GRE (Graduate Record Examination) Previous year question papers

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Educational Testing Services (ETS), United States of America, conducts the standardized examination GRE (Graduate Record Examination) for admission to to various streams such as Research Programs, Fellowship Programs and Graduate Studies.

Here I am sharing the previous year question papers of GRE --

The two corporate sectors that increased their support for the arts from 1988 to 1991 made a total contribution in 1991 of approximately how many million dollars?
(A) 112
(B) 125
(C) 200
(D) 250
(E) 315

How many of the six corporate sectors listed each contributed more than $60 million to the arts in both 1988 and 1991?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) three
(D) Four
(E) Five

Approximately how many million dollars more did the wholesale sector contribute to the arts in 1988 than in 1991?
(A) 10.4
(B) 12.6
(C) 14.0
(D) 16.5
(E) 19.2

1.A computer program can provide information in ways
that force students to --- learning instead of being
merely ---- of knowledge.
(A) shore up .. reservoirs
(B) accede to .. consumers
(C) participate in .. recipients
(D) compensate for.. custodians
(E) profit from .. beneficiaries
2. The form and physiology of leaves vary according to
the ---- in which they develop: for example, leaves
display a wide range of adaptations to different
degrees of light and moisture.
(A) relationship
(B) species
(C) sequence
(D) patterns
(E) environment
3. One theory about intelligence sees ---- as the
logical structure underlying thinking and insists that
since animals are mute, they must be ---- as well.
(A) behavior.. inactive
(B) instinct.. cooperative
(C) heredity.. thoughtful
(D) adaptation.. brutal
(E) language.. mindless
4. Though ---- in her personal life, Edna St. Vincent
Millay was nonetheless ---- about her work, usually
producing several pages of complicated rhyme in a
day.
(A) jaded.. feckless
(B) verbose.. ascetic
(C) vain.. humble
(D) impulsive.. disciplined
(E) self-assured.. sanguine
5. The children's ---- natures were in sharp contrast
to the even-tempered dispositions of their parents.
(A) mercurial
(B) blithe
(C) phlegmatic
(D) introverted
(E) artless
6. By ---- scientific rigor with a quantitative approach,
researchers in the social sciences may often have ---
their scope to those narrowly circumscribed topics that
are well suited to quantitative methods.
(A) undermining.. diminished
(B) equating.. enlarged
(C) vitiating.. expanded
(D) identifying.. limited
(E) imbuing.. broadened
7. As early as the seventeenth century, philosophers
called attention to the ---- character of the issue,
and their twentieth-century counterparts still approach
it with ----.
(A) absorbing.. indifference
(B) unusual.. composure
(C) complex.. antipathy
(D) auspicious.. caution
(E) problematic.. uneasiness
8. TRIPOD: CAMERA::
(A) scaffolding: ceiling
(B) prop: set
(C) easel: canvas
(D) projector: film
(E) frame: photograph
9. AQUATIC: WATER::
(A) cumulus: clouds
(B) inorganic: elements
(C) variegated: leaves
(D) rural: soil
(E) arboreal: trees
10. EMOLLIENT: SUPPLENESS::
(A) unguent: elasticity
(B) precipitant: absorption
(C) additive: fusion
(D) desiccant: dryness
(E) retardant: permeability
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11. DRAW: DOODLE::
(A) talk: whisper
(B) travel: ramble
(C) run: walk
(D) calculate: add
(E) eat: gobble
12. CONSPICUOUS: SEE:
(A) repulsive: forget
(B) prohibited: discount
(C) deceptive: delude
(D) impetuous: disregard
(E) transparent: understand
13. IMMATURE: DEVELOPED::
(A) accessible: exposed
(B) theoretical: conceived
(C) tangible: identified
(D) irregular: classified
(E) incipient: realized
14. PERSPICACITY: ACUTE::
(A) adaptability: prescient
(B) decorum: complacent
(C) caprice: whimsical
(D) discretion: literal
(E) ignorance: pedantic
15. PLAYFUL: BANTER::
(A) animated: originality
(B) exaggerated: hyperbole
(C) insidious: effrontery
(D) pompous: irrationality
(E) taciturn: solemnity
16. QUARANTINE: CONTAGION::
(A) blockage: obstacle
(B) strike: concession
(C) embargo: commerce
(D) vaccination: inoculation
(E) prison: reform
Influenced by the view of some twentieth-century
feminists that women's position within the family is
one of the central factors determining women's social
position, some historians have underestimated the signi-
(5) ficance of the woman suffrage movement. These histor- ians contend that nineteenth-century suffragism was less
radical and, hence, less important than, for example, the
moral reform movement or domestic feminism— two
nineteenth-century movements in which women strug-
(10)gled for more power and autonomy within the family.
True, by emphasizing these struggles, such historians
have broadened the conventional view of nineteenth- century feminism, but they do a historical disservice to
suffragism. Nineteenth-century feminists and anti-
(15)feminist alike perceived the suffragists' demand for
enfranchisement as the most radical element in women's
protest, in part because suffragists were demanding
power that was not based on the institution of the
family, women's traditional sphere. When evaluating
(20)nineteenth-century feminism as a social force, contem- porary historians should consider the perceptions of
actual participants in the historical events.
17.The author asserts that the historians discussed in
the passage have
(A) influenced feminist theorists who concentrate on
the family
(B) honored the perceptions of the women who
participated in the women suffrage movement
(C) treated feminism as a social force rather than as
an intellectual tradition
(D) paid little attention to feminist movements
(E) expanded the conventional view of nineteenth- century feminism
18.The author of the passage asserts that some
twentieth-century feminists have influenced some
historians view of the
(A) significance of the woman suffrage movement
(B) importance to society of the family as an
institution
(C) degree to which feminism changed nineteenth- century society
(D) philosophical traditions on which contemporary
feminism is based
(E) public response to domestic feminism in the
nineteenth century
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19.The author of the passage suggests that which of the
following was true of nineteenth-century feminists?
(A) Those who participated in the moral reform
movement were motivated primarily by a
desire to reconcile their private lives with their
public positions.
(B) Those who advocated domestic feminism,
although less visible than the suffragists, were
in some ways the more radical of the two
groups.
(C) Those who participated in the woman suffrage
movement sought social roles for women that
were not defined by women's familial roles.
(D) Those who advocated domestic feminism
regarded the gaining of more autonomy within
the family as a step toward more participation
in public life.
(E) Those who participated in the nineteenth- century moral reform movement stood midway
between the positions of domestic feminism
and suffragism.
20.The author implies that which of the following is
true of the historians discussed in the passage?
(A) They argue that nineteenth-century feminism
was not as significant a social force as
twentieth-century feminism has been.
(B) They rely too greatly on the perceptions of the
actual participants in the events they study.
(C)Their assessment of the relative success of
nineteenth-century domestic feminism does
not adequately take into account the effects of
antifeminist rhetoric.
(D)Their assessment of the significance of
nineteenth-century suffragism differs
considerably from that of nineteenth-century
feminists.
(E) They devote too much attention to nineteenth- century suffragism at the expense of more
radical movements that emerged shortly after
the turn of the century.
Many objects in daily use have clearly been influenced
by science, but their form and function, their dimensions
and appearance, were determined by technologists
artisans, designers, inventors, and engineers---using non-
(5) scientific modes of thought. Many features and qualities
of the objects that a technologist thinks about cannot be
reduced to unambiguous verbal descriptions; they are
dealt with in the mind by a visual, nonverbal process. In
the development of Western technology, it has been non-
(10)verbal thinking, by and large, that has fixed the outlines
and filled in the details of our material surroundings.
Pyramids, cathedrals, and rockets exist not because of
geometry or thermodynamics, but because they were first
a picture in the minds of those who built them.
(15) The creative shaping process of a technologist's mind
can be seen in nearly every artifact that exists. For exam- ple, in designing a diesel engine, a technologist might
impress individual ways of nonverbal thinking on the
machine by continually using an intuitive sense of right-
(20)ness and fitness. What would be the shape of the com- bustion chamber? Where should the valves be placed?
Should it have a long or short piston? Such questions
have a range of answers that are supplied by experience,
by physical requirements, by limitations of available
(25)space, and not least by a sense of form. Some decisions,
such as wall thickness and pin diameter, may depend on
scientific calculations, but the nonscientific component
of design remains primary.
Design courses, then, should be an essential element
(30)in engineering curricula. Nonverbal thinking, a central
mechanism in engineering design, involves perceptions,
the stock-in-trade of the artist, not the scientist. Because
perceptive processes are not assumed to entail "hard
thinking," nonverbal thought is sometimes seen as a prim-
(35)itive stage in the development of cognitive processes and
inferior to verbal or mathematical thought. But it is para- doxical that when the staff of the Historic American
Engineering Record wished to have drawings made of
machines and isometric views of industrial processes for
(40)its historical record of American engineering, the only
college students with the requisite abilities were not engi- neering students, but rather students attending architec- tural schools.
It courses in design, which in a strongly analytical
(45)engineering curriculum provide the background required
for practical problem- solving, are not provided, we can
expect to encounter silly but costly errors occurring in
advanced engineering systems. For example, early models
of high-speed railroad cars loaded with sophisticated
(50)controls were unable to operate in a snowstorm because
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a fan sucked snow into the electrical system. Absurd ran- dom failures that plague automatic control systems are
not merely trivial aberrations; they are a reflection of the
chaos that results when design is assumed to be primarily
a problem in mathematics.
21.In the passage, the author is primarily concerned
with
(A) identifying the kinds of thinking that are used
by technologists
(B) stressing the importance of nonverbal thinking
in engineering design
(C) proposing a new role for nonscientific thinking
in the development of technology
(D) contrasting the goals of engineers with those of
technologists
(E) criticizing engineering schools for emphasizing
science in engineering curricula
22.It can be inferred that the author thinks engineering
curricula are
(A) strengthened when they include courses in
design
(B) weakened by the substitution of physical
science courses for courses designed to
develop mathematical skills
(C) strong because nonverbal thinking is still
emphasized by most of the courses
(D) strong despite the errors that graduates of such
curricula have made in the development of
automatic control systems
(E) strong despite the absence of nonscientific
modes of thinking
23.Which of the following statements best illustrates
the main point of lines 1-28 of the passage?
(A) When a machine like a rotary engine mal- functions, it is the technologist who is best
equipped to repair it.
(B) Each component of an automobile— for
example, the engine or the fuel tank— has a
shape that has been scientifically determined
to be best suited to that component's function
(C) A telephone is a complex instrument designed
by technologists using only nonverbal thought
(D) The designer of a new refrigerator should
consider the designs of other refrigerators
before deciding on its final form.
(E) The distinctive features of a suspension bridge
reflect its designer's conceptualization as well
as the physical requirements of its site.
24.Which of the following statements would best serve
as an introduction to the passage?
(A) The assumption that the knowledge incorpor- ated in technological developments must be
derived from science ignores the many non- scientific decisions made by technologists.
(B) Analytical thought is no longer a vital com- ponent in the success of technological
development.
(C) As knowledge of technology has increased, the
tendency has been to lose sight of the impor- tant role played by scientific thought in
making decisions about form, arrangement,
and texture.
(D) A movement in engineering colleges toward
a technician's degree reflects a demand for
graduates who have the nonverbal reasoning
ability that was once common among engineers.
(E) A technologist thinking about a machine,
reasoning through the successive steps in a
dynamic process, can actually turn the
machine over mentally.
25.The author calls the predicament faced by the
Historic American Engineering Record "para- doxical" (lines 36-37) most probably because
(A) the publication needed drawings that its own
staff could not make
(B) architectural schools offered but did not require
engineering design courses for their students
(C) college students were qualified to make the
drawings while practicing engineers were not
(D) the drawings needed were so complicated that
even students in architectural schools had
difficulty making them.
(E) engineering students were not trained to make
the type of drawings needed to record the
development of their own discipline
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26.According to the passage, random failures in
automatic control systems are "not merely trivial
aberrations" (lines53) because
(A) automatic control systems are designed by
engineers who have little practical experience
in the field
(B) the failures are characteristic of systems
designed by engineers relying too heavily on
concepts in mathematics
(C) the failures occur too often to be taken lightly
(D) designers of automatic control systems have too
little training in the analysis of mechanical
difficulties
(E) designers of automatic control systems need
more help from scientists who have a better
understanding of the analytical problems to be
solved before such systems can work efficiently
27.The author uses the example of the early models of
high-speed railroad cars primarily to
(A) weaken the argument that modern engineering
systems have major defects because of an
absence of design courses in engineering
curricula
(B) support the thesis that the number of errors in
modern engineering systems is likely to
increase
(C) illustrate the idea that courses in design are the
most effective means for reducing the cost of
designing engineering systems
(D) support the contention that a lack of attention to
the nonscientific aspects of design results in
poor conceptualization by engineers
(E) weaken the proposition that mathematics is a
necessary part of the study of design
28.IGNITE:
(A) amplify
(B) douse
(C) obscure
(D) blemish
(E) replicate
29.MUTATE:
(A) recede
(B) grow larger
(C) link together
(D) remain the same
(E) decrease in speed
30.FRAGMENT:
(A) ensue
(B) revive
(C) coalesce
(D) balance
(E) accommodate
31.OSTENSIBLE:
(A) gargantuan
(B) inauspicious
(C) intermittent
(D) perpetual
(E) inapparent
32.PROLIXITY:
(A) ceremoniousness
(B) flamboyance
(C) succinctness
(D) inventiveness
(E) lamentation
33.CONCERTED:
(A) meant to obstruct
(B) not intended to last
(C) enthusiastically supported
(D) run by volunteers
(E) individually devised
34.FORBEARANCE:
(A) fragility
(B) impatience
(C) freedom
(D) nervousness
(E) tactlessness
35.COSSETED:
(A) unspoiled
(B) irrepressible
(C) serviceable
(D) prone to change
(E) free from prejudice
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36.PROBITY:
(A) timidity
(B) sagacity
(C) impertinence
(D) uncertainty
(E) unscrupulousness
37.ESCHEW:
(A) habitually indulge in
(B) take without authorization
(C) leave unsaid
(D) boast about
(E) handle carefully
38.REDOUBTABLE:
(A) trustworthy
(B) unschooled
(C) credulous
(D) not formidable
(E) not certain
SECTION 2
Time –30 minutes
25 Questions
Questions 1-6
A newsstand will display exactly one copy each of six
different magazines— M, O, P, S, T, and V— in a single
row on a rack. Each magazine will occupy exactly one of
the six positions, numbered consecutively 1 through 6.
The magazines must be displayed in accordance with the
following rules:
Either P or else T occupies position 1.
Either S or else T occupies position 6.
M and O, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecu- tively numbered positions.
V and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecu- tively numbered positions.
1.Which of the following is an order in which the six
magazines can be arranged, from position 1 through
position 6?
(A) M, O, P, S, V, T
(B) P, O, S, M, V, T
(C) P, V, T, O, M, S
(D) P, V, T, S, O, M
(E) T, P, V, M, O, S
2.If P occupies position 3, which of the following must
be true?
(A) M occupies position 4.
(B) O occupies position 2.
(C) S occupies position 5.
(D) T occupies position 6.
(E) V occupies position 2.
3.If O and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy
consecutively numbered positions, then T can be in
position
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
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4.Which of the following can be true?
(A) M occupies position 4 and P occupies position 5.
(B) P occupies position 4 and V occupies position 5.
(C) S occupies position 2 and P occupies position 3.
(D) P occupies position 2.
(E) S occupies position 5.
5. If V occupies position 4, then T must occupy the
position that is numbered exactly one lower than the
position occupied by
(A) M (B) O (C) P
(D) S (E) V
6.If S and V, not necessarily in that order, occupy
consecutively numbered positions, which of the
following must be true?
(A) M occupies position 4.
(B) O occupies position 2.
(C) P occupies position 1.
(D) S occupies position 6.
(E) T occupies position 6.
7. Patel: Although enrollment in the region's high
school has been decreasing for several
years, enrollment at the elementary school
has grown considerably. Therefore, the
regional school board proposes building a
new elementary school.
Quintero: Another solution would be to convert some
high school classrooms temporarily into
classrooms for elementary school students.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to support
Quintero's alternative proposal?
(A) Some rooms at the high school cannot be con- verted into rooms suitable for the use of ele- mentary school students.
(B) The cost of building a high school is higher than
the cost of building an elementary school.
(C) Although the birth rate has not increased, the
number of families sending their children to
the region's high school has increased markedly.
(D) A high school atmosphere could jeopardize the
safety and self-confidence of elementary school
students.
(E) Even before the region's high school population
began to decrease, several high school class- rooms rarely needed to be used.
Question 8 is based on the following graph
8.Which of the following, if true, most helps explain
the difference in the rates of decline between 1980
and 1990 in population of puffins and arctic terns,
two kinds of seabirds for which sand eels serve as a
primary source of food?
(A) Puffins switched in part from their preferred food
of sand eels to rockfish and other fish, but arctic
terns did not.
(B) The marked decline in the populations of puffins
and arctic terns that occurred on Alair Island
did not occur on other similar islands nearby,
where there are substantial populations of both
species.
(C) The decline in sand eels was due to changes in
environmental conditions that affected the
reproduction of eels rather than to overfishing
by people.
(D)The main diet of puffin and arctic tern chicks on
Alair Island in 1980 consisted of young sand
eels.
(E) Unusual severe weather that disrupted the breed- ing cycle of the sand eels of Alair Island in
1989 also damaged the nests of puffins but not
those of arctic terns.
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9. Peter: More than ever before in Risland, college graduates with
science degrees are accepting permanent jobs in other
fields. That just goes to show that scientists in Risland are
not being paid enough.
Lila: No, it does not. These graduates are not working in science
for the simple reason that there are not enough jobs in science in
Risland to employ all of these graduates.
Which of the following, if true in Risland, would most undermine
the reasoning in Peter's argument?
(A) The college graduates with science degrees who are not work- ing in science are currently earning lower salaries than they
would earn as scientists.
(B) Fewer college students than ever before are receiving degrees
in science.
(C) The number of jobs in science has steadily risen in the last
decade.
(D) A significant number of college graduates with science degrees
worked at low-paying jobs while they were in college.
(E) Every year some recent college graduates with science degrees
accept permanent jobs in nonscientific fields.
Questions 10-15
Exactly six lec tures will be given one at a time at a one- day conference. Two of the lectures— S and T— will be
given by resident speakers, the other four— W, X, Y, and
Z— will be given by visiting speakers. At least two but
no more than four of the lectures will be given before
lunch; the remaining lectures will be given after lunch.
The following conditions must be observed:
S will be the fourth lecture.
Exactly one of the lectures by a resident will be given
before lunch.
Y will be given at some time before T is given.
If W is given before lunch, Y will be given after lunch.
10.Which of the following can be the order of lectures
and lunch at the conference?
(A) W, X, Lunch, Y, S, T, Z
(B) X, Y, T, Lunch, S, Z, W
(C) Y, T, Lunch, S, W, X, Z
(D) Z, T, W, S, Lunch, Y, X
(E) Z, W, Y, S, Lunch, X, T
11.If exactly two lectures are given before lunch, they
must be
(A) X and T
(B) Y and T
(C) Z and T
(D) Z and W
(E) Z and Y
12.If exactly three lectures, including Y and Z, are given
before lunch, which of the following can be true?
(A) T is the second lecture.
(B) T is the fifth lecture.
(C) W is the third lecture.
(D) X is the first lecture.
(E) X is the third lecture.
13.If T is the sixth lecture, which of the following must
be true?
(A) X is the first lecture.
(B) X is the second lecture.
(C) Exactly two lectures are given before lunch.
(D) Exactly three lectures are given before lunch.
(E) Exactly four lectures are given before lunch.
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14.If S and Z are both given after lunch, which of the
following must be true?
(A) X is given before lunch.
(B) X is given after lunch.
(C) Y is given before lunch.
(D) T is the third lecture.
(E) Z is the fifth lecture.
15.Which of the following lectures CANNOT be given
immediately before lunch?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) X
(D) Y
(E) Z
Questions 16-22
A circus has seven fenced enclosures, numbered 1 through
7, for two animals: a lion and a tiger. Each enclosure is
connected to adjacent enclosures by interior gates. There
are exactly eight such gates, each connecting one
enclosure to exactly one other enclosure: enclosure 1 is
connected to enclosures 2, 3 and 4; enclosure 3 to
enclosures 1, 2, 4, and 5; and enclosure 5 to enclosures 3,
6, and 7. These gates provide the only connections
between enclosures. Occasionally a trainer moves the
animals. Taking either animals from one enclosure to an
adjacent enclosure through a gate is called a "transfer."
The following conditions are strictly observed:
The two animals cannot be together in any enclosure or
gate.
Transfers cannot occur simultaneously
In moving either one animal or both to a specified
enclosure or enclosures, the minimum number of trans- fers needed to achieve the specified result are used.
16.If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclo- sure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7, the
tiger could be in which of the following enclosures
when all of the transfers have been completed?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
17.If the tiger is in enclosure 5 and the lion is in enclo- sure 3, moving the tiger to which of the following
enclosures requires exactly two transfers?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 7
18.If the lion is in enclosure 6 and the tiger is in enclo- sure 7, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7 and
the tiger to enclosure 6, then which of the following
must be true?
(A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 at some
time during the move.
(B) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 twice.
(C) One of the two animals is transferred to
enclosure 3 twice.
(D) Three transfers to enclosure 5 are made.
(E) At least one transfer is made to either enclosure
2 or enclosure 4.
19.If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclo- sure 4, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 5 and
the tiger to enclosure 7, then exactly how many trans- fers must be made?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
(E) Eight
20.If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclo- sure 7, and the lion is to be transferred to enclosure 3
and the tiger to enclosure 1, then which of the fol- lowing CANNOT be true?
(A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 2 in the first
transfer.
(B) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 in the
second transfer.
(C) The lion is transferred to enclosure 4 in the
second transfer.
(D) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 in the first
transfer.
(E) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 3 in the
second transfer.
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21. If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclo- sure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and
the tiger to enclosure 5, then the second transfer could
be a transfer of the
(A) lion to enclosure 2
(B) lion to enclosure 5
(C) tiger to enclosure 4
(D) tiger to enclosure 5
(E) tiger to enclosure 7
22.If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclo- sure 6, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and
the tiger to enclosure 3, then which of the following
must be true?
(A) Exactly five enclosures are used in the move
(B) One animal is transferred exactly twice as many
times as the other animal.
(C) All of the transfers of the lion are completed
before any transfer of the tiger occurs.
(D) At one point one of the animals is transferred to
either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.
(E) At one point neither the lion nor the tiger is in
enclosure 3, enclosure 5, or enclosure 6.
23.Counselor: Every year a popular newsmagazine pub- lishes a list of United States colleges, ranking
them according to an overall numerical score
that is a composite of ratings according to sev- eral criteria. However, the overall scores gen- erally should not be used by students as the
basis for deciding to which colleges to apply.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to justify
the counselor's recommendation?
(A) The vast majority of people who purchase the
magazine in which the list appears are not
college-bound students.
(B) Colleges that are ranked highest in the magazine's
list use this fact in advertisements aimed at
attracting students.
(C) The rankings seldom change from one year to
the next.
(D) The significance that particular criteria have for
any two students is likely to differ according to
the students' differing needs.
(E) Some college students who are pleased with their
schools considered the magazine's rankings
before deciding which college to attend.
24. A thorough search of Edgar Allan Poe's correspon- dence has turned up not a single letter in which he
mentions his reputed morphine addiction. On the basis
of this evidence it is safe to say that Poe's reputation
for having been a morphine addict is undeserved and
that reports of his supposed addiction are untrue.
Which of the following is assumed by the argument
above?
(A) Reports claiming that Poe was addicted to mor- phine did not begin to circulate until after his
death.
(B) None of the reports of Poe's supposed morphine
addiction can be traced to individuals who actu- ally knew Poe.
(C) Poe's income from writing would not have been
sufficient to support a morphine addiction.
(D) Poe would have been unable to carry on an
extensive correspondence while under the
influence of morphine.
(E) Fear of the consequences would not have pre- vented Poe from indicating in his correspon- dence that he was addicted to morphine.
25. Adelle: The government's program to reduce the unemployment
rate in the province of Carthena by encouraging job
creation has failed, since the rate there has not changed
appreciably since the program began a year ago.
Fran: But the unemployment rate in Carthena had been rising
for three years before the program began, so the program
is helping.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly counters Fran's
GRE10-1
11
objection to Adelle's argument?
(A) The government is advised by expert economists, some of
whom specialize in employment issues.
(B) The unemployment rate in the province of Carthena has
historically been higher than that of the country as a whole.
(C) The current government was elected by a wide margin, because
of its promises to reduce the unemployment rate in Carthena.
(D) Around the time the government program began, large
numbers of unemployed Carthena residents began leaving
the province to look for work elsewhere.
(E) The unemployment rate in Carthena had been relatively
stable until shortly before the current government took
office.
SECTION 3
Time –30 minutes
30 Questions
x 2 -1 = y
x = 3
1. y 2 80
The gross receipts from the sale of t tickets, at
$17 per ticket, total $16,660.
2. t 1,000
Points T and U are on a circle with center O
3. OT TU
A box contains 20 marbles all of which are solid
colored; 5 of the marbles are green and 10 of the
marbles are fed.
4. The probability that The probability that a
a marble selected at marble selected at ran- random form the box dom from the box will
will be green be neither red now green
5. Eleven thousand plus 11,111
eleven hundred plus
eleven
6. x 15
The cost c of an order of n special envelopes
is given by c= ($0.50)n + $ 15.00.
7. The cost of an order of $260
500 special envelopes
The average (arithmetic mean) of 7, 9, and x is
greater than 9.
8. x 11
a>0
9. a 5 4 2 40a
10.
53 . 0
27 . 0
053 . 0
027 . 0






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I have decided to give the GRE (Graduate Record Examination) and looking for the Previous Year Question Papers for preparation. Will you please provide me papers so that I can prepare well also provide me complete syllabus of this GRE examination?

The Graduate Record Examination (GRE) is a standardized test that is an admissions requirement for most graduate schools.

There are 3 sections of the GRE:
Verbal reasoning,
Quantitative reasoning and
Aalytical writing.

As per your request here I am providing you the GRE (Graduate Record Examination) Previous Year Question Papers. Please find the below attachment to download the GRE papers of last year:

GRE paper

1. Because the monkeys under study are ---- the
presence of human beings, they typically ----
human observers and go about their business
(A) ambivalent about .. welcome
(B) habituated to .. disregard
(C) pleased with .. snub
(D) inhibited by .. seek
(E) unaware of .. avoid
2. Give he previously expressed interest and the
ambitious tone of her recent speeches, the senator's
attempt to convince the public that she is not inter- ested in running for a second term is ----.
(A) laudable
(B) likely
(C) authentic
(D) futile
(E) sincere
3. Many of her followers remain ---- to her, and
even those who have rejected her leadership are
unconvinced of the ---- of replacing her during
the current turmoil.
(A) opposed.. urgency
(B) friendly.. harm
(C) loyal.. wisdom
(D) cool.. usefulness
(E) sympathetic.. disadvantage
4. Unlike many recent interpretations of Beethoven's
piano sonatas, the recitalist's performance was a
delightfully free and introspective one; nevertheless,
it was also, seemingly paradoxically, quite ----.
(A) appealing
(B) exuberant
(C) idiosyncratic
(D) unskilled
(E) controlled
5. Species with relatively ---- metabolic rates, including
hibernators, generally live longer than those whose
metabolic rates are more rapid.
(A) prolific
(B) sedentary
(C) sluggish
(D) measured
(E) restive
6. Belying his earlier reputation for ---- as a negotiator,
Morgan had recently assumed a more ---- stance
for which many of his erstwhile critics praised him.
(A) intransigence.. conciliatory
(B) impropriety.. intolerant
(C) inflexibility.. unreasonable
(D) success.. authoritative
(E) incompetence.. combative
7. Although Irish literature continued to flourish after
the sixteenth century, a ---- tradition is ----
in the visual arts: we think about Irish culture in terms of
the word, not in terms of pictorial images.
(A) rich.. superfluous
(B) lively.. found
(C) comparable.. absent
(D) forgotten.. apparent
(E) lost.. extant
8. SILVER: TARNISH::
(A) gold: burnish
(B) steel: forge
(C) iron: rust
(D) lead: cast
(E) tin: shear
9. DISLIKE: LOATHING::
(A) appreciation: gratification
(B) hunger: appetite
(C) void: dearth
(D) pleasure: bliss
(E) pain: ache
10. CRAVEN: HEROIC::
(A) unruly: energetic
(B) listless: attractive
(C) volatile: constant
(D) deft: trifling
(E) awkward: amusing
11. FILLY: HORSE::
(A) antennae: butterfly
(B) pullet: chicken
(C) gaggle: goose
(D) duck: drake
(E) wasp: bee
12. PITHINESS: APHORISM::
(A) craft: art
(B) detail: sketch
(C) illusion: story
(D) exaggeration: caricature
(E) sophistication: farce
13. EPHEMERAL: ENDURING::
(A) infirm: healing
(B) insensitive: cooperating
(C) inanimate: living
(D) interminable: continuing
(E) ineffectual: proceeding
14. POSTURER: UNAFFECTED::
(A) brat: insolent
(B) hypocrite: perceptive
(C) grouch: respected
(D) bigot: tolerant
(E) rogue: empathetic
15. FACETIOUS: SPEECH::
(A) precocious: learning
(B) unbecoming: color
(C) exemplary: conduct
(D) craven: timidity
(E) antic: behavior
16. VAGARY: PREDICT::
(A) quotation: misdirect
(B) investigation: confirm
(C) stamina: deplete
(D) turbulence: upset
(E) impossibility: execute
This is not to deny that the Black gospel music of the
early twentieth century differed in important ways from the
slave spirituals. Whereas spirituals were created and dis- seminated in folk fashion, gospel music was composed,
(5) published, copyrighted, and sold by professionals. Never- theless, improvisation remained central to gospel music.
One has only to listen to the recorded repertoire of gospel
songs to realize that Black gospel singers rarely sang a
song precisely the same way twice and never according to
(10)its exact musical notation. They performed what jazz musi- cians call "head arrangements" proceeding from their own
feelings and from the way "the spirit" moved them at the
time. This improvisatory element was reflected in the man- ner in which gospel music was published. Black gospel
(15)composers scored the music intended for White singing
groups fully, indicating the various vocal parts and the
accompaniment, but the music produced for Black singers
included only a vocal line and piano accompaniment.
17.Which of the following best describes "head arrange- ment" as the term is used in line 11?
(A) A published version of a gospel song produced for
use by Black singers
(B) A gospel song based on a slave spiritual
(C) A musical score shared by a gospel singer and a
jazz musician
(D) An informally written composition intended for
use by a gospel singer
(E) An improvised performance inspired by the
singer's emotions
18.The author mentions "folk fashion" (line 4) most likely
in order to
(A) counter an assertion about the role of improvi- sation in music created by Black people
(B) compare early gospel music with gospel music
written later in the twentieth century
(C) make a distinction between gospel music and
slave spirituals
(D) introduce a discussion about the dissemination of
slave spirituals
(E) describe a similarity between gospel music and
slave spirituals
19.The passage suggests which of the following about
Black gospel music and slave spirituals?
(A) Both became widely known in the early twentieth
century.
(B) Both had an important improvisatory element.
(C) Both were frequently performed by jazz
musicians.
(D) Both were published with only a vocal line and
piano accompaniment.
(E) Both were disseminated chiefly by Black singing
groups.
20.Of the following sentences, which is most likely to
have immediately preceded the passage?
(A) Few composers of gospel music drew on traditions
such as the spiritual in creating their songs.
(B) Spirituals and Black gospel music were derived
from the same musical tradition.
(C) The creation and singing of spirituals, practiced by
Black Americans before the Civil War, continued
after the war.
(D) Spirituals and gospel music can be clearly
distinguished from one another.
(E) Improvisation was one of the primary charac -
teristics of the gospel music created by Black
musicians.
About a century ago, the Swedish physical scientist
Arrhenius proposed a law of classical chemistry that relates
chemical reaction rate to temperature. According to the
Arrhenius equation, chemical reaction are increasingly
(5) unlikely to occur as temperatures approach absolute zero,
and at absolute zero (zero degrees Kelvin, or minus 273
degrees Celsius) reactions stop. However, recent experi- mental evidence reveals that although the Arrhenius equa- tion is generally accurate in describing the kind of chemical
(10)reaction that occurs at relatively high temperatures, at tem- peratures closer to zero a quantum- mechanical effect known
as tunneling comes into play; this effect accounts for chem- ical reactions that are forbidden by the principles of classi- cal chemistry. Specifically, entire molecules can "tunnel"
(15)through the barriers of repulsive forces from other mole- cules and chemically react even though these molecules do
not have sufficient energy, according to classical chemistry,
to overcome the repulsive barrier.
The rate of any chemical reaction, regardless of the tem-
(20)perature at which it takes place, usually depends on a very
important characteristic known as its activation energy. Any
molecule can be imagined to reside at the bottom of a so- called potential well of energy. A chemical reaction corre- sponds to the transition of a molecule from the bottom of
(25)one potential well to the bottom of another. In classical
chemistry, such a transition can be accomplished only by
going over the potential barrier between the wells, the
height of which remains constant and is called the activa- tion energy of the reaction. In tunneling, the reacting mole-
(30)cules tunnel from the bottom of one to the bottom of another
well without having to rise over the barrier between the
two wells. Recently researchers have developed the concept
of tunneling temperature: the temperature below which
tunneling transitions greatly outnumber Arrhenius transi-
(35)tions, and classical mechanics gives way to its quantum
counterpart.
This tunneling phenomenon at very low temperatures
suggested my hypothesis about a cold prehistory of life:
the formation of rather complex organic molecules in the
(40)deep cold of outer space, where temperatures usually reach
only a few degrees Kelvin. Cosmic rays (high-energy pro- tons and other particles) might trigger the synthesis of
simple molecules, such as interstellar formaldehyde, in
dark clouds of interstellar dust. Afterward complex organic
(45)molecules would be formed, slowly but surely, by means
of tunneling. After I offered my hypothesis, Hoyle and
Wickramasinghe argued that molecules of interstellar form- aldehyde have indeed evolved into stable polysaccharides
such as cellulose and starch. Their conclusions, although
(50)strongly disputed, have generated excitement among inves- tigators such as myself who are proposing that the galactic
clouds are the places where the prebiological evolution of
compounds necessary to life occurred.
21.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) describing how the principles of classical chem- istry were developed
(B) initiating a debate about the kinds of chemical
reactions required for the development of life
(C) explaining how current research in chemistry may be
related to broader biological concerns
(D) reconciling opposing theories about chemical reac- tions
(E) clarifying inherent ambiguities in the laws of clas- sical chemistry
22.According to the passage, classical chemical reactions
and tunneling reactions are alike in which of the fol- lowing ways?
(A) In both types of reactions, reacting molecules have
to rise over the barrier between the two wells.
(B) In both types of reactions, a transition is made
from the bottom of one potential well to the
bottom of another.
(C) In neither type of reaction does the height of the
barrier between the wells remain constant.
(D) In neither type of reaction does the rate of a
chemical reaction depend on its activation
energy.
(E) In both types of reactions, reacting molecules are
able to go through the barrier between the two wells.
23. According to the Arrhenius equation as discussed in
the passage, which of the following statements about
chemical reactions is true?
(A) Chemical reactions are less likely to occur at tem- peratures close to absolute zero.
(B) In some cases the rate of a chemical reaction is
related to temperature and in other cases it is
not.
(C) Chemical reactions frequently occur at a few
degrees above absolute zero, but they are very
unpredictable.
(D) The rate of a chemical reaction depends on many
other factors besides temperature.
(E) Chemical reaction rate and temperature are not
related.
24.The author's attitude toward the theory of a cold pre- history of life can best be described as
(A) neutral
(B) skeptical
(C) mildly positive
(D) very supportive
(E) pointedly critical
25.The author's hypothesis concerning be cold prehistory
of life would be most weakened if which of the follow- ing were true?
(A)Cosmic rays are unlikely to trigger the formation of
simple molecules.
(B)Tunneling occurs only in a narrow band of tem- peratures around zero degrees Kelvin.
(C)The synthesis of inter stellar formaldehyde can be
activated by means other than cosmic rays.
(D)Simple molecules can be synthesized by means of
tunneling.
(E)Classical chemical reactions do not occur at tem- peratures close to absolute zero.
26.Which of the following best describes the hypothesis
of Hoyle and Wickramasinghe as it is presented in the
passage?
(A) Cosmic rays can directly synthesize complex
organic molecules.
(B) The galactic clouds are the places where prebio- logical evolution of compounds necessary to life
occurred.
(C) Interstellar formaldehyde can be synthesized by
tunneling.
(D) Molecules of interstellar formaldehyde can evolve
into complex organic molecules.
(E) Complex organic molecules can be synthesized
from stable polysaccharides such as cellulose and
starch.
27.Which of the following best describes the organization
of the first two paragraphs of the passage?
(A) The author cites a basic principle of classical
chemistry and then describes the research from
which that principle was developed.
(B) The author cites an apparent contradiction to
the principles of classical chemistry and then
explains the process of a chemical reaction to
show there is in fact no contradiction.
(C) the author describes the role of heat in chemical
reactions and then offers a detailed explanation
of its function.
(D) The author presents a law of classical chemistry in
order to introduce a kind of chemical reaction
that differs from it and then explains the essen- tial difference between the two.
(E) The author presents the fundamental rules of clas- sical chemistry in order to introduce an explana- tion of a specific chemical reaction.
28. PREFACE:
(A) improvisation
(B) burlesque
(C) epilogue
(D) tangent
(E) backdrop
29. DEBILITATE:
(A) implicate
(B) invigorate
(C) obfuscate
(D) realign
(E) encumber
30. TASTY:
(A) uninteresting
(B) unfamiliar
(C) unexpected
(D) understated
(E) undervalued
31. ABNEGATE:
(A) refresh
(B) reaffirm
(C) relieve
(D) react
(E) reform
32. SERRIED:
(A) partially formed
(B) widely separated
(C) narrowly missed
(D) extremely grateful
(E) reasonably clean
33. BOMBASTIC:
(A) unflappable
(B) uninspired
(C) unpretentious
(D) inscrutable
(E) incisive
34. BANAL:
(A) comfortable
(B) novel
(C) equal
(D) fatal
(E) competent
35. LANGUISH:
(A) agitate
(B) wander
(C) relieve
(D) discomfit
(E) thrive
36. ENNUI:
(A) intimidation
(B) sleaze
(C) faint recollection
(D) keen interest
(E) deep reservation
37.DAUNTLESS:
(A) sophomoric
(B) trifling
(C) pusillanimous
(D) specious
(E) parsimonious
38.TEMERITY:
(A) credibility
(B) authority
(C) celebrity
(D) acrimony
(E) circumspection


Syllabus:

Verbal Reasoning:

a. Analyse and draw conclusions,understand and add value to incomplete data; identify the persception of the author;
b. Indentify vital points and differentiate between relevant and irrelevant points;
c. Understand and summarise the structure of a text;
d. Understand the meanings of words, sentences and entire texts;
e. Understand relationships among words and among concepts.

Quantitative Reasoning

The Quantitative Reasoning section measures a candidate's ability to:
a. Understand and analyse quantitative information
b. Interpret quantitative information correctly
c. Solve problems using mathematical models
d. Apply basic mathematical skills and concepts of arithmetic, algebra, geometry and data interpretation.

Analytical Writing

The Analytical Writing section measures a candidate's ability to:
a. Articulate complex ideas effectively and with clarity
b. Support ideas with relevant reasons and examples
c. Examine claims and accompanying evidence
d. Sustain a well-focused, coherent discussion

Attached Files Available for Download

	GRE paper1.pdf (116.4 KB, 21 views)
	GRE paper2.pdf (124.5 KB, 25 views)
	GRE paper3.pdf (124.1 KB, 25 views)

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