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Old May 26th, 2014, 12:08 PM
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Default Central Intelligence Bureau Exams Solved question papers

Please provide me solved question paper for Intelligence Bureau Grade I I/Executive examination?
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Old May 26th, 2014, 03:25 PM
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Default Re: Central Intelligence Bureau Exams Solved question papers

Here I am giving you solved question paper for Intelligence Bureau Grade I I/Executive examination in PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily..

1.Which was the first metal to be used by man
(a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Bronze (d) Tin
Answer : A

2.The main historical source regarding the information about village government under the Cholas is the
(a) Halmidi inscription
(b) Jatwai inscription
(c) Uttaramerur inscription
(d) Chandravallo inscription
Answer : C

3.The first major inscription in classical Sanskrit is that of
a. Rudradaman
b. Chandragupta
c Vikramaditya
d. Samudragupta
Answer : A

4.Who built a tomb for Sher Shah at Sasaram
a. Ibrahim Shah
b. Islam Shah
d. Sikandar Shah
Answer : D

5.The capital of Cheras was
Answer : Muziris, now known as Kodungalloor

6. The capital of Cholas was
Answer : Kaveripattanam

7.The capital of Pandyas was
Answer : Madurai

8.Krishnadevaraya was the ruler of
Answer : Vijaya Nagar

9.The main centre or meeting point of Indo-Roman trade in ancient times was
a. Rome
b. Calicut
d. Karaikkal
Answer : B

10.The dynasty of the Sangam Age first mentioned by Megasthanese is
Answer : Pandya Dynasty

11.The main metal used by the Indus Valley people was
Answer : Copper

12.Who pursued the policy �Blood and Iron�
a. Balban
b. Firuz Tughlaq
d. Alauddin Khilji
Answer : A

13.The famous Dilwara Temple at Mount Abu, Rajasthan was built by
Answer : Tejpala

14.The official language of the Satavahana dynasty was
Answer : Prakrit

15.The Bahmani kingdom was founded by
Answer : Hasan

16.Nav Ratnas (nine gems) were the famous personalities associated with the court of
a. Chandra Gupta II
b. Harshavardhana
d. Samudra Gupta
Answer : A

17.Who got Daulatabad constructed
Answer : Muhammad-bin-Tuglaq
18. Which of the following is a port town of Indus Valley Civilization
a. Harappa
b. Ropar
d. Lothal
Answer : D

19.Chinese pilgrim who visited India during Harsha Vardhana�s period was
a. Hiuen Tsang
b. Fa-hien
d. Nishka
Answer : A

20.Who introduced the famous Persian festival of Nauroz
a. Alauddin Khilji
b. Iltumish
d. Balban
Answer : D

21.Mohiyuddin Mohammed is the real name of which Mughal ruler
Answer : Aurangazeeb
22.The Hoysala ‘s capital was
a. Warangal
b. Devagiri
d. Krishnagiri
Answer : C

23.Kalidas, the great Indian poet was in the court of which Hindu emperor
Answer : Chandragupta II

24.Who was the Nawab of Bengal at the time of the Battle of Plassey
Answer : Siraj-ud-daula

25.The rulers of which dynasties established the largest domination in Southern India
Answer : Cholas

26.The development of architecture was at its peak during the reign of
a. Nandas
b. Cholas
Answer : C

27.Which noble in the court of Akbar refused to be a convert to Din-i-Ilahi
Answer : Man Singh

28.The famous Nalanda University was during the period of
Answer : Harsha Vardhana

29.Which among the following ports was called Babul Makkha (Gate of Makkah) during the Mughal period
a. Broach
b. Calcutta
d. Calicut
Answer : C

30.Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines
a. Tipu sultan
b. Mir Quasim
d. Shah Alam II
Answer : A

31.Which play deals with Chanakya�s attempts to place Chandragupta Maurya on the Maghadha throne
Answer : Mudraraksasa
32.Which of the following rulers had the title Kaviraja
a. Kumaragupta
b. Chanragupta
d. Samudragupta
Answer : D

33.Who among the following was a great musician in the court of Akbar
a. Abdul Fazal
b. Amir Khusro
d. Tansen
Answer : D

34.The literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of
a. prose
b. poetry
d. All of these
Answer : B

35.Which of the following Rajput dynasties did not surrender to Akbar
a. Parmar
b. Pratihara
d. Sisodiya
Answer : B

36.Which rulers built Ellora temple
a. Chalukya
b. Rashtrakuta
d. Sunga
Answer : B

37.To which tribe does Gautama Buddha belongs to
Answer : Sakya

38.Avantika, the ancient city, in the time of Mauryas is now known as
Answer : Ujjain

39.Which ruler was famous as �Vikramaditya�
Answer : Chandragupta
II
40.The council of nine gems� is associated with the name of
Answer : Chandragupta II

41.The court language of the Mughals was
Answer : Persian

42.Who among the following was the famous ruler of ancient India, who adopted Jain dharma at the last
a. Chandragupta
b. Samudragupta
d. Bindusare
Answer : A

43.Which Muslim ruler was keen to have friendly relations with the Rajputs
a. Akbar
b. Humayun
d. Aurangzeb
Answer : A

44.The Mongols under Genghis Khan invaded India during the reign of
Answer : Iltutmish

45.Which among the following rulers started �Ilahi Calendar� in 1583
a. Babur
b. Akbar
d. Sher Shah
Answer : B

46.Capital of Harsha was
Answer : Kanauj

47.Alberuni was the court scholar of
Answer : Mahmud Ghazni

48.During the early Vedic period, the society was divided on the basis of
Answer : Occupation

49.The third Buddhist council was held at
Answer : Pataliputra

50. Which Sikh Guru founded the city Amritsar
Answer : Fourth


MARKETING APTITUDE QUESTIONS FOR BANK & PSC EXAMINATIONS
1. The Indian Economy will grow as per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 6.7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.5%
(D) 8%
Ans (D)
2. Government has notified the hike in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for Public Sector Undertakings refineries. The new FDI limit is—
(A) 26%
(B) 49%
(C) 51%
(D) 75%
Ans: (B)

4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat
(B) Vijai L. Kelkar
(C) T. S. Vijayan
(D) Laxmi Narayan
Ans: (C)
5. SEBI is a—
(A) Statutory body
(B) Advisory body
(C) Constitutional body
(D) Non-statutory body
Ans: (A)
6. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July-August 2008. The changed venue of the summit is—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)
7. When was the SAARC established ?
(A) On December 8, 1984
(B) On January 1, 1984
(C) On December 8, 1985
(D) On January 1, 1985
Ans: (C)
8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic Community ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 25
(D) 20
Ans: (B)
9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ?
(A) Chelliah Committee
(B) Kelkar Committee
(C) Shome Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Malta
(C) The Czeck Republic
(D) Poland
Ans: (A)
11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—
(A) Communication
(B) Social Integration
(C) Linking of Rivers
(D) Development of Highways
Ans: (D)
12. ‘Sagarmala’ is a name associated with—
(A) A drilling vessel
(B) A project of port development
(C) Oil well in Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on “Full Convertibility on Rupee” in—
(A) Current account
(B) Capital account
(C) Both in current as well as in capital account
(D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Ans: (B)
14. The new President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) is—
(A) K. C. Raina
(B) V. P. Shetty
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Som Mittal
Ans: (C)
15. As per Revised Estimates for 2006-07 released by CSO, the growth rate for Indian economy has been estimated to be—
(A) 9.0%
(B) 9.2%
(C) 9.4%
(D) 9.6%
Ans: (D)
16. CENVAT is related to—
(A) Sales Tax
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Custom Duty
(D) Service Tax
Ans: (B)
17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to—
(A) All labours in rural areas
(B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labours in urban areas
(D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas
Ans: (B)
18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about—
(A) 35 : 65
(B) 32 : 68
(C) 28 : 72
(D) 25 : 75
Ans: (C)
19. As per the final estimates of Ministry of Agriculture, the rice production for 2006-07 is estimated at—
(A) 80.11 MT
(B) 90.0 MT
(C) 93.4 MT
(D) 101.60 MT
Ans: (C)
20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is—
(A) U.P.
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Ans: (B)
21. The growth rate of construction sector for the year 2006-07 has been estimated at the level—
(A) 9.2%
(B) 8.5%
(C) 11.0%
(D) 12.0%
Ans: (D)
22. International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided to fund an Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat. This project belongs to—
(A) Reliance Group
(B) Tata Group
(C) Birla Group
(D) NTPC
Ans: (B)
23. Which states ranks first and last respectively in Education Development Index (EDI) prepared to track the progress of states towards providing universal elementary education ?
(A) Kerala and Orissa respectively
(B) Kerala and Bihar repectively
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa respectively
(D) Karnataka and Bihar respectively
Ans: (B)
24. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is—
(A) 41110 MW
(B) 66463 MW
(C) 68963 MW
(D) 86283 MW
Ans: (B)
25. During 2006-07 which sector has shown the highest growth rate ?
(A) Service Sector
(B) Manufacturing Sector
(C) Transport and communication
(D) Agriculture Sector
Ans: (C)
26. The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is—
(A) Secretary of Finance Ministry
(B) General Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Secretary of Planning Commission
(D) Vice Chairman of Planning Commission
Ans: (C)
27. 15th SAARC Summit was held in July–August 2008. The venue of the summit was—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)
28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment from private sector—
(A) Coal
(B) Iron
(C) Gold
(D) Platinum
Ans: (A)
29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is–
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Ans: (D)
30. 11th National Conference on e-governance was held on 7–8 February, 2008 at—
(A) Gurgaon (Haryana)
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Mohali (Punjab)
(D) Panchkula (Haryana)
Ans: (D)
31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ?
(A) 28.5%
(B) 29.5%
(C) 30.5%
(D) 31.5%
Ans: (C)
32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ?
(A) U.P.
(B) M.P.
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
Ans: (D)
33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP)—
(A) Upto January 1, 2008
(B) Upto March 31, 2008
(C) w.e.f April 1, 2008
(D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009
Ans: (B)
34. What is ‘NIKKEI’ ?
(A) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market
(B) Name of Japanese Central Bank
(C) Japanese name of Country’s Planning Commission
(D) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan
Ans: (A)
35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ?
(A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution
(B) Members and vice-chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
(C) Members do not require any minimum education
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
36. Which State of the following has adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) w.e.f. January 1, 2007 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Goa
Ans: (A)
37. Service Tax revenue collection for 2007–08 (Budget estimates) was proposed at Rs. 50,200 crore but the revised estimates remained at—
(A) Rs. 50,603 crore
(B) Rs. 52,603 crore
(C) Rs. 64,460 crore
(D) Rs. 64,640 crore
Ans: (A)
38. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(A) Public Account Committee
(B) Shivaraman Committee
(C) Narsimham Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
39. Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana has been launched from—
(A) 1st April, 2001
(B) 25th Sept., 2001
(C) 30th Sept., 2001
(D) No scheme of such title has yet launched
Ans: (B)
40. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) Reliance Infocom
(D) Bharti Tele
Ans: (B)
41. VAT is imposed—
(A) Directly on consumer
(B) On final stage of production
(C) On first stage of production
(D) On all stages between production and final sale
Ans: (D)
42. The newly elevated person as Joint Chairman–cum–Managing Director of National Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL) is—
(A) S. Sridhar
(B) Viswapati Trivedi
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Venugopal Dhoot
Ans: (B)
43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with—
(A) Promoting cottage industry in villages
(B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth
(C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line
(D) All of these
Ans: (C)
44. Novelis has been acquired and merged with—
(A) Tata Steels
(B) SAIL
(C) HINDALCO
(D) Jindal Steels
Ans: (C)
45. OTCEI is—
(A) Atomic Submarine of China
(B) Economic policy of USA
(C) An Indian Share Market
(D) A defence research organisation
Ans: (C)
46. The New Chairman of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is—
(A) M. Damodaran
(B) C. B. Bhave
(C) Venugopal Dhoot
(D) Sunil K. Munjal
Ans: (B)
47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 2008–09 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs. 2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 2008–09 it has been raised to—
(A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore
(B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore
(C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore
(D) Rs. 28,456 crore
Ans: (B)
48. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from 1982 to—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
Ans: (D)
49. In Budget proposals for 2008–09, which of the following gives 24% contribution in revenue collection of union government ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Excise
(C) Corporation Tax
(D) Non-tax Revenue
Ans: (C)
50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI—UNME) is—
(A) 1980-81
(B) 1981-81
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1984-85
Ans: (D)
51. CAPART is related with—
(A) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes
(B) Computer hardware
(C) Consultant service of export promotion
(D) Controlling pollution in big industries
Ans: (A)
52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth—
(A) Rs. 85 crore
(B) Rs. 115 crore
(C) Rs. 200 crore
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
53. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ?
(A) National Saving Certificate
(B) Indira Vikas Patra
(C) National Saving Scheme
(D) Public Providend Fund
Ans: (B)
54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on—
(A) 31 March, 1997
(B) 31 March, 1996
(C) 1 April, 1992
(D) 1 April, 1995
Ans: (A)
55. SEBI was established in—
(A) 1993
(B) 1992
(C) 1988
(D) 1990
Ans: (C)
56. The working of SEBI includes—
(A) To regulate the dealings of share market
(B) To check the foul dealings in share market
(C) To control the inside trading of shares
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
57. The “Ad hoc Treasury Bill System” of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by ‘Ways and Means Advances System’ which has come into force on—
(A) March 31, 1997
(B) April 1, 1996
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)
58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 4•0% in 2004–05 which sliped down in 2008–09 (Budget Estimates) to—
(A) 3.2%
(B) 2.8%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 2.1%
Ans: (C)
59. According to the Economic Survey 2007–08 during the period April 3, 2007 and February 6, 2008 Indian rupee appreciated against US dollar by—
(A) 5.6%
(B) 6.8%
(C) 8.9%
(D) 9.3%
Ans: (C)
60. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ?
(A) It is not an agency of UNO
(B) It can grant loan to any country of the world
(C) It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country
(D) It grants loan only to member nations
Ans: (D)
61. For 2006-07, agriculture growth rate has been estimated at—
(A) 3.8%
(B) 5.9%
(C) 0.0%
(D) 6.3%
Ans: (A)
62. Which of the following is public sector organisation ?
(1) FCI Food Corporation of India
(2) FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India
(3) Cotton Corporation of India
(4) Jute Corporation of India
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3
(C) Only 3, 4
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
63. Which day has been declared as ‘Balika Diwas’ (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and Children Development ?
(A) April 5, every year
(B) July 9, every year
(C) October 9, every year
(D) December 9, every year
Ans: (D)
64. For RIDF-XIII, allocation in Union Budget 2006-07 was—
(A) Rs. 4500 crore
(B) Rs. 5500 crore
(C) Rs. 10000 crore
(D) Rs. 12000 crore
Ans: (D)
65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as—
(A) 26.2 and 8.1 per thousand respectively
(B) 24.8 and 8.0 per thousand respectively
(C) 23.8 and 7.6 per thousand respectively
(D) 23.5 and 7.5 per thousand respectively
Ans: (D)
66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ?
(A) Price for APL is double of BPL price
(B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price
(C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt.
(D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt.
Ans: (A)
67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the 11th Plan (2007–12) ?
(A) 42%
(B) 33%
(C) 29%
(D) 26%
Ans: (D)
68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in—
(A) Rural Post Offices
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Rural Development Bank
(D) Any of the above
Ans: (A)
69. Agriculture sector registered 6% growth in 2005-06 and it is estimated for year 2007-08 at—
(A) Again 6%
(B) 4.3%
(C) 3.3%
(D) 2.6%
Ans: (D)
70. As per the second advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2007-08 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, Kharif production has been estimated at—
(A) 110.52 Million Tonnes
(B) 112.24 Million Tonnes
(C) 114.42 Million Tonnes
(D) 115.9 Million Tonnes
Ans: (D)
71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by—
(A) 2008 end
(B) 2009 end
(C) 2010 end
(D) 2011 end
Ans: (A)
72. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings ?
(A) Bhootlingam Committee
(B) Wanchoo Committee
(C) Raj Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (d)
73. The Present Service Tax rate as proposed in Union Budget 2008-09 is—
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
Ans: (D)
74. The cause of deflation is—
(A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply
(B) Lack of imports as compared to exports
(C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)
75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ?
(A) Employment
(B) Size of exports
(C) Rural consumption
(D) National Income
Ans: (D)
76. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)
Ans: (C)
77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2008-09 budget proposals?
(A) 12 Paise
(B) 10 Paise
(C) 8 Paise
(D) 7 Paise
Ans: (C)
78. ‘India Brand Equity Fund’ was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1995
(D) 1992
Ans: (A)
79. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy
(C) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(D) Co-existence of rich and poor
Ans: (C)
80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to—
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Ans: (D)
81. “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” is a slogan raised by—
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) SBI
(D) UTI Bank
Ans: (C)
82. During 2006-07, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at—
(A) 16.4%
(B) 17.4%
(C) 17.8%
(D) 15.8%
Ans: (A)
83. Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans: (D)
84. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Cash with Bank
(D) Cash with Public
Ans: (B)
85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ?
(A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch)
(B) Airtel
(C) BSNL
(D) Reliance
Ans: (B)
86. The main objective of TRYSEM was—
(A) To train rural youth for self employment
(B) To train urban youth for self employment
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)
87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Co-operation) was officially declared on—
(A) March 5, 1996
(B) March 5, 1997
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) August 15, 1947
Ans: (B)
88. Inside Trading is related to—
(A) Share Market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) Public Expenditure
Ans: (A)
89. The largest source of National Income in India is—
(A) Service Sector
(B) Agriculture
(C) Industrial Sector
(D) Trade Sector
Ans: (A)
90. ‘Public Sector’ means—
(A) Government ownership on commerce and trade
(B) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
(C) Private ownership on trade
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)
91. NABARD is—
(A) A bank
(B) A board
(C) A block
(D) A department
Ans: (A)
92. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in—
(A) Wheat and Potato
(B) Jwar and Oil Seeds
(C) Wheat and Rice
(D) Tea and Coffee
Ans: (C)
93. The period of 10th plan in India was—
(A) 2000-2005
(B) 2001-2006
(C) 2002-2007
(D) 2003-2008
Ans: (C)
94. Economic Planning is in—
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Not any specified list
Ans: (C)
95. Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is—
(A) 7.0%
(B) 6.75%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 6.0%
Ans: (D)
96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What is the average percentage of gross domestic savings during the 10th plan ?
(A) 26.4%
(B) 31.4%
(C) 34.8%
(D) 35.2%
Ans: (B)
97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is this recommended interest rate ?
(A) 7.0%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.0%
(D) 8.5%
Ans: (B)
98. MRTP is related to—
(A) Monopoly and trade restrictions
(B) Inflation control
(C) Transport control
(D) Foreign Exchange Regulations
Ans: (A)
99. Interest Rate Policy is a part of—
(A) Fiscal Policy
(B) Industrial Policy
(C) Monetary Policy
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)
100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
Ans: (B)
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Old December 31st, 2014, 01:18 PM
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Hi I want the question paper of Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (Executive) Grade-II Exam so can you provide me?
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Old December 31st, 2014, 01:19 PM
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Default Re: Central Intelligence Bureau Exams Solved question papers

Ok, as you want the question paper of Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (Executive) Grade-II Exam so here I am providing you.

Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (Executive) Grade-II Exam

English Language & Comprehension:

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

1. Though there is hourly bus service on this route (A) / a number of people are still suffering (B) / as there is no bus shelter here. (C) No error. (D)

2. The boss took strict measures (A) / with a view to ensuring punctuality (B) / on the part of his subordinates. (C) No error. (D)

3. People prefer to be identified (A) /by their caste community or religion first (B) / rather to be known as Indians first. (C) No error. (D)

4. Mrs. Dorai would rather (A) / spend a quiet evening (B) / than attending a party. (C) No error. (D)

5. Being idle sometimes is agreeable (A) / but being idle all the times (B) / might become monotonous. (C) No error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

6. HERETICAL—
(A) Contradictory
(B) Doubtful
(C) Impious
(D) Orthodox

7. PHILISTINE—
(A) Cultured
(B) Libertine
(C) Sober
(D) Educated

8. LACERATION—
(A) Convalescence
(B) Recouperation
(C) Healing
(D) Palpitation

9. IMPLICATE—
(A) Disentangle
(B) Impersonate
(C) Complicate
(D) Impose

10. INGEST—
(A) Disrupt
(B) Disgorge
(C) Dismiss
(D) Display

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

11. (A) Clientele
(B) Clientale
(C) Cleintele
(D) Clientelle

12. (A) Punctileous
(B) Punctilious
(C) Punctillious
(D) Punctileus

13. (A) Haemorrage
(B) Hemorhage
(C) Hemmorage
(D) Haemorrhage

14. (A) Fascimile
(B) Facsimele
(C) Facsimile
(D) Facksimile

15. (A) Hoseire
(B) Hosier
(C) Hosair
(D) Hasier

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer sheet.

16. We know that he is the one responsible for the discord but as he is well-connected all we can do is send him to Coventry.(A) transfer him
(B) commend him
(C) boycott him
(D) dismiss him

17. A Prime Minister cannot ride rough shod over his ministerial colleagues for long.
(A) deal unkindly with
(B) take for granted
(C) be hamhanded with
(D) exploit wilfully

18. The say, join the Army to drink life to the lees.
(A) to have the best of fun and fortune
(B) to enjoy a life of drinking and dancing
(C) to have a life full of adventures
(D) to have the best of life

19. He was down in the mouth as he was defeated in the elections.
(A) unable to speak
(B) very depressed
(C) very angry
(D) very confused

20. The noble man gave up the ghost.
(A) left the ghost
(B) lived like a ghost
(C) invited ghost
(D) died

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer sheet.

21. The time between midnight and noon—
(A) Afternoon
(B) Antipodes
(C) Ante-meridiem
(D) Antenatal

22. One who is a dabbler in arts, science or literature—
(A) Dilettante
(B) Aesthete
(C) Maestro
(D) Connoisseur

23. Fear of height—
(A) Agoraphobia
(B) Hydrophobia
(C) Acrophobia
(D) Pyrophobia

24. Still existing and known—
(A) Extent
(B) Extant
(C) Eternal
(D) Immanent

25. A remedy for all ills—
(A) Narcotic
(B) Panacea
(C) Medicine
(D) Quack

Directions—(Q. 26–30) The Ist and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S.
These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer sheet.

26. 1. There are some places that experience heavy rains throughout the year.
P. So, the local administration should take steps to provide a proper drainage system to clear the stagnant water.
Q. If water stagnates on the road sides, it leads to the spread of infectious diseases.
R. Additionally, measures should be taken to spray disinfectants.
S. In such places, people adapt themselves to moist weather.
6. By taking such steps, spread of diseases can be checked.
(A) QPSR
(B) SQPR
(C) RSQP
(D) PQSR

27. 1. Addiction to alcoholic drinks affects the social life of the people.
P. Gradually drinking becomes a habit.
Q. The person becomes an addict.
R. When once it becomes a habit, it is difficult to give up.
S. A person begins to drink just for the fun of it.
6. If he doesn't have his bottle of drink, he becomes restless.
(A) SPRQ
(B) SRQP
(C) QRPS
(D) QPRS


28. 1. Braille lost his eyesight accidentally as a child.
P. In his days, the few books that were available for blind people were printed in big, raised type.
Q. After that he became a teacher.
R. The letters used were t hose of the ordinary alphabet.
S. Nevertheless, he was able to complete his education at a school for the blind in Paris.
6. Braille's idea was to use raised dots instead of raised letters.
(A) PQRS
(B) SQPR
(C) SRPQ
(D) QPRS

29. 1. What are the strategies to strengthen reading habits among early literates, school dropouts and even adults ?
P. Normally, subtitles for a film, say in Hindi, will be in some other language, say, English.
Q. According to a research survey, SLS ''doubles and even triples the role of reading improvement that children may be achieving through formal education.''
R. But SLS harps on the argument that since the film viewers are familiar with the script, they can read the
words in their favourite dialogues and films.
S. One of the novel and effective strategies is Same Language Subtitles (SLS), which was introduced in Ahmedabad in 1996.
6. Since, a huge number of children and adults watch TV for entertainment even in the rural
areas of India, why not use this resource to get an educational benefit out of it ?
(A) PQSR
(B) PRQS
(C) SPRQ
(D) SQRP

30. 1. Disappointment doesn't equal failure.
P. When you feel disappointed, you can either seek comfort or seek a solution.
Q. First, step back, stop what you're doing, and try to obtain some comfort-but don't get
trapped into staying comfortable.
R. The best approach includes some of both.
S. Seen in a positive light, it can stimulate learning and growth.
6. Having licked your wounds, prepare for another effort based on a new solution to the

problem.
(A) SRQP
(B) RSPQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PRSQ

Directions—(Q. 31–35) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.
31. Who will have broken the Gramophone record ?
(A) By whom the Gramophone record has been broken ?
(B) By whom have the Gramophone record been broken ?
(C) By whom will have the Gramophone record been broken ?
(D) By whom has the Gramophone record been broken ?

32. People once believed that the sun was a God—
(A) The sun is once being believed to be a God
(B) The sun has once been believed to be a God
(C) It was once believed that the sun was a God
(D) It is once believed that the sun is a God

33. Can we send this parcel by air mail ?
(A) By air mail, can this parcel be sent ?
(B) Can this parcel be send by air mail ?
(C) Can this parcel be sent by air mail ?
(D) Can by air mail, this parcel be sent ?

34. People ought not to speak about such things in public—
(A) Such things ought to be not spoken about in public by people
(B) Such things ought not to be spoken about in public
(C) Such things ought to be spoken about not in public
(D) Let such things not be spoken about in public by people

35. I shall be complimented by all when I win the game—
(A) Everyone will compliment me when the game is won by me
(B) All shall compliment me when I win the game
(C) All are complimenting me when the game is won
(D) All will have complimented me when I win the game

Directions—(Q. 36–40) You have one brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer sheet.
Passage :
A rat's thick, furry body brushed his cheek, its whiskered nose sniffing at his mouth. Quivering with revulsion, Kunta snapped his teeth together desperately and the rat ran away. In rage, Kunta snatched and kicked against the shackles that bound his wrists and ankles. Instantly, angry exclamations and jerking came back from whomever he was shackled to. The shock and pain adding to his fury, Kunta lunged upward, his head bumping hard against wood-right on the spot where he had been clubbed by the 'toubol' back in the woods.

Gasping the snarling, he and the unseen man next to him battered their iron cuffs at each other until both slumped back in exhaustion. Kunta felt himself starting to vomit again, and he tried to force it back, hut couldn't. His already emptied belly squeezed up a thin, sour fluid that drained from the side of his mouth as he lay wishing that he might die.

He told himself that he mustn't lose control again if he wanted to save his strength and his sanity. After a while, when he felt he could move again, he very slowly and carefully explored his shackled right wrist and ankle with his left hand. They were bleeding. He pulled lightly on the the left ankle and wrist of the man he had fought with. On Kunta's left, chained to him by the ankles, lay some other man, someone who kept up a steady moaning and they were all so close that their shoulders, arms, and legs touched if any of them moved even a little.

36. How many people are there definitely with Kunta ?
(A) No one else
(B) One other person
(C) Two other persons
(D) Many others

37. In the passage, Kunta vomited again because he—
(A) was not keeping well
(B) was very hungry
(C) was angry with someone
(D) had fought with someone

38. The man is referred to as 'unseen' because—
(A) Kunta didn't know him
(B) Kunta wouldn't turn his head to see him
(C) It was dark
(D) Kunta was tied

39. Where is Kunta ?
(A) In the open air
(B) In a prison
(C) In a confined space
(D) Not mentioned in the text

40. Kunta was desperate when a rat came near him because—
(A) he quivered with revulsion
(B) he was angry and hungry
(C) he was shackled and helpless
(D) he was tied to someone else

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

A modern example of the process of evolution by natural selection in action is provided by the peppered moth. The moth is …41… pale in colour, a mottled grey which …42… the moth to settle, wings outstret-ched, …43… the bark of lichen covered trees and …44… unnoticed. It can thus save itself from many …45… birds. However, many years ago some British …46… found that there does exist a second…47… of this moth, with dark sooty wings. Research has …48… established that both belong to the …49… species, but the dark moth lives in …50… surroundings, where the trunks of the trees on which they live are dark with industrial grime.

41. (A) only
(B) normally
(C) really
(D) obviously

42. (A) permits
(B) allows
(C) enables
(D) obstructs

43. (A) in
(B) on
(C) about
(D) under

44. (A) be
(B) hide
(C) run
(D) come

45. (A) ordinary
(B) circulatory
(C) predatory
(D) stationary

46. (A) naturalists
(B) ornithologists
(C) excavators
(D) scholars

47. (A) group
(B) section
(C) variety
(D) society

48. (A) however
(B) now
(C) then
(D) since

49. (A) same
(B) similar
(C) like
(D) one

50. (A) rural
(B) mechanical
(C) agricultural
(D) urban

Answers:
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D)
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