CET Sample Papers With Answers

Please give me CET exam sample paper.

MH CET is the Entrance Exam for admission in Engineering Colleges of Maharashtra for the Academic Year of 2013 had conducted on 16th of May, 2013.

Here I am attaching file for sample paper.

1.Which of the following is not an electro magnetic wave
a) x-rays b) alpha-rays c) gamma-rays d)
light rays
2.Electro magnetic waves of wave length ranging from 100Åto 4000Å come under
a) x-rays b) UV region c) visible region d)
infra-red region
3.Electro magnetic theory suggests that the light consists of
a) magnetic vector alone b) electric vector alone c) electric
and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other. d) parallel electric and magnetic
vector
4.The frequency of radio waves corresponding to a wave length of 10 m is
a) 3×107Hz b) 3.3×108Hz c) 3×109Hz d)
3×10−7Hz
5.The electromagnetic waves travel with velocity of
a) sound b) light c) greater than that of light d)
greater than that of sound
6.The existence of EM waves were experimentally confirmed by
a) Maxwell b) Faraday c) Hertz d)
Tesla
7.The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when
a) the motor has picked up maximum speed b) the motor has just
started moving c) the speed of motor is still on increase d) the motor has
just been switched off
8.AC measuring instrument measures
a) peak value b) rms value c) any value d)
average value
9.The Q-factor of a resonant circuit is equal to
a) 1CWR b) 1WL c) CWR d) fCW
10.In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in
a) Primary are less b) Primary are more c) Primary

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Here I am giving you Sample Papers of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics with Answers of CET (Common Entrance Test).

CET (Common Entrance Test) Chemistry Question Paper:

1. In an exothermic reaction, heat is
1) evolved
2) absorbed
3) either evolved or absorbed
4) neither evolved nor absorbed

2. Heat of transition is heat evolved or absorbed when a substance is converted from
1) solid liquid
2) solid to vapour
3) liquid to vapour
4) one allotropic form to another allotropic form

3. ‘ Heat of neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base is a constant ‘ because
1) Salt formed does not hydrolyse
2) Only H+ and OH- ions react in every case
3) The strong base and strong acid react completely
4) The strong base and strong acid react in acqueous solution

4. Heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume is
1) Greater in the first case
2) Greater in the second case
3) Same in the both case
4) Depending on the temperature

5. The heat of formation of carbon dioxide is -393.5 KJ. The heat of decomposition of carbon dioxide into the elements is
1) 393.5 KJ 2) 161.7 KJ 3) 196.7 KJ 4) 203 KJ

6. Which of these does not influence the rate of reaction?
1) Nature of the reactants
2) Concentration of the reactants
3) Temperature of the reaction
4) Molecularity of the reaction

7. The rate constants of forward and backward reactions are 8.5 10-5 and 2.38 10-4.
The equilibrium constant is
1) 0.34 2) 0.42 3) 2.92 4) 0.292

8. 2HI H2 + I2 . If an inert gas is added to the system at equilibrium the concentration of the products
1) Decrease 2) increase 3) cannot be said precisely 4) is unaltered

9. 2 HI H2 + I2 . Here the relation between KP and kc is
1) KP > kc 2) KP < kc 3) KP = kc 4) KP kc

10. Chemical equilibrium is achieved when
1) Mass of the reactants is equal to the mass of the products
2) Moles of the reactants is equal to the moles of the products
3) The ratio of rate of forward reaction to the rate of backward reaction is one
4) The quantity of the substance consumed is equal to the quantity of the products formed.

11. The rate of chemical reaction at constant temperature is proportional to
1) The amount of products formed
2) The product of the masses of the reactants
3) The product of the molar concentrations of the reactants
4) The mean free path of the reaction

12. PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 - Heat. The forward reaction is favoured by
1) The removal of chlorine
2) Low temperature
3) Removal of PCl5
4) high pressure

13. 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3. The forward reaction is favoured by
1) High temperature
2) Low pressure
3) Removal of sulphur dioxide
4) High pressure

14. N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3 + Heat. What is the effect of increase of temperature on the equilibrium of the reaction?
1) Equilibrium is shifted to the left
2) Equilibrium is shifted to the right
3) Equilibrium is unaltered
4) Reaction rate does not change

15. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to
1) The increase in the number of collisions
2) The increase in the number of activated molecules
3) The shortening of the mean free path
4) The lowering of the activation energy

16. Catalytic decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is a …….. order reaction.
1) Zero 2) first 3) second 4) third

17. The reaction 2 N2O5 4 NO2 + O2 follows I order kinetics. Hence the molecularity of the reaction is
1) Unimolecular
2) Pseudo unimolecular
3) Biomolecular
4) None of these

18. Radioactivity decay follows
1) Zero order
2) I order
3) II order
4) III order

19. The hydrolysis of methyl acetate catalysed by acid is an example for
1) First order reaction
2) Second order reaction
3) Bimolecular reaction
4) None of these

20. The decay constant of a reaction is 1.1 10-9 /sec. Then the half life of the reaction is
1) 1.2 108 2) 6.3 108 3) 3.3 108 4) 2.1 108

21. The catalyst remains unchanged at the end of the reaction regards
1) Quality
2) Chemical composition
3) Quality and chemical composition
4) Chemical composition and physical state

22. In the manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald’s process, the catalyst used is
1) Finely divided iron
2) Platinum – rhodium gauze
3) Vanadium – pentoxide
4) Molybdenum

23. In the hydrogenation of oil, the catalyst used is
1) Platinum
2) Finely divided nickel
3) Molybdenum
4) Finely divided iron

24. A catalyst poison
1) Reacts with the reactants
2) Reacts with the catalyst
3) Destroys active centres
4) Forms a film on the catalyst

25. A silver cup is plated with silver by passing 965 coulombs of electricity. The amount of silver deposited is
1) 9.89 gm
2) 107.87 gm
3) 1.0787 gm
4) 1.0002 gm

26. Sulphuric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid because
1) It dissociates completely
2) It has high molecular weight
3) Acetic acid is weakly ionised
4) It is highly unstable

27. Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte because
1) Its molecular weight is high
2) It is a covalent compound
3) It does not dissociate much
4) It is highly unstable

28. An electrolyte is one
1) Which conducts electric current
2) Which is capable of ionisation by passing electric current
3) Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
4) Possesses ions even in the solid state

29. In the electrolysis of dil. H2SO4 using platinum electrodes
1) OH– is discharged at the cathode
2) H+ Is evolved at the anode
3) Oxygen is evolved at the anode
4) No chemical change occurs

30. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
1) Dilution
2) Number of ions
3) Current density
4) Volume of the solution

31. Which one of the following does not conduct electricity?
1) Fused NaCl
2) Solid NaCl
3) Sodium chloride solution
4) Copper
32. Solid sodium chloride is a bad conductor of electricity because
1) It contains only molecules
2) It does possess ions
3) The ions present in it are not free to move
4) It does not contain free molecules
33. pH is defined as
1) -log
2) log
3) log [H+]
4)
34. A strong electrolyte is one
1) Which ionises almost completely in solution


2) Which is partially ionised
3) Which forms complex ions
4) Which is ionised even at high concentration
35. The conductivity of an infinitely diluted solution is
1) Equal to the sum of ionic conductances
2) Equal to the product of ionic conductances
3) Independent of the ionic conductances
4) Equal to the difference of ionic conductances
36. A drop of HCl is added to pure water. Its pH
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Is unaltered
4) Increases steeply
37. A drop of HCl is added to a solution of CH3COONa and CH3COOH. Then the pH
1) Decrease
2) Increases
3) Is unaltered
4) Decreases gradually
38. In NaOH, [OH-] is highest. Even then the product of [H+] and [OH-] is


1) 10-1 2) 10-7 3) 10 4) 10-1
39. The reaction in which water reacts with anion or cation of salt to form an acidic or
alkaline solution is called
1) Neutralisation 2) Hydrolysis 3) Electrolysis 4) Pyrolysis
40. The standard electrode potential is measured by
1) Voltmeter 2) Pyrometer 3) Galvanometer 4)
Ammeter
41. The standard electrode potentials of zinc and copper electrodes are -0.76 V and +0.34 V
respectively. Then the e.m.f . of Daniel cell is
1) +0.36 volt 2) +1.10 volt 3) -1.10 volt 4) +0.81
volt
42. A metal rod is dipped in a solution of its ions. Its electrode potential is independent of
1) Temperature of the solution
2) Concentration of the solution
3) Area of the metal exposed
4) Nature of metal
43. Ammonia is passed over strongly heated cupric oxide
1) Copper is formed
2) Copper nitride is obtained
3) Copper oxide is formed


4) Nitric oxide is formed
44. Ammonium sulphate is primarily used as
1) Fertiliser 2) Antiseptic 3) Mordant 4) Drug
45. Action of heat on ammonium sulphate and sodium nitrite gives
1) NO 2) NO2 3) N2O 4) N2
46. Nitrous acid is a/an
1) Oxidising agent 2) Reducing agent 3) Dehydrating agent 4) Drying
agent
47. Ammonium carbonate is a smelling salt because
1) It has pleasant smell 2) It gives the smell of ammonia
3) It decomposes 4) It is crystalline
48. Nitrogen is absorbed by
1) Alluminium carbide 2) Calcium carbide
3) Ferrous sulphate 4) Calcium hydroxide
49. Fixation of nitrogen means
1) Manufacture of nitrogen from air
2) Liquation of nitrogen
3) Nitrogen cycle in nature
4) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds


50. The percentage of nitrogen in urea is
1) 50 2) 46.6 3) 35.2 4) 87.3
51. Action of heat on silver nitrate gives
1) Silver 2) Silver nitrate 3) Silver oxide 4) Hydrated silver oxide
52. When nitric oxide mixed with excess oxygen is dissolved in water, the product formed is
1) Nitric acid
2) Nitrogen dioxide
3) A mixture of two acids
4) Nitrogen pentoxide
53. The anhydride of nitric acid is
1) NO 2) N2O 3) N2O3 4) N2O5
54. Aqua regia is a mixture of
1) con. hydrochloric acid and con. sulphuric acid
2) con. sulphuric acid and con. nitric acid
3) con. hydrochloric acid and con . nitric acid
4) sulphuric acid and acetic acid
55. Dil. HNO3 and dil. HCl differ in the action on metals because
1) Nitrogen is less active than chlorine
2) HNO3 is a reducing agent


3) HNO3 is an oxidising agent
4) HCl is a reducing agent
56. The plants absorb atmospheric nitrogen
1) By atmospheric electricity
2) Directly
3) From soil
4) By bacteria present in root nodules
57. Phosphorus occurs as
1) Phosphide 2) Phosphate 3) Oxides 4) Element (in free state)
58. Phosphine is
1) Acidic 2) Basic 3) Neutral 4) Amphoteric
59. P2O5 is used as
1) Oxidising agent 2) Dehydrating agent 3) Bleaching agent 4) Reducing
agent
60. PCl3 is used in
1) Replacing OH group by Cl atom
2) Bleaching textiles
3) Drying
4) Replacing H of OH group by Cl atom


61. P2O3 reacts with cold water to produce
1) Phosphorus acid
2) Phosphoric acid
3) Metaphosphoric acid
4) Pyrophosphoric acid
62. Bones and teeth contain
1) Calcium phosphate
2) Calcium fluoro phosphate
3) Calcium sodium phosphate
4) Calcium hydrogen phosphate
63. When sodium dihydrogen phosphate is heated we get
1) Sodium meta phosphate
2) Sodium pyro phosphate
3) Sodium hypo phosphate
4) Sodium phosphide
64. Micro cosmic salt when heated gives
1) Sodium meta phosphate
2) Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
3) Sodium hydrogen phosphate


4) Sodium hypo phosphate
65. Super phosphate of lime contains
1) Calcium dihydrogen phosphate
2) Tricalcium phosphate
3) Calcium hydrogen phosphate
4) Calcium phosphate
66. Froth flotation process is used to concentrate
1) Oxide ores 2) Carbonate ores 3) Sulphide ores 4) Chloride
ores
67. NaCN is used in the extraction of
1) Iron 2) Copper 3) Magnesium 4) Gold
68. Decahydrate of sodium carbonate is called
1) Baking soda 2) Washing soda 3) Soda ash 4) Caustic soda
69. Sodium carbonate solution is basic because of
1) Hydrolysis 2) Electrolysis 3) Electrophoresis 4)
neutralisation
70. The ore of copper is
1) Malachite 2) Apatite 3) Dolomite 4) Haematite
71. Alum is used in the purification of water as
1) It gives trivalent cations


2) A germicide
3) A coagulant
4) A deodoriser
72. In the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process, lime and magnesia [calcined dolomite]
are coated as a lining
1) To protect the converter
2) To remove silicon and phosphorus
3) To react with iron
4) To get low grade iron
73. Ethyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH to give
1) Ethane 2) Ether 3) Ethylene 4) Ethanol
74. Alcoholic AgNO3 does not give white precipitate with
1) C6H5–CH2 Cl
2) C6H5CH2CH2Cl
3) C6H5Cl
4) CH3CHCH3
I
Cl
75. Alkyl halide reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form


1) Grignard reagent
2) Schiff’s reagent
3) Tollen’s reagent
4) Gabriel’s reagent
76. Which of the compounds does not react with benzene in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3?
1) C6H5Cl
2) C6H5CH2Cl
3) CH3Cl
4) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Cl
77. Vinyl chloride has great importance in
1) Synthetics 2) Chemicals 3) Plastics 4)
Antiseptics
78. Acetylene is stored in
1) Compressed form 2) Acetone 3) Aluminium carbide 4) Calcium
carbide
79. RX + 2 Na + R‘X → 2 NaX + RR’. The reaction is an example of
1) Friedel-Crafts reaction
2) Wurtz reaction
3) Wurtz-Fittig reaction


4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
80. The mixture of ethanol and water cannot be separated by distillation because
1) They form a constant boiling mixture
2) Alcohol molecules are solvated
3) Their boiling points are very near
4) Alcohol remains dissolved in water
81. Ethyl alcohol is denatured by adding
1) Methanol and pyridine
2) Glycerol
3) Aniline
4) Ether and methanol
82. Ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4. The conditions are
1) Excess of H2SO4 and 1700C
2) Excess of ethyl alcohol and 1400C
3) Excess of ethyl alcohol and 1800C
4) Excess of conc. H2SO4 and 1000C
83. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol using
1) Fehling’s solution
2) Schiffs reagent


3) Sodium hydroxide and iodine
4) Phthalein fusion test
84. Phenol is recovered from
1) Coal tar 2) Middle oil 3) Naphthalene 4) Benzene
85. Phenol can be distinguished from its colour reaction with
1) neutral FeCl3 solution
2) feSO4 solution
3) BaCl2 solution
4) iodoform reaction
86. In kolbe’s reaction the reacting substances are
1) Phenol and CCl4
2) Sodium phenate and CO2
3) Sodium phenate and CCl4
4) Phenol and CHCl3
87. Salicylic acid when heated with soda lime gives
1) benzene 2) benzyl alcohol 3) phenol 4)
salol
88. Cool tar mainly contains the acidic compound
1) Pyridine 2) Phenol 3) Cresol 4) Acetic
acid


89. Aniline reacts with alkyl halide to give
1) Amino compound
2) Tertiary compound
3) Azo methane
4) Quaternary ammonium compound
90. Benzene diazonium chloride when heated with water produces
1) Phenol 2) Aniline 3) Benzyl alcohol 4)
Chlorobenzene
91. Aniline + HNO2[NaN02 + HCl] →… The reaction is called
1) Diazotisation 2) Nitration 3) Reduction 4)
Ammonolysis
92. On a large scale benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzyl chloride by
1) Treating with aqueous NaOH
2) Treating with alkaline KMNO4
3) Treating with alcoholic KOH
4) Hydrolysis with steam in the presence of a catalyst
93. The oxidization of toluene to benzaldehyde is done in the presence of
1) Alkaline KMNO4
2) Acidified K2Cr2O7
3) Cu(NO3)2 solution


4) CrO2Cl2 in CS2
94. The substance used to preserve biological specimens is
1) Acetone
2) Formic acid
3) Acetaldehyde
4) 20% solution of formaldehyde in water
95. Which one of these undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction?
1) C6H5CHO
2) CH3CHO
3) CH3COCH3
4) C6H5CH2Cl
96. Aldehydes on oxidation yield
1) Alcohols 2) Acids 3) Ketones 4) Esters
97. Dry calcium acetate is heated in the absence of air. It gives
1) Acetone
2) Acetaldehyde
3) Formaldehyde
4) Benzaldehyde
98. The substances used in perfumery industry are


1) Esters 2) Aldehydes 3) Ketones 4) Ethers
99. Vinegar consists of
1) Citric acid
2) Acetic acid
3) Formic acid
4) Ortho phosphoric acid
100. Destructive distillation of wood gives pyroligneous acid. It contains
1) Acetic acid and acetone
2) Acetic acid, acetone and methanol
3) Wood tar and methanol
4) Methanol and acetic acid
101. Fruits are preserved using
1) Aldehydes
2) Benzoic acid or sodium benzoate
3) Formic acid
4) Salicylic acid
102. The carboxylic acid is converted into acyl chloride by the action of
1) Chlorine 2) HCl 3) CHCl3 4) PCl3
103. The sugar present in fruits is


1) Fructose 2) Glucose 3) Sucrose 4) galactose
104. The intermediate compound in the conversion of starch to glucose is
1) Maltose 2) Lactose 3) Fructose 4) Cane sugar
105. Cane sugar is made up of
1) 5 membered glucose ring and 5 membered fructose ring
2) 6 membered glucose ring and 6 membered fructose ring
3) 6 membered glucose ring and 5 membered fructose ring
4) 6 membered galactose ring and 6 membered fructose ring
106. The solution of iodine in KI is used to detect a solution of starch and glycogen as it gives
1) Blue colour with starch and red colour with glycogen
2) Green colour
3) Green colour with starch, blue with glycogen
4) Red colour with starch, yellow with glycogen
107. The substance that forms the plant cell wall is
1) Cellulose 2) Sucrose
3) Glycogen
4) Starch
108. In the photosynthesis the one which is increased is
1) Carbon


2) Hydrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Carbon dioxide
109. The process which is exact reverse of photosynthesis is
1) Ripening of fruits
2) Digestion of starch
3) Oxidation
4) Burning of wood
110. Oils and fats are
1) Esters
2) Aldehydes
3) Ketones
4) Ethers
111. Fats and oils serve as
1) Reserve food for the body
2) Immediate source of energy
3) Nitrogenous food
4) Control materials of metabolism
112. Hydrolysis of fats and oils yields


1) Dihydric alcohol
2) Trihydric alcohol
3) Esters
4) Unsaturated acids
113. Hydrogenation of oils involves
1) Saturation of unsaturated fatty acids
2) Reaction with hydrogen
3) Conversion into fatty acids
4) Driving off the impurities in oil by hydrogen gas
114. In the esterification reaction of alcohols
1) OH- is replaced by C6H5OH
2) H+ is replaced by sodium metal
3) OH- is replaced by chlorine
4) OH- is replaced by CH3COO group
115. The protein can be best described as
1) Peptide
2) Amino acid
3) Polypeptide
4) Polymer


116. Proteins on digestion yield
1) Amino acids
2) Fatty acids
3) Glycerols
4) Glucose
117. The protein that is the structural material is
1) Albumen
2) Oxytocin
3) haemoglobin
4) keratin
118. The amino acid among the following is
1) CH3CONH2
2) CH3CONHCH3
3) CH3NHCHO
4) CH2COOH
I
NH2
119. An amino acid contains
1) NH2 and COOH groups


2) NH2 and SO3H groups
3) OH and COOH group
4) NH and SO3H groups
120. Enzymes are active under
1) 00C
2) 370C
3) 1000C
4) Depends on the specific reaction
121. R.N.A differs from D.N.A. in having ribose instead of deoxyribose. Which base present in
R.N.A. is not found in D.N.A.?
1) Adenine
2) Guanine
3) Cytosine
4) Uracil
122. Which metal is present in the human body in great percentage?
1) Calcium
2) Sodium
3) Potassium
4) Iron


123. The metal that is present in haemoglobin is
1) Potassium
2) Iron
3) Zinc
4) Sodium
124. The molecular weight of protein is
1) <10,000
2) >10,000
3) >1000
4) >1000 and <10,000
125. Which of the following is not a classification of proteins?
1) Enzymes
2) Antibodies
3) Antigens
4) Hormones

Detailed CET Chemistry Question Paper:

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	Detailed CET Mathematics Question Paper-3.pdf (774.8 KB, 53 views)

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