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Default Re: Manipal MBBS Exam Solved Question Papers

Here I am giving you solved question paper for Manipal MBBS entrance Examination

1. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
A. proximal tubule B. distal tubule C. collecting duct D. loop of Henle
[Ans. (A)]
2. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
A. 500 ml B. 140 ml C. 1 litre D. 1.5 ml
[Ans. (B)]
3. Which one is imino acid?
A. Pepsin B. Proline C. Cysteine D. Renin
[Ans. (B)]
4. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
A. Cell membrane B. Cell Wall C. Ribosome D. Mitochondria[
Ans. (B)]
5. ACTH is secreted from
A. Adrenal cortex B. Pituitary C. Adrenal Medulla D. Thyroid
[Ans. (B)]
6. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?
A. SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibers
B. AV node  Bundle of His  SA node  Purkinje fibers
C. SA node  Purkinje fibers  AV node  Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers  AV node  SA node  Bundle of His
[Ans. (A)]
7. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are line by
A. cubical epithelium B. columnar epithelium C. squamous epithelium D. ciliated epithelium
[Ans. (D)]
8. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
A. CT Scan B. Sphygmomanometer C. ECG D. EEG
[Ans. (D)]
9. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity ?
A. T-lymphocyte B. B-lymphocyte C. I-lymphocyte D. P-lymphocyte
[Ans. (B)]
10. Fertilization occur in
A. Uterus B. Ureter C. Vagina D. Fallopian tube
[Ans. (D)]
11. The Gastrin is secreted from
A. Intestine B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Rectum
[Ans. (B)]

12. The cause of cretinism is
A. Hypothyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism
[Ans. (A)]
13. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?
A. Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Adrenalin D. Aldosterone
[Ans. (D)]
14. The part of the brain where the centre for hunge and thirst is located is
A. Cerebrum B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Medulla Oblongata
[Ans. (B)]
15. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as
A. Monosynsptic reflex arc B. Disynaptic reflex arc
C. Polysynaptic reflex arc D. Asynaptic reflex arc
[Ans. (A)]
16. The lactase hydrolyzes lactose into
A. Glucose B. Glucose and galactose C. Fructose D. Glucose and fructose
[Ans. (B)]
17. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
A. 1.7 litres B. 7 litres C. 17 litres D. 170 litres
[Ans. (D)]
18. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is
A. Dyspnea B. Hypoxia C. Asphyxia D. Apnea
[Ans. (B)]
19. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
A. Calcium B. Sodium C. cAMP D. cGMP
[Ans. (B)]
20. The name of the pace maker of the heart is
A. Lymph node B. S.A. node
C. Juxtaglumerular apparatus D. Semilunar valve
[Ans. (B)]
21. What is a genophore ?
A. DNA in prokaryotes B. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
C. DNA and protein in prokaryotes D. RNA in prokaryotes
[Ans. (A)]
22. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is
A. Ligin B. Suberin C. Inulin D. Starch
[Ans. (D)]
23. Who wrote the famous book "Origin of Species"?
A. Larmarck B. Darwin C. De Vries D. Mendel
[Ans. (B)]
24. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
A. Autopolyploid B. Triploid C. Allopolyploid D. Monoploid
[Ans. (C)]

25. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
A. 0.05 Å B. 0.15 Å C. 0.25 Å D. 0.30 Å
[Ans. (A)]
26. Biolistic technique is used in
A. Tissue culture process B. Gene transfer process
C. Hybridization process D. Germplasm conservation process
[Ans. (B)]
27. Example of water soluble plant pigment is
A. Chlorophyll-a B. Chlorophyll-b C. Anthocyanin D. Xanthophyll
[Ans. (C)]
28. Structure element of Chromatin is
A. Histone B. Acid protein and DNA C. Nuclear matrix D. Nucleosomes
[Ans. (D)]
29. Inulin is a polymer of
A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Arabinose
[Ans. (C)]
30. Mannitol is
A. Amino acid B. Amino alcohol C. Sugar alcohol D. Sugar acid
[Ans. (C)]
31. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
A. Zygomorphic B. Actinomorphic C. Regular D. Perfect
[Ans. (A)]
32. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called
A. Explant B. Somaclone C. Inoculant D. Clone
[Ans. (A)]
33. VAM is
A. Symbiotic bacteria B. Saprophytic bacteria C. Saprophytic fungi D. Symbiotic fungi
[Ans. (D)]
34. Ovule integument gets transformed into
A. seed B. fruit wall C. seed coat D. cotyledons
[Ans. (C)]
35. Acid rain is caused by
A. NO2 B. SO2 C. SO3 D. CO2
[Ans. (B)]
36. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants ?
A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus thuringiensis
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
[Ans. (D)]
37. A plant cell becomes turgid due to
A. Plasmolysis B. Exosmosis C. Endosmosis D. Electrolysis
[Ans. (C)]

38. Restriction enzymes are used to cut
A. Single stranded RNA B. Double stranded DNA
C. Single stranded DNA D. Double stranded RNA
[Ans. (B)]
39. Spindle fibre is made up of
A. humulin B. intermediate filament C. flagellin D. tubulin
[Ans. (D)]
40. Edible part of Mushroom is
A. Basidiocarp B. Primary mycelium C. Fungal hyphae D. Basidiospores
[Ans. (A)]
41. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of
A. Parathyroid hormone B. Calcitonin C. Thyroxine D. Adrenaline
[Ans. (A)]
42. Kupffer's cells are
A. Phagocytic B. Mast cells
C. Hormone secreting D. Digestive juice secreting
[Ans. (A)]
43. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature ?
A. Anterior hypothalamus B. Posterior hypothalamus
C. Limbic system D. Red nucleus
[Ans. (A) Heat loss centre i.e. Anterior hypothalamus]
44. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity
A. Myoglobin B. Actin C. Myosin D. Fibrin
[Ans. (A)]
45. Longest phase of meiosis
A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Anaphase I D. Metaphase II
[Ans. (A)]
46. Tetany is caused by
A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism
[Ans. (B)]
47. Which of the following is a gastro intestine hormone ?
A. Prolactin B. Enterokinase C. GH D. FSH
[Ans. (B)]
48. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.
A. LH B. FSH C. GH D. TSH
[Ans. (D)]
49. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson's disease ?
A. GABA B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. Glutamic acid
[Ans. (C)]
50. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
A. facial nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve
[Ans. (C)]

51. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe ?
A. Hearing B. Speech C. Vision D. Memory
[Ans. (C)]
52. Meissner's corpuscles occur is
A. Brain B. Nerve cells C. Skin D. Tongue
[Ans. (C)]
53. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
A. Infants due to protein enertgy malnutrition B. Adults due to protein enertgy malnutrition
C. Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency D. Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency
[Ans. (C)]
54. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by
A. Blood cells B. Bone cells C. Sex chromosomes D. Autosomes
[Ans. (D)]
55. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
A. Pepsin B. Mucus C. Rennin D. HCl
[Ans. (D)]
56. Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria ?
A. Nerve cell B. Red blood cell C. Liver cell D. White blood cell
[Ans. (B)]
57. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?
A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene
[Ans. (C)]
58. Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon ?
A. UGU B. AAU C. UUG D. UAG
[Ans. (D)]
59. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel ?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9
[ According to English version Answer is B i.e. 5 pairs.
According to Bengali version pair is NOT mention in question ]
60. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive
character (a) the genotype of parents are
A. Aa × Aa B. Aa × aa C. AA × aa D. AA × Aa
[Ans. (B)]
61. Structural lipids of cell membrane are
A. Simple lipid B. Chromolipids C. Steroid D. Phospholipids
[Ans. (D)]
62. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
A. Glycogen B. Sucrose C. Lactose D. Maltose
[Ans. (A)]
63. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG ?
A. TAC – GTC B. UAC – GUC C. UCA – TUA D. TCA – GTC
[Ans. (B)]

64. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area ?
A. Sibling species B. Allopatric species C. Sympatric species D. Endemic species
[Ans. (D)]
65. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?
A. Sycon – Canal system B. Star fish – Radial symmetry
C. Ascaris – Flame cell D. Prawn – Haemocoel
[Ans. (C)]
66. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?
A. Platyhelminthes B. Annelida C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata
[Ans. (A)]
67. Cardiac muscles are
A. Striated and voluntary B. Striated and involuntary
C. Smooth and voluntary D. Smooth and involuntary
[Ans. (B)]
68. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?
A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
[Ans. (B)]
69. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell ?
A. Macrophage B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Basophil
[Ans. (D)]
70. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man ?
A. Homo habilis B. Australopithecus
C. Rampithecus punjabicus D. Homo neanderthalensis
[Ans. (C)]
71. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
A. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length
B. Proboscis long and palpi short
C. Proboscis short and palpi long
D. Both proboscis and palpi are short
[Ans. (A)]
72. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents
A. Nerve ring B. Cervical papilla C. Excretory System D. Reproductive system
[Ans. (C)]
73. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
A. Biotic potential B. Fertility C. Carrying capacity D. Birth rate
[Ans. (A)]
74. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
A. Habitat B. Niche C. Ecotone D. Ecotype
[Ans. (C)]
75. Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is
A. Always upright B. Always inverted C. Mostly upright D. Mostly inverted
[Ans. (A)]

76. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for green house effect ?
A. SO2 B. CO2 C. CO D. O2
[Ans. (B)]
77. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?
A. Barbus stigma B. Cyprinus carpio C. Labeo bata D. Cirrhinus mrigala
[Ans. (B)]
78. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
A. TSH and ACTH B. Oestrogen and progesterone
C. FSH and LH D. Vassopressin and oxytocin
[Ans. (C)]
79. Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man?
A. Gametocyte B. Merozoite C. Cryptomerozoite D. Sporozoite
[Ans. (D)]
80. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
A. Bombyx mori B. Antheraea mylitta
C. Antheraea assamensis D. Philosomia ricini
[Ans. (B)]

DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
FULL MARKS : 20
(Each question carries two marks)
1. What are poikilothermic animals ?
Ans. Also called cold blooded animals. Their body temperature changes according surrounding environment. These
animals are less active.
e.g. all invertebrates, fishes, amphibians, reptiles.
2. Write two functions of juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Ans. Functions :
(i) Juxtaglomerular cells secretes Renin which through RAAS (Renin-Angiotensis Aldosterone System) help in
absorption of Na+ from DCT and therefore increases Blood pressure.
(ii) Its Macula densa cells act as chemorecptor feeding information to JG cells.
3. State two differences between red and white muscle.
Ans. Difference between Red & White Muscle.

Red Muscles White Muscles
i) Rich in Myoglobin. i) Less myoglobin.
ii) Mitochondria are more in number. ii) Less in number.
iii) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum. iii) More sarcoplasmic reticulum.
iv) Can carry out considerable aerobic
respiration.
iv) Depends mainly on anaerobic
respiration.
v) Slow rate of contraction for long
period.
v) Fast rate of contraction for short
period.
4. What is the difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis ?
Ans.

Phagocytosis Pinocytosis
i) Bulk intake of fluid material by cell. i) Intake of solid material from outside to
inside of the cell.
ii) Vesicles formed are small. ii) Large
iii) Lysosome play no role. iii) Lysosomes are essential.
5. State four important functions of plasma membrane.
Ans. (i) Helps in Transport by active and passive processes.
(ii) Take part in Exocytosis and Endocytosis.
6. What is bioaccumulation ?
Ans. Different types of elements and compound deposited inside the living beings. Which is called Bioaccumulation or
Bioconcentration. Like in scallops maximum quantity of Zn, Cu, Cd and Cr deposited and in human beings
maximum Iodide deposieted in thyroid glands.

7. What is a test cross ? Why is it so named ?
Ans. When F1 progeny is crossed with recessive parent then it is called Test Cross. Test Cross helps to find out the
genotype of dominant individual.
8. What is ribozyme ?
Ans. Ribozymes are the RNA molecules (Non protein enzyme) that possess catalytic activity they function in RNA
splicing reactions.
9. What are mycorrhizae?
Ans. The association of fungi with the roots of higher plant, is called mycorrhizae. Mycorrhizal association fround in
conifers plant.
10. Write down the scientific name of China rose plant. Give its floral formula.
Ans. Hibiscus rosasinensis :
Br Epi7 k(5) C5 A( ) G(5– )

1. The hybridization state of C atom in butendioic acid is :

(1) sp2

2. Which of the following is not a isomer of pentane :

(1) n-pentane

(2) 2, 2-dimethy 1 propane

(3) 2, 3-dimethy 1 butane

(4) 2-methy 1 butane

3. The oxidation number of C atom in Ch2CI2 and CCI4 are respectively :

(1) -2 and – 4 (2) 0 and – 4 (3) 0 and 4 (4) 2 and 4

4. Which of the following dissolves in lonic solvents :

(1) C6H5 (2) CH3OH (3) CCI4 (4) C5H12

5. The conjugate acid of HS is :

(1) S-2 (2) H2S2 (3) both two (4) none

6. Phenolphthalein of pH range [8-10] is used in which of the following type of

titration as a suitable indicator :

(1) NH4OH and HCI

(2) NH4OH and HCOOH

(3) NH4OH and C2H4O2

(4) NaOH and C2O4H2



7. Which of the following is iron are :

(1) Malachite (2) Hernatite (3) Siderite (4) Limonite

8. The molar concentration of chloride ions in the resulting solution of 300

ml.of 3.0 M NaCI and 200 ml. of 4.0 M BaCl2 will be :

(1) 1.7 M (2) 1.8 M (3) 5.0 M (4) 3.5 M

9. Which of the following has least bond energy :

(1) N2

10. Which of the following species has highest bond energy :

(1) O2

11. Which of the following compound is not aromatic :

(1) 1, 3-cyclobutene

(2) pyridine

(3) furane

(4) thiophene



12. Which of the following compound is used as refrigerant :

(1) CCI2F2

(2) CCI4

(3) CF4

(4) Acetone

13. Which of the following is weak acid :

(1) C6H6 (2) CH3-C≡CH (3) CH2=CH2 (4) CH3-C≡C-CH3

14. L.P.G. mainly consist of the following :

(1) Methane (2) Hydrogen (3) Acetylene (4) Butane

15. The solubility product of CaCo3 is 5 x 10-9. The solubility will be :

(1) 2.5 x 10-5 (2) 7 x 10-5 (3) 2.5 x 10-4 (4) 2.2 x 10-9

16. The outer electronic configuration of alkali earth metals is :

(1) nd10 (2) ns1

17. The nature of 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol is :

(1) Neutral (2) Basic (3) Acidic (4) Weak basic

18. Which of the following group is sharp ortho and para directive :

(1) –C6H5 (2)-OH (3) –CH3 (4) –CI

19. By which of the following process hydrocarbons are found from petroleum :

(1) combustion

(2) fractional distillation

(3) addition

(4) all above

20. A sample of petroleum contains 30% n-heptane, 10% 2-methyl hexane and

60% 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane, the octane no. of this sample will be :

(1) 30% (2) 60% (3) 10% (4) 70%

21. In which of the following halogens p-electrons does not take part in

resonance :

(1) CH2=CH-CH2Cl (2) BrC6H5

(3) C6H5Cl (4) CH2=CHCl

22. Which of the following statement is false :

(1) 40% solution HCHO is known as formalin

(2) HCHO is least reactive in its homologous series

(3) The B.P. of isovarelaldehyde is less than n-varelaldehyde

(4) The boiling point of ketones are higher than that of aldehydes

23. If n + ιι = 8 then the expected no. of orbitals will be :

(1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 16 (4) 25



Alc. KOH 2Cl2 Ca(OH)2

24. A B C here the compound C will be :

(1) Lewsite (2) Westron (3) Acetylene tetra chloride (4) Both 2 and 3



25. Which of the following is least hydrolysed :

(1) BeCl2 (2) MgCl2 (3) CaCl2 (3) BaCl2



26. The laughing gas is :

(1) N2O4 (2) NO (3) N2O (4) N2O5

27. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 3.98 x 10-6 mole per liter. The

pH value of this solution will be :

(1) 6.0 (2) 5.8 (3) 5.4 (4) 5.9

28. The reaction of sodium acetate and sodalime gives :

(1) Butane (2) Ethane (3) Methane (4) Propane

29. Which of the following acids does not contain – COOH group :

(1) Carbamic acid (2) Barbituric acid

(3) Lactic acid (4) succinnic acid

30. Which of the following compound of xenone does not exists :

(1) XeF6 (2) XeF4 (4) XeF5 (4) XeF2

31. FeSO4, 7H2O is :

(1) Mohr’s salt (2) Blue vitriol (3) Green vitriol (4) White vitriol

32. The solution of BiCl3 in dil. HCI when diluted with water white precipitate is

formed which is :

(1) Bismith oxychloride (2) Bismith oxide

(3) Bismith hydroxide (3) none of these

33. The strongest acid is :

(1) acetic acid

(2) trichloroacetic acid

(3) dichloracetic acid

(4) monochloroacetic acid

34. The false statement regarding alkane is :

(1) This does not perform polymerization reaction

(2) This does not gives elimination reaction

(3) It does not disappear the colour of dilute KMnO4 solution

(4) It does not decolourise bromine water

35. Which of the following is strongest base :

(1) C6H5NH2 (2) CH3NH2



(3) NH3 (4) CH3CONH2

36. Which of the following aromatic compound gives sulphonation reaction very

easily :

(1) Chlorobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene (3) Toluene (4) benzene



37. The geometry of I3- is :

(1) Triangular (2) Linear (3) Tetrahedral (4) T-shape

38. The half life of a radio active element is 140 days. 1 gm. of this element after

560 days will become :

(1) 1 gm (2) 1 gm (3) 1gm. (4) 1 gm.

16 4 8 2

39. The volume concentration of hydrogen peroxide 6.8% concentration will be :

(1) 5 (2) 11.2 (3) 22.4 (4) 20

40. Which of the following on combustion give maximum energy :

(1) Ethane (2) Propane (3) Methane (4) Butane

Anhy. AICI3

41. C6H6 + CH3CI C6H5CH3 + HCI The name of above reaction is :

(1) Gattermann (2) Reimer-tiemann

(3) Friedel-Craft (4) Cannizaro

42. The oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is :

(1) + 4 (2) + 3 (3) + 6 (4) + 5

43. The natural rubber is the polymer of :

(1) 1, 3- butadiene (2) polyamide (3) isoprene (4) none of these

44. Nylone-66 is a :

(1) polyester (2) polyamide (3) polyacrylate (4) none of these

45. 2NO(g) + CI2 (g) →→ 2 NOCI The equilibrium constant for this reaction is :

←←

(1) Kc = [NOCI]2

[NO]2



(3) Kc = [NOCI]2

[NO]2



A

46. C6H6 + CO + HCI C6H5CHO + HCI here A is :

(1) anhydrans ZnO (2) V2O5/4500

(3) anhydrous AICO3 (4) solid KOH



47. The values of for HCN and CH3COOH are 7.2 x 10-10 and 1.75 x 10-5 (at 250

C) respectively. The strongest acid amongst them is :

(1) CH3COOH (2) HCN (3) both (4) none of these



48. In which of the following carbon atom (asterisk) is asymmetric :

(1) CH3CH2CH (CH3) CH2OH

(2) CH3CH2CH (CH3) CHOH

(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

(4) CH3CH2CH (CH3)CH2OH

49. Benzene reacts with CH3COCI in presence of Lewis acid AICI3 to form :

(1) Acetophenone (2) Toluene (3) Benzyl Chloride (4) Chlorobenzene

50. Which of the following is reducing agent :

(1) H2S (2) HNO3 (3) H2O (4) K2Cr2O7

51. In which of the following alkyl chloride the possibility of SN1 reaction

mechanism is maximum :

(1) (CH3)2CHCI (2) (CH3)3C-CI (3) CH3CI (4) CH3CH2CI

52. The energy produced realated to mass decay of 0.02 amu is :

(1) 28.2 MeV (2) 931 MeV (3) 18.62 MeV (4) none of these

53. The mole of hydrogen ion in 50 ml. of 0.1 M HCI solution will be :

(1) 5 x 102

54. Petroleum is mainly consist of :

(1) Aliphatic alcohol

(2) Aromatic hydrocarbon

(3) Alipnetic hydrocarbon

(4) None of these

∆∆

55. C6H6OCH3 + HI …….. + ……….. The products in the above reaction

will be :

(1) C6H5I+CH3OH (2) C6H5CH3+HOI

(3) C6H5OH+CH3I (4) C6H6+CH3OI

56 F3 is :

(1) Bronsted base (2) Lewis base (3) Lewis acid (4) Bronsted acid

57. Which of the following compound gives violet colour with FeCI3 solution:

(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Aniline (3) Nitrobenzene (4) Phenol

58. Hypo solution forms which of the following complex compound with AgCI :

(1) Na5[Ag(S2O3)3] (2) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]



(3) Na2{Ag(S2O3)2] (4) Na3[Ag(S2O3)3]

59. Molecular oxygen is :

(1) ferro magnetic (2) diamagnetic (3) para magnetic (4) non magnetic

60. Bonds in acetylene are :

(1) 2π bonds (2) one π bond (3) 3π bonds (4) none of these

61. The false statement for Griynaed reagent is :

(1) It gives tertiary alcohol with acetamide

(2) It gives tertiary alcohol with acetone

(3) It gives secondary alcohol with acetaldehyde

(4) It gives primary alcohol with formaldehyde

62. Which of the following alkane exists is liquid state at normal temperature :

(1) C20H42 (2) C3H8 (3) C8H18 (4) CH4

63. The solubility of AgCI at 250

(1) Potassium chloride solution

(2) AgNO3 solution

(3) Water

(4) All above

64. The weight of a benzene molecule is :

(1) 78 gm. (2) 7.8 gm. (3) 13 x 10-23 (4) none of these

65. CuFeS2 is :

(1) iorn pyrites (2) malachite (3) chalcosite (4) chalcopyrites

66. Primary halides follow the following reaction mechanism :

(1) SN1 (2) SN2 (3) both (4) none of these

67. C and Si belong to the same group of periodic table, CO2 is a gas and SiO2 is a :

(1) liquid (2) gas (3) solid (4) none of these

68. H2S is a gas while H2O is a liquid because :

(1) there is association due to hydrogen bonding

(2) bond energy of OH high

(3) the ionization potential of oxygen is high

(4) the electro negativity of oxygen is high

69. “The negative part of the molecule adding to the double bond goes to that

unsaturated asymmetric carbon atom which is linked to the least number of

hydrogen atoms.” This statement is related to :

(1) Markownikoff’s law

(2) Peroxide effect

(3) Bayer’s law of distortion



(4) none of these

70. The conjugate base of NH3 is :

(1) N2H4 (2) NH2

71. (a) N2 and (b) C2H2. The nos. of ππ and σσ bond in the molecules are respectively :

(1) (a) 2,2 (b) 2,2 (2) (a) 1,2 (b) 2,1

(3) (a) 2,1 (b) 2,3 (4) (a) 2,1 (b) 2,1

72. In which of the following compound there are maximum no. of sp2

atoms:

(1) Benzene (2) 1,3,5-hexatriene

(2) 1,2,4-hexatriene (4) both 1 and 2

73. The shape of the molecule having hybrid orbitals of 20% character will be :

(1) octahedral (2) tetrahedral

(3) square planer (4) triangular bipyramidal

74. The pH of a solution is 5. If the dilution of this solution is increased by 100 times,

the pH value will be :

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8

75. The required amount of oxygen for combustion of 20 ml. of gaseous

hydrocarbon is 50 ml. The hydrocarbon will be :

(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4 (3) C2H6 (4) C3H4

76. The formula of Celestine is :

(1) SrSO4 (2) SrCO3 (3) SrO (4) SrCl2

77. CuCl2 + →→ Cu + Cl2. The required amount of electricity for this reaction is :

(1) 4 faraday (2) 2 faraday (3) 1 faraday (4) 3 faraday

78. Nitrogen does not forms NF5 because :

(1) The bondenergy of N≡N is very high

(2) Vaccent d-orbitals are not present

(3) N belongs to V group

(4) There is inert effect

79. The normal temperature when raised by 100

(1) lowered by 2 times

(2) increased by 2 times

(3) lowered by 10 times

(4) increased by 10 times

80. Which of the following gives red precipitate with ammonical cuprous

chloride :

(1) Propane (2) Ethane (3) Methane (4) Acetylene



81. [Cu(NH3)4]

(1) dsp2

82. A solution contains CI-, I-

capable to precipitate all of above when added in this solution :

(1) Pb2+ (2) Ba2+ (3) Hg2+ (4) Cu2+

83. Fool’s gold is :

(1) Cu2S (2) FeS2 (3) Al2O5 (4) CuFeS2

84. In which of the following compound the central atom is in sp2

(1) OF2 (2) HgCl2 (3) XeF2 (4) NH2

85. The number of alkenyl groups possible from C4H7

(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 8

86. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol is works as :

(1) Cooling agent

(2) Anti knocking agent

(3) Bleaching agent

(4) None of these

87. The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as :

(1) dehydrogenation (2) dehydration (3) esterification (4) saponification

88. The degree of ionization of 0.4 M acetic acid will be : (Ka = 1.8 x 10-5)

(1) 6.71 x 10-3 (2) 1.6x10-3

(3) 0.4x1.8x10-5 (4) 1.8x10-5

89. Haber process is used for production of which of the following :

(1) NH3 (2) HNO3 (3) H2SO4 (4) O3

90. The pka value of phenolphthalein is 9.1 and the pH range is 8-10. In which of

the following titrations it can be used as an indicator :

(1) NH4OHand HCI

(2) NH4OH and CH3COOH

(3) NaOH and HCI

(4) NH4OH

91. Number of electrons in a one molecule of CO2 :

(1) pb2+ (2) Hg2+ (3) Ba2+ (4) Cu2+



92. Which of the following species shows the maximum magnetic moment :

(1) Mn+6 (2) Ni2+ (3) Fe3+ (4) Ag+

93. K sp value of CaF2 is 3.75 x 1011 The solubility will be :



(1) 1.45x10-11 mol/litre-1 (2) 3.45x10-4 mol/liter-1

(3) 2.05x10-4 mol/liter-1

(4) 3.75 x 10-11 mol/liter-1

94. When Pb3O4 is heated with dilute H N O3 it gives :

(1) pbO2 and pb(NO3)2

(2) pbO and pb(NO3)2

(3) pbO2

(4) pbO

95. C-H bond length is least in :

(1) Acetylene (2) Methane (3) Ethylene (4) Ethane

96. The minimum nos. of carbon atoms in ketones which will show chain

isomerism will be :

(1) Seven (2) four (3) six (4) five

97. Which of the following organic compound could not be dried by anhydrous

CaCI2 :

(1) ethanol (2) benzene (3) chloroform (4) ethyl acetate

98. Which of the following compound forms white precipitate with bromine

water :

(1) Nitrobenzene (2) Phenol (3) Benzene (4) all above

99. Gypsum is :

(1) CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4. 2H2O

(3) 2CaSO4. 2H2O (4) CaSO4

100.Which of the following carbonium ion is most stable :

+ +

(1) CH3-CCH3 (2) CH3CH2

CH3

+ +

(3) CH30CH-CH3 (4) CH3

1.(2) 2.(3) 3.(3) 4.(2) 5.(2) 6.(4) 7.(1) 8.(3) 9.(1) 10.(4) 11.(1)

12.(1) 13.(2) 14.(4) 15.(2) 16.(4) 17.(3) 18.(2) 19.(2) 20.(2) 21.(1) 22.(2)

23.(3) 24.(4) 25.(4) 26.(3) 27.(3) 28.(3) 29.(2) 30.(3) 31.(3) 32.(1) 33.(2)

34.(3) 35.(2) 36.(3) 37.(2) 38.(1) 39.(4) 40.(4) 41.(3) 42(3) 43.(3) 44.(2)

45.(3) 46.(3) 47.(1) 48.(1) 49.(1) 50.(1) 51.(2) 52.(1) 53.(2) 54.(3) 55.(3)

56.(3) 57.(4) 58.(3) 59.(3) 60.(1) 61.(1) 62.(3) 63.(3) 64.(3) 65.(4) 66.(1)

67.(3) 68.(1) 69.(1) 70.(2) 71.(3) 72.(4) 73.(4) 74.(2) 75.(1) 76.(2) 77.(2)

78.(2) 79.(2) 80.(4) 81.(1) 82.(1) 83.(2) 84.(4) 85.(4) 86.(2) 87.(4) 88.(1)

89.(1) 90.(3) 91.(1) 92.(3) 93.(3) 94.(1) 95.(1) 96.(4) 97.(1) 98.(2) 99.(2)

100.(1)
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