ESIC Pharmacist Exam question papers

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EASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE
1. Captain' is related to a Team' in the same way as Director' is related to
(1) Supervisor (2) Employee
(3) Organisation (4) Union
(5) Customer
2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt (2) Child
(3) Father (4) Niece
(5) Relation
3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
4. If fork' is called plate', plate' is called 'knife', knife' is called jug', jug' is called glass', glass' is called cup' and cup' is called fork', by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon (2) jug
(3) glass (4) saucer
(5) none of these
5. If a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word XRAY'?
(1) 33 (2) 40
(3) 37 (4) 73
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD
(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD
(5) None of these
7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seeta (2) Geeta
(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal
(3) Raman (4) Harry
(5) Cannot be determined
9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with T' and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Two (4) None
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J
11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 8
(5) None of these
13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) # (2) 7
(3) U (4) 9
(5) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) G$M (2) K9Q
(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU
(5) PCI
16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means he has won','le ki ba' means she has lost' and in se pe' means he always won'. Which word in that language means he'?
(1) in (2) pe
(3) se (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister (2) Cousin
(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO
(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO
(5) None of these
19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # «
(3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ?
(5) None of these
20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREADBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO
(5) None of these
Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:
Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits Go' advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice
(vi)
21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa (2) Kamal
(3) Aman (4) Priyanka
(5) None of these
22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer
(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap
(5) Come-watch
23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go (2) Fun
(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches
(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun
(5) None of these
25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates (2) Watches
(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours
(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these
28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 11 (4) 13
(5) 9
29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT
(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these
30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.
(1) 9 (2) 21
(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. None of these'.

Letters M Q I N E Y U G R
Numeric Codes 2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?
31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?
(3) 17328 (4) ?7328
(5) None of these
32. GENIR
(1) ?173? (2) 6%39
(3) 6%79 (4) 61739
(5) None of these
33. QUERI
(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?
(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?
(5) None of these
34. EINUM
(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42
(3) 1374? (4) 1%43
(5) None of these
35. UNGRE
(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś
(3) 47691 (4) Ś7691
(5) None of these
Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:
Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
41. How is cricket' written in a code language?
I. Dinesh play cricket' is written as do si ha'.
II. play cricket now' is written as ha si ma'.
42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
43. When is Rahul's birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house.
Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972
(3) 526 (4) 487
(5) 251
47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) None of these
48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two
(3) One (4) Three
(5) All five
49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359
(3) 487 (4) 526
(5) 972
50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526
(3) 487 (4) 251
(5) 359
Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning

1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)
41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)

1. Who was appointed as the new Director of the country's external intelligence agency, the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) recently?
a) Vikram Sood
b) Ashok Chaturvedi
c) P.K. Hormis Tharakan
d) C. D. Sahay
e) Sanjeev Tripathi
Answer 1:
Sanjeev Tripathi, who heads the Aviation Research Centre (ARC), was on December 30, 2010 appointed new Director of the country's external intelligence agency, the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) for a two year term. He takes over from the present Director, K. C. Verma, who has expressed his desire to quit a month ahead of his tenure ending on January 31, 2011.
2. Who was appointed as the new president of the Editors Guild of India recently?
a) T.N. Ninan
b) Commi Kapoor
c) Shekhar Gupta
d) Suresh Bafna
e) Arnab Goswami
Answer 2:
The Chairman and Editorial Director of Business Standard, T.N. Ninan was elected President of the Editors Guild of India at the annual general body organised in Delhi on December 31, 2010. Commi Kapoor of Indian Express was retained as general secretary while Suresh Bafna of Nai Duniya was elected treasurer. Ninan succeeds Rajdeep Sardesai of CNN-IBN, while Bafna takes over from senior editor Rohit Bansal. In its continuing campaign against paid news, the Guild decided to post on its website from February 1 the names of those members who sign affidavits pledging against indulging in this pernicious practice.
3. Sudhir Chandra was appointed to which of the following positions recently?
a) Chairman, Securities Appellate Tribunal
b) Chairman, Finance Commission
c) Director General of Foreign Trade
d) Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes
e) Chairman, SEBI
Answer 3:
The CBDT will have a new Chairman in Sudhir Chandra, who has been Member (Investigation) since February 2009. Chandra, a 1973-batch Indian Revenue Services officer, assumed charge as CBDT chairman on December 31, 2010.
4. Which of the following statements about the agreement on Indo-Russian Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA) project signed during the visit of Russian President Dmitry Medvedev recently, is/are correct?
I. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd is the Indian company in the project
II. United Aircraft Corporation (MiG) is the Russian company in the project
III. The production of FGFA will be the biggest defence programme ever in the history of India
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) I and III only
e) I, II and III only
Answer 4:
President of Russia, Dmitry Medvedev visited India on 21-22 December 2010 for the 10th Annual Summit meeting under the India Russia Strategic Partnership. A Contract for Preliminary Design of the Indo-Russian Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA) was signed between Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Rosoboronexport and Sukhoi on December 21, 2010. The broad scope of bilateral cooperation during the joint project covers the design & development of the PMF (Perspective Multi-role Fighter), its production and joint marketing to the friendly third countries. The total cost including options and the value of production aircraft will make this the biggest Defence programme ever in the history of India involving production of over 200-250 aircraft.
5. Which state’s Tourism department organised the annual Pinjore Heritage Festival recently?
a) Himachal Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Bihar
e) Haryana
Answer 5:
Pinjore Heritage Festival was organised by Haryana tourism at Yadavindra Gardens, Pinjore, from December 17 to 19, 2010.
6. Which of the following statements is are correct about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS)?
I. It will facilitate real-time access of classified criminal data to law enforcement authorities
II. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the nodal central agency mandated to implement the network in all the states
III. It became operational recently
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) I and III only
e) III only
Answer 6:
The government will roll out its crime-tracking network by September 2011 to help enforcement and police officials speed up probe and facilitate real-time access of classified criminal data. The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) will benefit collection, storage, retrieval, analysis, transfer and sharing of data and information between police stations, state HQs and central police organizations. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the nodal central agency mandated to implement the network in all the states in collaboration with other enforcement agencies like the IB, the CBI, the ED and customs. The CCTNS will enhance transparency and would enable real-time analysis of criminals and crime incidents. “We are putting in place the hardware and software at police stations and control rooms so that the initial data can be fed onto the systems and individual database of police agencies and others is uploaded,” NCRB director general N. K. Tripathi said in December 2010.
7. The U.N. General Assembly has proclaimed 2011 as the International Year of _______.
a) Forests
b) Water Resources
c) Biodiversity
d) Marine life
e) Indigenous Tribes
Answer 7:
The United Nations General Assembly declared 2011 as the International Year of Forests to raise awareness on sustainable management, conservation and sustainable development of all types of forests.
8. Which of the following was observed on January 15, 2011?
a) Army Day
b) Navy Day
c) Air Force Day
d) Coast Guard Day
e) None of the above
Answer 8:
The 63rd Indian Army Day was celebrated on January 15, 2011. The Indian Army Day is celebrated Jan 15 every year in recognition of Lieutenant General - and later the Field Marshal - late K.M. Cariappa taking over as the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from General Sir Francis Butcher, the last British Commander, in 1949.
9. Which of the following statements is/are correct about India’s external debt as on September 30, 2010?
I. Commercial borrowings accounted for the highest share of India’s external debt
II. Short-term debt accounted for less than one-fourth of India’s total external debt
III. India’s external debt on Sept end 2010 showed an increase over the figure in March end 2010
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) I and III only
e) I, II and III only
Answer 9:
At end-September 2010, India’s external debt was US$ 295.8 billion reflecting an increase of 12.8 per cent over the level of US$ 262.3 billion at end-March 2010. The long-term debt increased by 9.5 per cent to US$ 229.8 billion, while short-term debt showed an increase of 25.8 per cent to US$ 66.0 billion.
Short-term debt accounted for 22.3 per cent of India’s total external debt while the rest 77.7 per cent was long-term debt.
Component-wise, the share of commercial borrowings stood highest at 27.8 per cent followed by NRI deposits (16.9 per cent) and multilateral debt (15.8 per cent). Government (Sovereign) external debt was US$ 72.3 billion (24.4 per cent of total external debt) at end-September 2010 as against US$ 67.1 billion (25.6 per cent) at end-March 2010.
The ratio of short-term external debt to foreign exchange reserves was 22.5 per cent at end-September 2010 as compared to 18.8 per cent at end-March 2010.
10. The Union Ministry of Finance has decided to phase out the circulation of coins of denomination of below _____ with effect from June 30, 2011.
a) 5 Rupee
b) 2 Rupee
c) 1 Rupee
d) 50 paise
e) 25 paise
Answer 10:
The Union Ministry of Finance has notified on December 20, 2010 to phase out the circulation of coins of denomination of below 50 paise with effect from June 30, 2011. From this date, these coins shall cease to be a legal tender for payment as well as on account. The procedure for call in shall be notified separately by the Reserve Bank of India. Consequently, from June 30, 2011 onwards these coins will not be accepted in transactions. The minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction will be 50 paise from that date.

Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68.
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69.
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70.
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
73.
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs. 108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4)
(5)
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)


1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If P Q' means P is wife of Q', P+Q' means P is father of Q' and P Q' means P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
' means x', $ means +', # means ' and ©' means - then what is the value of12. If
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows:
A © B' means A is smaller than B'
A # B' means A is either smaller than or equal to B'
A « B' means A is greater than B'
A $ B' means A is either greater than or equal to B'
A @ B' means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language play and dance' is written as ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these

Can you please provide me the previous year question papers of ESIC Pharmacist Exam?

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ESIC Pharmacist Exam question paper

The question paper consists of total 120 questions.

All questions carry equal marks.

Each question carries 1 mark.

There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks.


ESIC Pharmacist Exam question paper







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Can you provide me the previous year Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) - Question paper of Pharmacist (Allopathy) Post Examination?

The previous year Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) - Question paper of Pharmacist (Allopathy) Post Examination is as follows:


(1).Crystalluria is the side effect associated with:
1. Quinolones 
2. Azoles
3. Sulphonamides
4. Taxol

(2). The Drugs and Cosmetic Act was passed in:
1. 1940
2. 1945
3. 1947
4. 1946

(3). Which of the following is a female sex hormone?
1. Stilbesterol
2. Testosterone
3. Estrogen
4. Benzesterol

(4).Chloroquine is a:
1. 4-Amino Quinoline
2. Acridine
3. Biguanide
4. Pyrimidine

(5). In the pediatric dose calculation, children in the first twenty days of birth comes under the class of:
1. Infant 
2. Child
3. Neonatal
4. Just born

(6). A naturally occurring carminative is:
1. Asafoetida
2. Asoka
3. Arjuna
4. Agar

(7). The meaning of Latin term Rx:
1. Take thou 
2. when necessary
3. send
4. write

(8). The DPO (Drug Price Control Order) was exercised by central government in:
1. 1985
2. 1995
3. 1987
4. 1997

(9). Myocardium is a special muscle tissue found only in the:
1. Brain
2. Heart 
3. Stomach
4. Lungs

(10). Ths schedule to which 'List of drugs to be sold on prescription only' belong to:
1. Schedule L
2. Schedule W
3. Schedule X
4. Schedule M

(11). Mannitol is:
1. Loop diuretic
2. Osmotic diuretic
3. Potassium sparing diuretic
4. Carbonic anhydrase diuretic

(12). The formulations used for dental hygiene are known as:
1. Insufflation
2. Snuffs
3. Cachets
4. Dentifrices

(13). Erythroblastosis foetalis arises due to the incompatibility in the: 
1. Lymph
2. Blood
3. Synovial fluid
4. Bile

(14). A parenteral anticoagulant drug is:
1. Penicillin
2. Phfenindione
3. Warfarin
4. Heparin

(15). Drugs and Magic Remedies act was passed in:
1. 1956
2. 1954
3. 1952
4. 1953

(16). A non-drug part added to formulation to aid dilution, stability maintaining, taste masking etc. is known as:
1. Presensitive
2. Active ingredient
3. Additive
4. Binding agent

(17). Tropaue alkaloids can be identified by:
1. Thalloquin test
2. Vitali test
3. Biuret test
4. Millon's test

(18). The powerhouse of the cell is:
1. Golgi bodies
2. Mitochondria
3. Ribosomes
4. Nucleus

(19). Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine?
1. Diazepam
2. Nitrazepam
3. Zolpidem
4. Triazolam

(20). Which of the following is a natural emulsifying agent obtained from vegetable source?
1. Starch
2. Gelatin
3. Egg yolk
4. Wool fat

(21). A chelating agent used in the case of poisoning is:
1. Sodium phosphate
2. Dimercaprol
3. Ferroin
4. Bismuth subnitrate

(22). Filter sheets made of cellulose are:
1. Seitz filter
2. Membrane filter
3. Glass fiber filter
4. Sintered glass filter

(23). One fluid ounce is:
1. 60 ml
2. 15 ml
3. 30 ml
4. 10 ml

(24). The plant drug which is oxytoxic:
1. Ergot
2. Kurchi
3. Vinca
4. Cocaine

(25). The diagnostic agent used for the functioning of thyroid gland:
1. Fe-59
2. I-131
3. Co-60
4. P-32

(26). The constituent of cholesterol termed as bad cholesterol is:
1. HDL
2. LDL
3. VLDL
4. Triglycerides

(27). Sterols belong to the class of:
1. Lipids
2. Waxes
3. Carbohydrates
4. Proteins

(28). Hepatitis is a:
1. Bacterial infection
2. Protozoal infection
3. Fungal infection
4. Viral infection

(29). A leukotriene receptor antagonist used in allergic cough is:
1. Rofecoxib
2. Theophylline
3. Losartsn
4. Montelukast

(30). The sulphonamide used for bum Therapy is:
1. Sulfadiazine
2. Sulfadoxine
3. Sulfacetamide
4. Sulfapyridine

(31). A hypotonic solution can be made isotonic by The addition of:
1. Sodium chloride
2. Potassium chloride
3. Calcium chloride
4. Magnesium chloride

(32). The pathogenic organism in milk is killed by:
1. Tyndalization
2. Pasteurization
3. Autoclaving
4. Dry heat sterilization

(33). Agents promoting easy bowel evacuation is termed as:
1. Protective
2. Antacids
3. Adsorbents
4. Laxatives

(34). Morphine, codeine and thebaine is contained in:
1. Quassia
2. Kurchi
3. Gelatin
4. Opium

(35). Amantadine is the drug used as:
1. Antibacterial
2. Antiviral
3. Antifungal
4. Antiprotozoal

(36). The antifungal drug, fluconazole belongs to the class of:
1. Pyridine
2. Azoles
3. Pyrimidines
4. Acridines

(37). The first Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in:
1. 1948
2. 1960
3. 1955
4 1966

(38). Ranitidine is a :
1. H2 antagonist
2. HI antagonist
3. Beta adrenergic antagonist
4. Alpha adrenergic antagonist

(39). Creams are:
1. Emulsions 
2. Suspensions
3. Ointments
4. Pastes

(40). Ocuserts are:
1. Ear preparations
2. Nasal preparations
3. Oral preparations
4. Eye preparations

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