?
(1) tR -to
to
(3) k2
k,
40. Which of the following techniques is based on selectively inducing radioactivity and
measuring the emitted radiation?
(1) Isotope dilution analysis (2) Radiometric titration
(3) Neutron activatiim analysis (4) All of the above
(273) 8
IlP{206{30
41. Which of the following techniques can be used only for volatile compounds?
(1) Gas chromatography
(3) Ion chromatography
(2) HPLC
(4) All of the above
42. Which of the following refers to ion exchange capacity?
(1) Nature of exchanging ions
(2) Nature of strong cation exchanger
(3) Nature of strong anion exchanger
(4) Total number of ion active groups per unit length of material
43. In electrogravimetry of cations the working electrode is
(I) anode (2) cathode
(3) both cathode and anode (4) neither anode nor cathode
44. Which of the following techniques is/are feasible approach in the detennination of a
substance that cannot be isolated in pure form for gravimetry or for detennination by
other methods?
(1) Neutron activation analysis (2) Isotope dilution analysis
(3) Radiometric titration (4) All of the above
45. Which of the following frequencies corresponds to carbonyl stretch vibration in acids?
(I) 1625 cm-1 (2) 1715 cm-1 (3) 1745cm-1 (4) 1800• em-I
46. A particular vibration in a polyatomic molecule is IR active if during vibration. there is
a change in
(I) poIarizability
(273)
(2) dipole moment (3) frequency
9
(4) potential energy

47. Moisture in a drug can be determined by
(I) Malaprade reagent (2) EDTA reagent
(3) Karl Fischer reagent (4) chloramine-T reagent
48. Which one is more toxic?
(I) Hg (2) (CH3bHg (3) Hg2+ (4) Hg~+
49. The most efficient technique for the separation of amino acids is
(I) adsorption chromatography
(3) ion-exchange chromatography
SO. Which one is not a pollutant?
(I) CO (2) CO2
51. Which one is the aink of CO2?
(I) Plant (2) Ocean
(2) partition chromatography
(4) paper chromatography
(3) 503 (4) N02
(3) Air (4) Soil
52. Ozone layer is a protective shield against
(I) visible light (2) ultraviolet light
(3) infrared rays
53. Nessler's reagent is
(I) KHgI.
(3) K 2HgI.
(273) 10
(4) cosmic rays
(2) K 2HgI. + NH.OH
(4) KHgI. +NH.OH
llP/206/30
54. Which of the following statements is not correct?
55.
56.
(1) In instrumental methods of analysis visual indicators are not required
(2) In classical volumetric titrations visual indications are not required
(3) In classical qualitative analysis removal of interfering radicals is essential
(4) Spectroanalytical techniques can be applied for qUalitative and quantitative
analysis
Visible region in the electromagnetic spectrum extends from
(1) 200-400 run (2) 800-900 run
(3) 400-4000 cm-1 (4) 400-800 run
Hard water can be softened in
(1) a calorimeter (2) a chromatograph
(3) an ion exchanger (4) an earthen ware pot
57. The technique used for the separation of components of a mixture is called
(1) chromatography
(3) electronic spectroscopy
58. Essential constituent of an amalgam is
(1) Ag (2) Hg
(2) IR spectroscopy
(4) polarography
(3) Mg (4) Fe
59. Potential of which of the following electrodes does not depend on pH of the solution?
(1) Glass electrode (2) Hydrogen electrode
(3) Quinhydrone electrode (4) calomel electrode

60. The unit of equivalent conductance is
(1) ohm -I cm-I
(3) ohm-I cm2
(2) ohm-I cm-2
(4) None of the above
61. Which quantity remains unchanged on changing temperature?
(1) Mole fraction (2) Molarity
(3) Normality (4) None of the above
62. The strongest ligand in spectra-chemical series is
(2) OW (3) H20 (4) CO
63. The iron is rusted, then it is
( 1) oxidized (2) reduced (3) evaporated (4) decomposed
64. Two elements cannot be combined chemically to make
(1) a compound (2) another element
(3) a gas (4) a liquid
65. Choose the law ~at states, "effective chemical changes are brought about by absorbed
radiations only"
(1) Beer's law (2) Grotthus-Draper law
(3) Lambert's law (4) law of photochemical equivalence
66. What quantity of limestone on heating will give 56 kg of CaO?
(1) 10 kg (2) 55 kg (3) 44 kg (4) 100 kg

67. The unit of absorptivity is
(1) em-I g-I L (2) em-I mol-1 L
(4) No unit
68. Oxine is a
(1) precipitating reagent (2) redox reagent
(3) drug (4) dye
69. Free radicals may be detected by
(1) mass spectrometry (2) NMR spectroscopy
(3) ESR spectroscopy (4) infrared spectroscopy
70. Lead can be tbe best analysed colorimetrically using which of tbe following reagents?
(1) Dithizone (2) EDTA (3) DMG
71. Which of the following is a hydride ion donor?
(1) NAD (2) ATP
72. Na and K can be estimated using
(1) X-ray fluorescence
(3) ion selective electrode
(3) NADH
(2) IR spectroscopy
(4) All of tbe above
(4) Acetyl acetone
(4) Coenzyme A
73. How many mL of concentrated HCl (density =1-18 g/mL, 36-0 wt % HCl, MW =36-5)
shOUld be diluted to 1-00 L to produce a 0-100 M solution?
(1) 8-59 mL (2) 85-9 mL (3) 0-859 mL (4) 17-18 mL

74. A 1•00xlO-3 M solution of HCI includes ~~Clltl/2 =3•09xI05 y). The specific activity
(the activity per unit mass or unit volume) of the solution is 5000 decays min -1 roL -I,
What fraction of Cl atoms in solution are 36Cl atoms?
(1) 0'194 12) 0•0194 13) 1'940 14) 0•00194
75. A 6•44xl0-4 M solution of Ti-peroxide complex had T =0•340 when measured. in a
1'00 em cell at 410 nm. What is the concentration of Ti-peroxide complex in a solution
that had T =0•516 when measured at 410 run in a 0'500 em cell?
11) 7•89xlO-2 M 12) 15•78xl0-2 M 13) 7•89xlO-4 M 14) 3•95xlO-3 M
76. The partition coefficient for ethyl iodide, E, between octanol and water is
K )Elo =100
p IElw
What percent of E present in 50'00 mL of water would remain if the water was
extracted with 10'00 mL of octanol?
11) 47'6% 12) 4•76% 13) 9•52% 14) 95•2%
77. Arrange the ionization energies of the following ions in increasing order
(A) Fe 2+ ~ Fe 3+
(8) Mn2+ --+ Mn3+
(C) Fe+1 --+ Fe 2+
Choices are
11) A lAt. No. of Fe and Mn are 26 and 25)

78. In the first row transition metal ion (2+) having four electrons in 3d orbitals (with 48
and 4 p orbitals empty)', the metal ion forms a hypothetical diamagnetic tetrahedral
complex {MA412- with A-anion. The electronic configuration of the M2+ ion in the
complex is
79. Out of the following which has the least tendency to form M = 0 species?
(I) sc =0 (II) P=O
(I) Sc =0 and P =0
(3) Ac=O
(Ln = Lanthanides and Ac = actinides)
(III) Ln =0 (IV) Ac =0
(2) Ln =0
(4) Sc =0, P =0 and Ac =0
SO. The magnetic properties of lanthanides are largely determined by the formula
(1) ~dI = ~n(n +2)
(2) 1'", =~n(n+2) + some contribution of orbital contribution
(3) ~"" =~L(L+2)
I 3 S(S+I)~L(L+I) (4) ~dI =gJ vJ(J+l), where 9J =-+-'-,-::-~,--,:,:--'-'
2 2J(J+l)

81. Ln2+ ions are largely coloured while Ln3+ ions are not coloured. The colour of Ln2+
compounds are due to transition
(1) 4/-+ 5d
(2) 4/-+4/
(3) charge transfer from liquid to metal ion
(4) 5d -+ 5d transition
82. Transition metals (some ions) form complexes with molecular N2 . There are two modes
of coordination of N 2 in the complexes of the type [M (N 2 )(L)n J These modes are
(a) end-on and (h) side-on. The stability of these complexes in these two modes is
(1) end-on more stable than side-on
(2) side-on more stable than end-on
(3) both are highly unstable (the relative stability depends on ligands)
(4) both are equally stable
(L = ligand)
83. The structure of hyponitrous acid molecule (H2N20 2 ) is
(1) linear (A-B-C-D type) (2) bent ( !\ type)
(3) square planar (0 type) (4) triangular (6 type)
84. We have two complexes [Mn(H20)613+ ion (d4 system) and [Re(H20)613+ ion (d4
system). Their CFSE and the pairing energy (per pair of electrons) are given below
[Mn(H20)613+ -IODq =250 kJ/mol; Pairing energy =300 kJ/mol
[Re(H20)613+ -IODq = 400 kJ/mol; Pairing energy = 180 kJ/mol
Predict from their data, the complexes are
(I) both high spin (2) Mn-high spin and Re-Iow spin
(3) both low spin (4) Mn-Iow spin. Re-high spin

85. [NiCI2 (PPh3b] is paramagnetic with ,"df =2•9 BM. All the four ligands are
monodentate. The geometry of the molecule is
(1) square planar
(3) square pyramidal
(2) octahedral
(4) tetrahedral
86. There is no d-d transition in !Mn{H20)6]2+ (ds system). This is high spin complex. The
absence of any transition in the visible region is due to breaking of
(I) Laporte rule
(2) parity selection rule (g -> 9 snd u -> u not allowed)
(3) spin selection rule (spin of the electron cannot be changed during transition)
(4) All the above three rules (I, 2 and 3)
87. According to the IUPAC system which is the correct formula for the complex
[diaquadibromodi (methy1amioe) cobalt(11I) nitrate?
(1) [Co(H20bBr2 (MeNH2 b]N03
(2) [CoBr2 (H20b (MeNH2 b]N03
(3) [Co(H20b (MeNH2 bBr2]N03
(4) [Co(MeNH2b (H,obBr2]N03
88. [Cr(H20).]3+ is violet whereas [Cr(NH3).]3+ is yellow. The wavelength absorbed by
[Cr(NH3).]3+ as compared to that by[Cr(H20).]+3 in their absorption spectra will be
(I) higher
(2) lower
(3) same
(4) These complexes will not show any absorption in the visible region
89. Although fluorine is better oxidizing agent than oxygen, but Mn207 exists and MnF7
does not. This is because of
(1) sterle crowding and difficult to fitting seven fluoride ions around Mn centel
(2) very high electron affinity of fluorine as compared to oxygen
(3) very low lattice energy of MnF 7 compared to oxygen compound
(4) very low bond energy of Mn-F bond compared to Mn-O bond
90. Covalent radius of gold (125 pm) is less than that of silver (1'33 pm). This is because of
(1) transition metal contraction
(2) lanthanide contraction
(3) lack of shielding of 4d orbitals compared to 5d orbitals
(4) relatively less effective shielding by 3p and 3s orbitals in silver as compared to that
by 4s,4p and 4d
91. Using VSEPR model, the sbaper of the following molecules
(373)
IF.2 (A), XeF. (B), 10; (C), BrF3 (D)
are
(1) (A) pentagon shape, (B) square planar, (C) trigonal pyramid, (D) T-shape
(2) (A) trigonal bipyramid, (B) tetrahedral, (C) planar, (D) planar
(3) (A) square pyramid, (B) tetrahedral, (e) trigonal pyramid, (D) planar
(4) (A) pentagonal pyramid, (B) tetrahedral, (C) trigonal pyramid, (D) planar

92. Arrange the hydrides of IS-group elements (NH3• PH3• AsH3• SbH3 < BiH3) in
increasing contribution of p-orbital of X in the X-H bond. Choose the correct
alternative from the following alternatives given below
(1) BiBi>Sb
(3) N 93. What are A, B and C in the following reactions?
(I) B2H6 +NH3 -> (A)
(II) B2H6 +H20 -> (B)
(III) B H _H~t .2 6 in the absence of air
Here A, B and C respectively are
(I) borazine. B20 3 and B,Hs
(3) BN. H3B03 only. B,Hs
(2) 2BH3 •NH3• H3B03 +H2• BlaHl,
(4) BN. H3B03 +H2• B,Hs
94. Which ones of the following contain (3c-2e) bonds?
(a) Mg ( CH3 b (b) BeC12• (e) BeH2• (d) Be (N03),
(1) (a). (b) and (e) (2) (a) and (e) (3) (a). (e) and (d) (4) (b) and (e)
95. Which one of the following orders of two properties of 14- and IS-group elements is not
correct?
(A) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF 3 (Lewis acidity)
(B) Pb I CH3), < Sn(CH3), < Ge(CH3), < SeICH3), (thermal stability) ,
The correct alternative from the following ones is
(I) (8) (2) (A)
(3) No one is wrong (4) Both are wrong
(273) 19 (P.T.O.)
llP/206/30
96. Which ones of the following compounds do not exist?
[AuXe.b [KrF2 I. [ArF2 HHe-FI
Choose the correct choice out of the following
(\) [AuXe.1 and [He-FI
(3) [Ar-F 21. and [He-F I
(2) [KrF21 and [ArF21
(4) [ArF2 ][He-FI. [AuXe.1
97. Alkalides and electrides are crystalline compounds of
(I) alkali metals in (+1) oxidation states and electrons respectively
(2) alkali metals in (-1) oxidation states and electron acting as anion
(3) methyl group and electron acting as anion respectively
(4) methyl group and a1kali metal group
98. Among the molecules, BiFa, Biel3 • BiBra and Bil3 • the one which is most coloured is
(1) BiF3 (2) BiBr3 (3) BiCl3 (4) Bil3
99. ICrOs13- ion is known. This ion probably is
(1) complex of peroxide ion with Cr 5+ ion
(2) polymeric complex with oxide ion acting as bridges
(3) complex of molecular oxygen and oxide ion (e.g. Cr 5+ (02),0.1 3-
(4) complex of molecular oxygen and peroxide ions
100. Iodine dissolves in oleum to give bright blue colour. The blue colour is due to the
fonnation of A, where A is
(1) 1- ion (2) I; ion (3) I; ion (4) I; ion
(273) 20
101. The order of increasing size of V, Nb, Ta, Db (at no. 106) is
(I) V (4) V llP/206/30
102. Given the following reaction conditions for the formations of the fluorides of Xe
Xe(g)+F2(g) ~~ A••• (Xe in excess)
one aun pressure
Xe(g)+F2(g)-. 600~ B•••(Xe:F2 =1:1•6)
S1X atmosphere
Xe(g)+F2(g) 300•C. C• .. (Xe :F2 =1:20)
60 atmosphere
A, B and C in these reactions respectively are
(I) XeF •• XeF2• XeF6
(3) XeF6• XeF •• XeF2
(2) XeF2• XeF •• XeF6
(4) XeF2• XeF6• XeF.
103. In the preparation OfP406. a mixture ofN2 and oxygen is used instead of pure oxygen.
The reason is
(.1) pure oxygen will form ozone in presence of P
(2) pure oxygen will forin P40 10 despite excess of P4' in pure oxygen
(3) pure oxygen will form [P(03)'] ozonide
(4) pure oxygen will not react with P. N2 acts as a catalyst
104. Arsenic, antimony and bismuth react with concentrated HNO 3' These give respectively
(3) As20 3• Sb20 3• Bi20 3
IDS. In borazine (B3N 3H6) molecule, the number of isomers which are possible of its
desubstituted borazine molecule of the formula IB3N3H4X2 ] without changing its ring
structure is
(1) one (2) two (3) four (4) six
106. Solution of alkali metals in liquid NH3 conducts electricity. It is due to formation of
(1) Na + +Na - ion in liquid ammonia
(2) Na• +e- (NH3 )x in liquid animonia
(3) Na-, (NH2 )- and NH~ ion in liquid NH3
(4) The solution conducts like a metallic conductor with solvated electrons carrying
the charge
107. A compound alloy of metals P and Q has a unit cell containing P atoms at the comers,
while atom Q are present at the face centers. The formula of the compound should be
(1) PQ (2) PQ2 (3) PQ3 (4) P3Q
108. A complex of a certain metal ion has a magnetic moment of 4'90 BM (4 unpaired
electrons) and another complex of the same metal ion in the same oxidation state is
diamagnetic. The complex is octahedral. The central metal could be one of the following
(Cr 3+. Mn2+. Fe 2+. Mn 3+. Fe 3+. Co2+)
Cr 3+ ion is [Ar 14d3 system. The metal ion is
(1) Mn2• (2) Fe 2• (3) Co2• (4) Fe 3 •
109. The enthalpy of hydration (AH) of Cr'• l(d4 system octahedral complex (Cr(H20)6)2. J
is -460 kcal/mol. In the absence of CFSE, this value of AH is (-435) kcal/mole. The
value of 10Dq (or Ao) is
(1) 14600 em-I (2) 21500 em-I (3) 9525 em-I (4) 25252 em-I
(1 kcal = 350 em-I)

110. Which of the d n ion will have the smallest CFSE if A (or lODq) is greater than pairing
enerrnr d 6 d 7 dB d 9 dIO? b1 • • , •
(2) d 7
, d 9 (3) d 10
111. During excessive physical- stress (like running). the body makes ~ which reacts with
water to form its• conjugate base and ~ ions. These, in tum,.lowers the pH in the
muscles which causes pain in the muscles. Here A and B respectively are
(I) citric acid and H30•
(3) enzyme and NH~
(2) lactic acid and H30+
(4) gluconic acid and NH4
112. Which ones of the following are closed packed structures?
(a) AABB AABB••• (b) ABAC ABAC••• (c) AB AB AB•••
Choose the correct choice out of the following
(d) ABC ABC ABC•••
(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, d (3) b, c, d (4) b, c
113. Out offollowing actinides (1) Np, (II) Pu, ~II) Es, (IV) Am one having +2 oxidation state
as the only relatively important state is
11) Np (2) Pu (3) Es (4) Am
114. Which is not an ambident nuc1eophile?
(2) SCW (3) NO. (4) DMSO
115. What is the increasing order of stability of following carbocations (give least stable
first)?
(I) Tropylium cation (II) CH2=CH-CH, (111) (C6Hsl.C• (IV) CHj
II) I1I< 1<11< IV (2) IV < 11<111<1 (3) I

116. The type of rearrangement
o OH 011
H I ----+ R-NH2
R-C-N-H
is
(11 Lossen (2) Be€kmann (3) Schmidt
117. What is the nucleopbilicity order for SN2 reaction?
(1) V>Il>IV>l>II1
(3) l>IV>V>ll>II1
(III) NO,
(2) lll>IV>V>ll>I
(4) ll>IV>V>II1 (4) CUrtius
(IV) CW
118. Select order of effectiveness of Lewis acid catalyst in Friedel-Crafts reaction
(1) AICl3 > FeCl3 >ZnCI2 >BF3
(3) AICl3 > ZnCl2 > BF 3 > FeCl3
(2) AICl3 > BF 3 > ZnCl2 > FeCl3
(4) AICl3 > FeCl3 > BF 3 > ZnCl2
119. One of the modern methods of studying free radical is
(1) IR spectra (2) CIDNP (3) UV spectra (4) microwave spectra
120. For a reaction between alkyl halide and OH- increase in solvent polarity generally
(1) decreases the rate of SNI reaction
(2) increases the rate of S N 1 reaction
(3) increases the rate of S N 2 reaction
(4) does not alter the rate of S N 1 and S N 2 reactions
121. Ethyl acetoacetate is prepared from ethyl acetate by
(1) Benzoin condensation
(3) Claisen condensation
(2) Aldol condensation
(4) Dieckmann condensation
122. Conversion of acetophenone to acetanilide is best accomplished by using
(I) Curtius (2) Hofmsnn (3) Lossen (4) Beckmsnn
123. The order of the ease of the following leaving groups would be
~) CH3COO(
I) IV>1I1>1>1I
(3) I> 111 > II> IV
(11) CH30- (111) CH3SO,
(2) I> 11 > 111 > IV
(4) I>II>IV>lII
124. In an S N 2 reaction there is
(1) complete racemisation
(2) mostly inversion and little racemisation
(3) partial racemisation
(4) a little inversion and mostly racemisation
125. The number of carbon atoms in piperine is
(I) 13 (2) IS (3) 17
(273) 25
(IV) CF3SO,
(4) 19

126. In Beckmann rearrangement, the migrating group
(1) is always syn to the hydroxyl group
(2) is always anti to the hydroxyl group
(3) is either anti or syn
(4) depends on the stereochemistry of the molecule
127. In Baeyer~ ViUiger oxidation. rate of reaction is accelerated by
(1) electron donating groups in the ketone
(2) electron withdrawing groups in the peradd
(3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(4) None of these
129. The increasing order of energy of various conformations of cyclohexane molecule is
(273)
(1) twist boat< boat < chair < half chair
(2) boat < twist boat < half chair < chair
(3) •chair< half chair < twist boat < boat
(4) chair< twist boat < boat < half chair

130. In cyclohexane molecule, when one chair conformation changes to other
(I) all hydrogens originally axial become equatorial
(2) potential energy of chair conformation increases
(3) angle strain reduces
14) None of the above
131. Which of the following is least stable?
132. Which of the following is not an alkaloid?
(I) Quinine (2) Reserpine (3) Camphor
133. Indigo dye is deep blue colored due to
(4) Piperine
(1) conjugation of double bond and non-planarity of molecule
(2) conjugation of double bond and planarity of molecule
(3) hydrogen bonding and planarity of molecule
(4) None of the above
134. A powerful anti•malarial agent obtained from cinchona bark is
(I) emetine (2) piperine (3) quinine (4) colchicine

135. A polynuclear compound having three benzene rings fused angularly is
(1) naphthalene (2) anthracene (3) phenanthrene (4) chrysene
136. IUPAC name of nicotine is
137.
138.
(273)
(1) N -methyl-(3' -pyridyl)-2-pyrrolidine
(3) N -methyl-(2' -pyrrolidyl)-3-pyridine
(2) 2'-(N-methylpyrrolidyl)-3-pyridine
(4) N -methyl-(S' -pyridyl)-2"pyrrolidine

139. In Chichibabin reaction, base used is
(I) KNH2 (2) NaNH2 (4) NH3
140. Sulphonation in indole takes place at
(I) position-2 (2) position-3 (3) both (4) None of these
141. Isoquinoline on oxidation with alkaline KMn04 gives
(II phthalic acid (2) benzoic acid
PI cinchomeric acid (4) both I and 3
142. a.-Terpeneiol gives p-Cymene on treatment With
(II HN03 (2) H 2S04 (3) HCI (4) CH3COOH
143. The sweetest sugar amongst the following is
III lactose (2) fructose (3) glucose (4) sucrose
144. The bond that determines the secondary structure of protein is
(1) coordinate bond
(3) hydrogen bond
(2) covaleot bond
(4) ionic bond
145. The main structural feature of protein is
(1) ester linkage (2) ether linkage
(3) peptide linkage (4) ionic linkage





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