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Old March 29th, 2014, 10:33 AM
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Hello, as per your demand here I am providing you papers meet to your requirements:-

Union Bank of India Probationary
Officers Exam:-
IBPS CWE Practice Paper / Sample Paper
Subject: – Reasoning
Direction: Complete the following series with the alternatives provided in each question.
1. E P Y E J ? ?
(a) U, V (b) B, M (c) W, X (d) J, M (e) None of these
2. b a _ b a _ _ b b a a a _ b b b _ _ a a
(a) b a a b a b (b) b a b b a b (c) b b b a a a (d) b a b b a a (e) b a b a b a
Direction: Complete the following number series with the alternatives provided in each question.
3. 8, 1, 9, 10, 19, 29, ?, 27
(a) 38 (b) 48 (c) 40 (d) 52 (e) 32
4. 55, 54, 52, 49, ?, ?
(a) 48, 46 (b) 45, 40 (c) 45, 39 (d) 45, 38 (e) 46, 35
Direction: Study the following alpha-numeric arrangement and answer the question given below.
B 8 4 C R M 9 N P D K W F A 2 E J 7 X U Q H L T Y 6 G S
5. Complete the following sequence with reference to the above arrangement. BRC, 8MR, 49M, ?
(a) CNP (b) 4PN (c) 4N9 (d) None of these (e) 7XU
Direction: Answer the question with reference to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below.
2 P J @ 8 $ L B 1 V # Q 6 & G W 9 K C D 3 = f 5 F R 7 A Y 4
6. How many symbol and number is there in the sequence which are either immediately preceded or followed by the letter from the first half of the English alphabet?
(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 10 (e) 9
Direction: Answer the following one is similar in relation to their position right symbol/letter/number. Now, how many letters are there in the sequence which are immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a symbol?
E K M 3 P 5 R T V Z 9 D I F Q X 4 6 G H J 2 8 W
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regard to their position in the above sequence. Which is unlike the other four?
(a) 3E (b) 73 (c) F9 (d) 4A (e) 4H
8. ACDE : OGHI : : ESTU : ?
(a) ABCD (b) EPQU (c) XYZE (d) HKGO (e) PQAB
9. ‘Coal’ is related to ‘heat’ in the same ways as ‘wax’ is related to
(a) Honey (b) Bee (c) Light (d) Energy (e) Candle
10. Clay is to pottery, as gold is to
(a) Women (b) Goldsmith (c) Ornaments (d) Metal (e) Diamond
Direction: Find the odd one among the following.
11. (a) H G F E (b) P O N M (c) D C B A (d) M S T U (e) None of these
Direction: Find the odd one out.
12. (a) 2397 (b) 3729 (c) 4578 (d) 9732 (e) 8327
Direction: Find the odd one out.
13. (a) Lung (b) Kidney (c) Liver (d) Eyes (e) None of these
14. (a) Maize (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Sugarcane (e) None of these
Direction: Study the codes given below and based on the same code, solve the question that follows.

15. If 135 604 = 43056 and 27 698 = 82976, then 32 864 = ?
(a) 43682 (b) 43628 (c) 82643 (d) 82634 (e) 82682
Direction: Study the code given below for ‘CIRULATED’ and based on the same coede, draw up codes for the following words.
Word: CIRCULATED
Code: ektwncx
16. HATED/HATEDLY
(a) icufemz (b) jcxna (c) jcvgfna (d) icuxmz (e) ijfezm
Direction: Given below are combinations of an operation and an operand.
(A) means ‘÷ 3’ (B) means ‘× 3’;
(C) means ‘- 3’; (D) means ‘+ 3’;
(E) means ‘÷ 2’; (F) means ‘× 2’;
(G) means ‘- 1’; (H) means ‘+ 2’;
Select the appropriate choice to replace the question mark in the equations.
17. 18 × 3 ÷ 2 + 3 < 27 (?)
(a) (D) followed by (A) (b) (A) followed by (G)
(c) (D) followed by (G) (d) (D) followed by (H)
(e) None of these
Direction: In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is ‘&’ and for 1 (one) is ‘$’. There is no other number than one. The numbers greater than 1 are to be written only by using the two symbols given above. The value of the symbols for 1 doubles itself every time it shifts one place to the left. Study the following example.
0 is written as &; 1 is written as #; 2 is written as #&;
3 is written as ##; and 4 is written as #&& and so on.
18. Which of the following numbers will be represented by ##&#?
(a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 12 (e) None of these
Direction: In each question below, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each underlined letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. Find the code for the underlined letter. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.
19. PRISM
(a) r (b) o (c) h (d) q (e) i
20. A is the father of X. B is the mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following statements is definitely not true?
(a) B is the wife of A (b) B has one daughter
(c) Y is the son of A (d) X is the sister of Z
(e) B is the mother of Z
Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are six people in a family (A, B, C, D, E, F).
(ii) C is the wife of B and the mother of F.
(iii) F is the granddaughter of E.
(iv) D is the grandmother of A and the mother of B.
(v) There are two married couples in the family.
21. Which of the following is true?
(a) A is the sister of F (b) A is the brother of F
(c) B has two daughters (d) none of these
(e) F is father of A
Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, and F are six members of a family
(ii) One is a student, one housewife, one doctor, one teacher, one lawyer, and one engineer.
(iii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iv) B is a teacher and the mother of C.
(v) D is the grandmother of C and is a housewife.
(vi) F is a lawyer and is the father of A.
(vii) C is the brother of A. E is the father of F and is a doctor.
(viii) E is the father of F and is a doctor.
22. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(a) A is an engineer (b) E is the father of the teacher
(c) D is the mother of the teacher (d) F is the father of the engineer
(e) C is the father of the engineer
Direction: Using the following information, answer the questions given below.
(i) In a family of six (1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6), there are two married couples.
(ii) 4 is the grandmother of 1 and the mother of 2.
(iii) 3 is the wife of 2 and the mother of 6.
(iv) 6 is the granddaughter of 5.
23. Which of the following is true?
(a) 1 is the sister of 6 (b) 1 is the brother of 6
(c) 2 has two daughters (d) 4 has two grandchildren
(e) 3 is sister of 6
24. Vandana starts walking towards the east and, after covering a distance of 20 m, she turns left and runs for 15 m. She then turns to her right and moves 25 m. From here, she again turns right and walks for 15 m. How far is she from the starting point?
(a) 40 m (b) 45 m (c) 50 m (d) 60 m (e) 20 m
25. Rohit is as much younger to Neelu as he is older to Prince. If the sum of the ages of Neelu and Prince is 48 years, how old is Rohit?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32 (e) 22
Direction: There are 125 cubes of similar size arranged in the form of a bigger cube (5 cubes on each side, that is, 5 5 5). From one corner of the top layer of this cube, four smaller cubes (2 2 1) are removed. From the column on the opposite side, two cubes (1 1 2) are removed. From the third corner too, three cubes (1 1 3) are removed, and from the fourth column four cubes (1 1 4) are removed. All exposed faces of the block thus formed are coloured red.
26. A cube is painted green on all sides. It is then cut into 64 cubes of equal size. How many of these smaller cubes are painted on one side only?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24 (e) 12
Direction: Answer the following questions based on the letter-number sequence given gelow.
E K M 3 P 5 7 R T V Z 9 D 1 F Q X 4 6 G H J 2 8 W
27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the seventh letter/number from the left end and the ninth letter/number from the right end of the above sequence?
(a) D (b) 9
(c) 1 (d) there is no such letter/number
(e) None of these
28. If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the next letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in a word?
(a) None (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1 (e) None of these
Direction: Answer the following questions based on the symbol-letter-number sequence given below.
2 P J @ 8 $ L B 1 V # Q 6 d G W 9 K C D 3 . D £ 5 F R 7 A Y 4
29. How many symbols and numbers are there in the sequence which are ei-there immediately preceded or immediately followed by the letter which is from the first half of the English alphabet?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) None of these
30. In the word CONTRACTUAL, the positions of the first and the eleventh letters and interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and tenth letters are interchanged and so on upto the positions of fifth and seventh letters are interchanged keeping the position of sixth letter unchanged. Which letter will be the third to the right of the sixth letter from the left end?
(a) T (b) N (c) U (d) A (e) None of these
Direction: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both are statements and give answer (i) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (ii) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (iii) if the data either in statement I or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (iv) if the data in both the statement together is not sufficient to answer the question.
Given answer (v) if the data in both statements I and II together and needed to answer the question.
31. Who among Satish, Vilas, Jayant and Naresh is the tallest?
I. Satish is taller than Jayant who is not as tall as Vilas but is taller than Naresh.
II. Vilas is not taller than Satish.
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (e) (v)
Direction: In an office there are eight sections named I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, and VIII. No visitor is allowed to visit one section for more than an hour. If a visitor has to visit more than one section he has to come back to the security officer to get a fresh visitor’s pass by surrendering the earlier section’s pass.
Every hour the security officer generates seven passwords for all sections by choosing a set of seven words, which is used for Section I which is the reception-cum-visitors hall. Following is an illustration of the generation of seven passwords for each section:
Section I : sri am cue way meat fro le
II : le cue am way meat fro sri
III : cue le way am meat sri cue
IV : fro way le am meat sri cue
V : way fro am le meat cue sri and so on till Section VIII.
32. A visitor wanted to visit Section VI but he was wrongly given the password for Section IV ‘ear two it rye sit he wu’. What would be his correct password for Section VI, if hourly password remains the same?
(a) he rye ear it sit wu two (b) two ear rye it sit wu he
(c) wu it two rye siot he ear (d) rye he it ear sit two wu
(e) None of these
33. From a point, Rajneesh started walking towards east and walked 35 m. He then turned towards his right and walked 20m and he again turned right and walked 35 m. Finally he turned to his left and walked 20 m and he reached his destination. Now, how far is he from his starting point?
(a) 50 m (b) 55 m (c) 20 m (d) 40 m (e) None of these
34. Manish remembers that his father had called him after the 16th but before the 21st of the month, while Suresh remembers that father had called after the 19th but before the 22nd. On which date had father called?
(a) 10th (b) 17th (c) 20th (d) 19th (e) None of these
35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a)Kanpur (b) Chennai (c) Dispur (d) Kolkata (e) Jaipur
36. A man walks 30 m towards south, then turning to his right, he walks 30 m. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 m. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 m. How far is he from his initial position?
(a) 80 m (b) 60 m (c) 30 m (d) 20 m (e) None of these
Direction: Study the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and answer the following question:
(A) 1, 5, 9 means ‘You better go.’
(B) 1, 6, 7 means ‘Better come here.’
(C) 5, 6, 7 means ‘You come here.’
(D) 1, 5, 6 means ‘Better you here.’
(E) 3, 7, 9 means ‘Come and go.’
37. Which of the following group of minimum statements are necessary to find the code number for ‘better’?
(a) A and B (b) D and E (c) C and D (d) B and E (e) None of these
38. Ram walks 10 m south from his house, turns left and walks 25, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach his school. In which direction is the school from his house?
(a) South-west (b) North-east (c) East (d) North (e) South-east
Direction: Read the following and answer the questions given below it.
In a certain code language: (i) ‘481’ means ‘Sky is blue’; (ii) ‘246’ means ‘Sea is deep’; and (iii) ‘698’ means ‘Sea looks blue’.
39. What number is the code for ‘looks’?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 9 (e) 2
40. Shivani’s mother was three times older than Shivani 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be twice as old as Shivani. How old is Shivani today?
(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 15 years (d) 12 years (e) 18 years
41. A directional post is erected on a crossing. In an accident, it was turned in such a way that the arrow which was first showing east is now showing sough. A passerby went in a wrong direction thinking it is west. In which direction is he actually traveling now?
(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West (e) South-east
Direction: Select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair.
42. Cells: Cytology
(a) Worm: Ornithology (b) Insect: Entomology
(c) Disease: Anatomy (d) Tissue: Physiognomy
(e) None of these
Direction: In the following questions, three similar words have been given. Choose a suitable description for these words from the options provided.
43. Sandy rock, Lime rock, Coal
(a) These are made of metamorphic rocks
(b) These are chemical minerals
(c) These are situated on the banks of rivers
(d) These are made of sedimentary rocks
(e) None of these
Direction: Find the odd man out.
44. (a) Earth (b) Moon (c) Venus (d) Mars (e) Uranus
Direction: Find the missing number in each of the following question.
45. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, … ?
(a) 48 (b) 42 (c) 40 (d) 36 (e) 38
Direction: Choose the alternative which has the same relationship as the first two pairs.
46. Chromate : Chromium : : Ilmenite : ?
(a) Lime (b) Cobalt (c) Manganese (d) Titanium (e) Alluminium
47. Ram’s age was square of a number last year and it will be cube of a number next year. How long must he wait before his age is again the cube of a number?
(a) 39 years (b) 10 years (c) 38 years (d) 64 years (e) 32 years
48. Arrange the following in a meaningful order:
Doctor, Fever, Medicine, Medical Shop
(a) Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever, Doctor
(b) Fever, Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine
(c) Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever
(d) Medicine, Doctor, Medical Shop, Fever
(e) Medical Shop, Medicine, Doctor, Fever
49. TLRIA is related to Would in the same way as YBVLKA is related to
(a) Matter (b) Before (c) Beyond (d)Normal (e) After
50. I am facing the North East-direction. I turn 90o clockwise, then 180o anticlockwise, and then another 90o in the same direction. Which direction am I facing now?
(a) West (b) South (c) South-west (d) South-east (e) East
Answer of these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D B B C C E B C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C C D B B D C A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B B D D E C C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
E A D C A E A B D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B D B A D C B C C


IBPS Clerk Practice Paper / Sample Paper
Subject: – Mathematics
1. The difference between the place values of 7 in the numeral 574873 is
(a) 69930 (b) 59930 (c) 96390 (d) 69305 (e) None of these
2. (387 387+114 114+2 387 114) = (?)
(a) 250001 (b) 251001 (c) 260110 (d) 261001 (e) None of these
3. A trader has three types of oils: 400 litres and 465 litres, respectively. If he wants to fill them separately in tins of equal capacity, what is the least number so tins required?
(a) 42 (b) 21 (c) 7 (d) 84 (e) None of these
4. The length and breadth of a room are 13m and 7.5m, respectively. The floor of the room is to be paved with square tiles of uniform size. Determine the length of the largest possible size of the tile.
(a) 1.0 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 5.0 (e) 6.0
5. If the unit digit in the product (459 46 28? 484) is 2, the digit in place of ?is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) None of these
6. Which one of the following numbers is not a square of any natural number?
(a) 17956 (b) 18225 (c) 53361 (d) 63592 (e) None of these
7. A third of Vinod’s marks in mathematics exceeds a half of his marks in social studies by 30. If he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in social studies?
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 90 (e) None of these
8. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period is
(a) 42 minutes (b) 48 minutes (c) 51 minutes (d) 53 minutes (e) None of these

9. If (64)2-(36)2= 20z, the value of z is
(a) 70 (b) 180 (c) 120 (d) 50 (e) None of these
10. What number should replace both the asterisks in (?/21 ?/189) = 1?
(a) 21 (b) 63 (c) 147 (d) 3969 (e) 4968
11. Which one of the following fractions is the smallest?
(a) 13/16 (b) 15/19 (c) 17/21 (d) 7/8 (e) None of these
12. If the difference between the 4/5th part and 1/3rd part of a number is 4 what is the number?
(a) 60 (b) 100 (c) 80 (d) 120 (e) None of these

13. If x and y are +ive integers such that (3x+7y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following will also be divisible by 11?
(a0 4x+6y (b) x+y+4 (c) 9x+4y (d) 4x-9y (e) None of these
14. If x and y are the two digits of the number 653 xy such that this number is divisible by so, then x+y is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) None of these
15. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube?
(a) 9 (b) 50 (c) 300 (d) 450 (e) 500
16. What may be substracted from 39468 to make it perfect square?
(a) 192 (b) 264 (dc) 246 (d) 280 (e) None of these
17. 1399 1399=?
(a) 1687401 (b) 1901541 (c) 1943211 (d) 1957201 (e) None of these
18. The product of two numbers is y/x. IF one of the numbers is x/y2, then the other one is
(a) y3/x2 (b) y2/x3 (c) x2/y (d) x/y2 (e) x2/y2
19. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has. If the average money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has
(a) Rs 55 (b) Rs 60 (c) Rs 90 (d) Rs 180 (e) Rs 200
20. A cricketer has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing his average by 8 runs. His new average is
(a) 20 runs (b) 24 runs (c) 28 runs (d) 32 runs (e) None of these
21. A number when divided by 296 gives a remainder 75. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 37?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 6 (e) 8
22. What will be the sum of all odd numbers between 30 and 50?
(a) 625 (b) 400 (c) 225 (d) 500 (e) 600
23. In an election between two candidates, a candidate who gets 40 percent of total votes is defeated by 15000 votes. The number of votes polled by the winning candidate is
(a) 6000 (b) 10000 (c) 22500 (d) 45000 (e) 10% increase
24. The population of a town increases by 15 percent annually. If its population was 8000 in 1995, what would it be in 1997?
(a) 9200 (b) 10400 (c) 9600 (d) 10580 (e) None of these
25. What will be the sum of all the even numbers between 1 and 60?
(a) 870 (b) 960 (c) 840 (d) 720 (e) None of these
26. Find the largest number of five digits which is divisible by 17.
(a) 99999 (b) 99960 (c) 99994 (d) 10013 (e) 10014
27. A sum of money was divided between A, B and C, such that when A gets Re 1 then B gets 65 paise and C gets 40 paise. If C’s share be Rs 40 then what is that sum of money?
(a) Rs 82 (b) Rs 126.15 (c) Rs 105 (d) Rs 205 (e) Rs 305
28. Marks obtained by Komal in English are equal to 1/3rd of marks obtained by her in Music. Total marks obtained by her in both the subjects is 160. How many marks did she secure in Music?
(a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 90 (e) 100
29. How many numbers up to three digits are divisible by 19?
(a) 48 (b) 47 (c) 25 (d) 52 (e) 54
30. What is the largest prime number by which 871 is exactly divisible?
(a) 13 (b) 1 (c) 67 (d) 871 (e) None of these
31. Vivek purchased 120 tables at a price of Rs 110 per table. He sold 30 tables at a profit of Rs 12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of Rs 14 per table. The remaining tables were sold at a loss of Rs 7 per table. What is the average profit per table?
(a) Rs 12.875 (b) Rs 10.04 (c) 10.875 (d) Rs 12.80 (e) Rs 13.80
32. A book dealer allows 16 per cent discount to a retailer and the retailer allows 10 per cent discount to a customer. These both discounts are given on the printed price of the book. If the customer pays Rs 270 for a book and the dealer makes a profit of 5 per cent what is the cost price of the book for the dealer?
(a) Rs 252 (b) Rs 243 (c) Rs 240 (d) Rs 250 (e) Rs 350
33. The difference between the greatest and the least numbers of eight digits which begin with 8 and end with 6 is
(a) 99999999 (b) 10000000 (c) 80000006 (d) 9999996 (e) None of these
34. If a b=a2+b2 then 3 5 is equal to
(a) 16 (b) 34 (c) 8 (d) 15 (e) 18
35. The Simple interest on a sum of money at 8 per cent per annum for 6 years is half the sum. The sum is
(a) Rs 4800 (b) Rs 6000 (c) Rs 8000 (d) Rs 7000 (e) Data inadequate
36. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 5 per cent per annum simple interest to increase its value by 40 per cent?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) 8 years (e) 10 years
37. A number, when successively divided by 3 and 5, leaves remainder of 2 and 1, when the same number is divided by 15, the remainder is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 10
38. The numbers 1, 3, 5, ………., 25 are multiplied together. The numbers of zeros at the right end of the product is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 8
39. What will be the compound interest on Rs 240 for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum?
(a) Rs 19.20 (b) Rs 9.60 (c) Rs 19.18 (d) Rs 19.58 (e) Rs 20.58
40. Find the compound interest on Rs 15000 at 8 per cent per annum payable half-yearly for 1 year.
(a) Rs 1500 (b) Rs 1432 (c) Rs 1200 (d) Rs 1224 (e) Rs 1324
41. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work, is
(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 42 (e) 50
42. A and B can do a work in 10 days. B and C in 12 days while C and A in 15 days. How long would they take if all the three work together?
(a) 5days (b) 4 days (c) 7 days (d) 8 days (e) 10 days
43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in
(a) 18 min (b) 27 min (c) 38 min (d) 9 min (e) 10 min
44. In how many seconds a cyclist will pass a distance of 100 metres at the speed of 10 km/hr.
(a) 25 sec (b) 36 sec (c) 40 sec (d) 42 sec (e) 50 sec
45. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of
(a) 120o (b) 125o (c) 130o (d) 135o (e) 140o
46. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 44 (d) 48 (e) 50
47. Today is Tuesday. After 62 days it will be
(a) Wednesday (b) Monday (c) Thursday (d) Sunday (e) Tuesday
48. The day on March of 5 of a year is the same day on what date of the same year?
(a) 5th August (b) 5th October (c) 5 November (d) 5 December (e) None of these
49. A garden is 70 m long and 30 m wide. It is surrounded by a footpath 5 m wide outside. What is the area of the path?
(a) 2200 m2 (b) 1100 m2 (c) 550 m2 (d) 625 m2 (e) 700 m2
50. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is
(a) 81 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 36 cm (e) 40 cm

Answer of these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B A B C D D B D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D B D D B D A D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B D D A C D A D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C D B D D C B D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D A B C C B C B A


Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper
Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’ (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).
1. Hardly he reached/A) to his seat /B) than he /C) was called back by his boss/D). No error/E)
2. Baba Saheb Ambedakar rose/A) more highly than /B) his comtemporary political leaders/C) by sheer dint of merit/D). No error/E)
3. Politicians always are/A) indulged in/B) controversies/C) of sorts/D). No error/E)
4. It’s only later/A) that she’s been/B) well enough /C) to go out/D). No error/E)
5. She usually learns/A) language very quickly/B) but she did not seem/C) able to learn Sanskrit/D). No error/E)
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital leters. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters.
6. FIASCO
(a)empathy (b) animosity
(c) Swindle (d) success
(e) Petulance
7. ALTRUISM
(a) Surrogate (b) discord
(c) Selfishness (d) anarchy
(e) Savagery
8. PERFUNCTORY
(a) Prohibited (b) mean
(c) Thorough (d) petty
(e) Brazen
9. DEFINTE
(a) Indirect (b) vague
(c) Separate (d) acute
(e) Perfect
10. PLACID
(a) Depressed (b) feign
(c) Trifling (d) swayed
(e) Ruffled
Directions (Q. 11 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is nay error in it. Each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The error, if any, will be is one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer, if there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).
11. He will be/A) released from/b) the/C) prison after/D) a week. No error/E)
12. Finally/A), the government has succeeded to bring/B) about/C) consensus over/D) economic reforms. No error/E)
13. She knew/A) that/B) what her mother was/C) saying is/D) correct. No error/E)
14. Prof. Narayanan’s/A) command/B) both of his subject and his language/C) is/D) perfect. No error/E)
15. There was/A) violent protests against/B) Religious places bill both in/C)Delhiand/D) inlucknow. No error/E)
Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing. Select the answer from among the five options which produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact.
16. When the Mughal empire was on the decline, among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs.
(a) Among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs.
(b) Among the casualties, it claimed, were hundreds of Nawabs.
(c) Among the casualties it claimed, was the hundreds of Nawab.
(d) Among the casualties it claimed, were the hundreds of Nawab.
(e) Among the casualties it had claimed, was the hundreds of Nawabs.
17. Promod Mahajan is more vocal but not as competent as his senior party leaders.
(a) Is more vocal but not as competent as
(b) Is more vocal but not competent as
(c) Is more vocal than not competent as
(d) Is more vocal than but not as competent as
(e) More vocal but least competent than
18. Khushwant Singh was never come out from his sex obsession, his new novel. ‘In company of women’ is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex.
(a) Is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex?
(b) Has nothing than a fiction about cheap sex?
(c) Is nothing of a fiction on cheap sex?
(d) Is nothing but a fiction on cheap sex?
(e) Is about noting than a fiction on cheap sex.
19. Whether Suzuki will make a bid to the government stake will have to be weighed.
(a) A bid to the government stake will have to be weighed.
(b) A bid for the government stake will have to be weighed.
(c) A bid to the government stake will be weighed.
(d) A bid for the government stake will have weighed.
(e) A bid on the government stake will be weighed.
20. For some reason, women’s contribution to science, technology and literature are considerably lower than man.
(a) Are considerably lower than men.
(b) Are considerably lower to men.
(c) Is considerably lower than men.
(d) Is considerably lower than that of men.
(e) Are considerably lower to that of men.
Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of the questions below has a phrase/clause underlined. From the given options choose the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined part.
21. Please leave the door slighty open.
(a) Lewd (b) inclinatory
(c) Astray (d) ajar
(e) Chasm
22. The swindler used a series of false names.
(a) Delinquencies (b) aliases
(c) Masons (d) mates
(e) Alibi
23. Ill tempered bus conductor had brief noisy argument with a passenger.
(a) Transgression (b) burlesque
(c) Anodyne (d) parachronism
(e) (An) altercation
24. This situation is in every way different from the earlier situation.
(a) Enviably (b) altogether
(c) Specially (d) eternally.
(e) Banefully
25. Creation of rural character and atmosphere in drawing room is in vogue today.
(a) Amalgamation (b) muddle
(c) Ambience (d) modesty
(e) Arrangement
Directions (Q. 26 to 30): Arrange the following b, c, d and e sentences between (a) and (f) in a logical sequence in order to construct a logical coherent paragraph.
26. a. There is one but truly serious problem and that is suicide.
b. Judging whether life is worth living or not amounts to answering the fundamental problem of our existence.
c. As for me, I have come to believe that to die well requires greater moral stamina than to live well.
d. Heroism consists in facing death with equanimity.
e. Since in the beginning people have debated whether it is natural or perverse to escape from life’s difficulties.
f. And this reflects the highest qualities of a well resolved life.
(a) abcdef (b) acbdef
(c) adbcef (d) abecdf
(e) aebdcf
27. a, One such faith which seems well developed and has many oral texts that are beautiful is the faith of the tribals of Arunachal Pradesh.
b. Only the name is new.
c. They have in them the magic that lends itself graciously to piety.
d. Today the tribes have given it a name Donyipoloism.
e. Their sacred texts called’ a ‘abhangs’ are as old as the hills.
f. It has served them well in the difficult conditions on the eastern Himalayas where the life is hard and cold.
(a) abcdef (b) acbdef
(c) adbecf (d) aebdcf
(e) abedcf
28. a. Blame it on the cow or on the sun.
b. Australian scientists doing an inventory of green house gasses came up recently with methane emission.
c. Belching and flatulence in cows and sheep produce an estimated 90 percent ofAustralia’s methane emission in agricultural sector.
d. To every one’s astonishment they traced the source to Australia’s cattles which produce a six and half billion of methane annually, emitted largely through burps.
e. Never before has a hot environmental issue like global warning generated 50 many studies that seem intent on placing onus for our heated planet on sources ranging from the cattle to the cosmos.
f. Methane is said to be 25 percent more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2) in contributing to global warming.
(a) abcdef (b) acbdef
(c) adbcef (d) aebdcf
(e) acdebf
29. a. understandably, high profile business barons have begun lobbying for a change in SEBI’s takeover code.
b. This flies in the face of the logic.
c. Promoters are not required to hold 100 percent equity in a company to control it.
d. One of the suggestions is that raiders should be asked to make an open offer for 100 percent of the target’s equity, not just 20 percent.
e. Why should raiders be asked to do so?
f. Besides, it would become prohibitively expensive for potential predators to dislodge managements, regardless of their performance, and be a body blow to shareholders democracy.
(a) abcdef (b) acbdef
(c) acdebf (d) adbcef
(e) adecbf
30. a. The Indian hand-knoted carpet industry is a traditionally rural based cottage industry.
b. It is highly labour intensive and almost entirely export oriented.
c. It is when the migration of skilled craftsomer from Persia and Afghanistan took place.
d. The present dominant tradition of pile carpet goes back to 16th centery.
e. The patronage extended by Mughal rulers enabled the craft to take its root and flourish in India.
f. The newly revived carpet industy in India had to follow the traditional oriental style to compete in the market.
(a) abcdef (b) acbdef
(c) abdecf (d) adbcef
(e) abdcef
Directions (Q. 31 to 35): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words/ phrases. Choose a pair of words /phrases that fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence.
31. India was up for grabs and the only ———block was the English-who also——-imperial ambitions.
(a) Impeding; promoted (b) solid; encouraged
(c) Stumbling; fostered (d) limping; nurtured
(e) Mature; having
32. A———of guides surrounded me, all offering their services to ———me around the temple.
(a) Flock; tour (b) gaggle; escort
(c) Bundle; guide (d) multitude; chase
(e) Huddle; follow
33. Much love and —–had gone into ——–one of the most undignified diseases known to man.
(a) Devotion; submerging (b) care; enduring
(c) Sympathy; overpowering (d) discipline; defeating
34. And it was Clive who was given the job of ——-the ——–that was to become known as the black hole of Calcutta.
(a) Avenging; tragedy (b) revenging; incidence
(c) Placating; nawab (d) punishing; hooligans
(e) Managing; comedy
35. Then he ———–my hand and kissed it repeatedly found it all immensely —————.
(a) Held; quavering (b) grabbed; embarrassing
(c) Caught; inspiring (d) gobbled; sophisticated
(e) Swayed; annoying.
Directions (Q. 36 to 40): Each of the sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are given. Which, when inserted in the sentence, best fit in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
36. We admired the triumphant but we did not ———–what we knew we could not ———-.
(a) Visualize; attain (b) envy; emulate
(c) Estimate; examine (d) aggrandize; suppress
(e) Follow; target
37. They are making the new ball ————a lot this morning.
(a) Elevate (b) transcend
(c) turn-away (d) swerve
(e) Raise
38. One likes to have an ———-of books on their self.
(a) Illustration (b) array
(c) Outline (d) extension
(e) Abode
39. We turn again to him in the expectation that some thing profoundly ———will be said to us.
(a) Agrarian (b) illuminating
(c) Belligerent (d) pliable
(e) Palatable
40. The falling water plashed with a ———-sound as soft as a sleep.
(a) Devilish (b) shallow
(c) Murmurous (d) appreciative
(e) Mute
Directions (Q. 41 to 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
With the economy experiencing lower real growth than anticipated by some, higher inflation, incomplete adjustment to external (oil) price shocks and sluggish reforms, there is renewed pressure on the rupee. The RBI has often proclaimed that it is not interested in pegging the value of the rupee with respect to the dollar at any particular level but only in minimizing volatility. Thus, a policy of leaning against the wind’: if rupee value moves ‘too fast’, various policy measures are unleashed.
These range from ‘talking to dealers’, implicitly taxing locked in export earnings, intervening in the foreign exchange market and changing the bank rate. Surely, the current point blank refusal of the RBI alter the bank rate is part of the set of policies to soften the pressures on the rupee. At the same time, the sluggish growth of the economy has prompted calls for loosening monetary policy. It is important to understand the implications of this against the background of the chosen exchange rate regime and other instruments of policy, especially fiscal policy. The word over, being part of an internationally integrated financial system has made the variable-peg exchange rate regime difficult to practice, particularly for developing countries. Countries are moving either in the direction of an immutable fix (currency boards, dollarisation) or managed floating. The RBI appears to have moved decisively in the direction of managed float. However, its professed objective of minimizing volatility has often been understood as pegging, especially because the exchange value of the rupee against the dollar has a definite downward trend. A move toward either a variable peg or managed float vis-à-vis a dominant currency like the dollar in the context of highly integrated capital markets has serious implications for the conduct of monetary policy. These go beyond the simple dictums of the Mundell-Flemming model: with a fixed exchange rate you give up independent monetary policy whereas with a managed float, the efficacy of fiscal policy is compromised.
With a managed float both the interest rate and the exchange rate become part of the monetary transmission mechanism. Thus, a pure interest rate shock (say a fall) will have complex effects. In addition to the standard income effect (a fall in the rate implies lower income from savings thus lowering current consumption) and substitution effect (a fall in the interest rate decreases the attractiveness of postponing consumption) there will be effects on asset prices and value of debt stocks of different term structures and associated risks. The inclusion of exchange rate in the transmission mechanism adds another layer of uncertainty. An expansionary monetary policy would lead to a weaker rupee.
This would shift consumption away from imports (the substitution effect) and should have direct pass-through effects on the prices of exports, imports and substitutes for imports and exports. However, a weaker rupee would turn the terms of trade against us, which would reduce spending. Increase in the domestic resource cost of financing external debt repayments, consequent upon a weaker rupee, will have a wealth effect and also discourage spending. These effects would tend to reduce the expansionary impact of the postulated loose monetary policy.
With complementary exchange and interest rate movements, interest rates will have to fall less to effect any desired level of monetary expansion. Consequently, domestic bond prices do not rise by enough in response to monetary expansion. If such bonds then become the basis for further domestic credit expansion then the expansionary expectations from monetary profligacy would have been belied. Also, the smaller fall in interest rates will not lower the cost of servicing the internal debt as much as expected and would not be able to stimulate private investment by as much.
However, the lower value for the rupee would make domestic producers more competitive so that the trade deficit might narrow. As a consequence the foreign debt may not go up at least on this count.
A fiscal policy that arrests the fall in the value of the rupee and permits sufficient drop in the interest rate would be the obvious antidote in this situation. A natural corollary would be that if monetary policy is directed primarily toward price stabilization, then fiscal policy should be used for correcting the external imbalance. But such a fiscal policy becomes difficult to pursue if exchange rate expectations are volatile. Volatile expectations are rational if exchange rates overshot equilibrium values in response to a monetary shock.
In addition, financial markets (domestic and international) are subject to ‘bubble like behaviour’. Each such bubble would correspond to markets reacting to ‘news’ that could not be justified as ‘rational’ by subsequent events. Examples would include the recent overvaluation of technology stocks as well as the strength of the yen in early 1995. Such sharp changes in asset values would reverberate in currency markets. Even if interest rate movements offset the implied changes in currency values, there would be an effect on anticipated inflation (through prices of imports and exports) in an economy that is getting increasingly integrated with the world economy. This would again impact on the monetary transmission mechanism.
For these reasons countries look for capital controls as a way to ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy when international capital markets are highly integrated. Thus, China, Malaysia, Russia and others have opted for some forms of capital controls. Chile experimented with a much-studied form of capital controls and India shelved its plans for capital account convertibility. However, the danger with capital controls is that they tend to become porous over time. Further, they may, like most controls, be misused. All these tend to make the choice of fixed exchange rate regime, which can be changed when needed (a variable peg), look attractive.
41. Exchange rate mechanism adopted by RBI for rupee is
(a) Immutable fixed exchange rate.
(b) Managed-floating exchange rate.
(c) Free-floating exchange rate.
(d) Any of the above, depending upon the prevailing over-all economic situation.
(e) None of the above
42. What is related to Mundell-Flemming model?
(a) A country has to give up its independent monetary policy in fixed exchange rate mechanism.
(b) With a managed float exchange rate mechanism effectiveness of the fiscal policy is at stakes.
(c) Managed float exchange rate mechanism is most appropriate
(d) Both A and B
(e) None of the above
43. What possible effect might depreciating rupee have on foreign debt?
(a) Foreign debt is likely to increase.
(b) Foreign debt is likely to remain unaffected
(c) Foreign debt is likely to decrease.
(d) The foreign-trade deficit might increase
(e) None of the above
44. Which of the following trend might be considered as not healthy for Indian economy?
(a) A relatively stable rupee
(b) A low interest rate.
(c) A volatile rupee in foreign exchange market
(d) A monetary policy directed towards domestic price stablilsation.
(e) Only C and D
45. What is implied by ‘leaning against the wind’ mentioned in the first paragraph?
(a) That RBI is interested in maintaining a fixed price of rupee with respect to dollar.
(b) That monetary policy is dependent upon fiscal policy
(c) That RBI will intervene in currency market if slide in value of rupee is ‘too fast’
(d) That Government of India (Gol) will only regulate policies to minimize untoward fluctuations in foreign currency market.
(e) None of the above.
46. Which policy measures is not adopted by RBI to control the value of rupee in the currency exchange market?
(a) Regulation of bank rate.
(b) Fixation of value of rupee at a desired level with respect to dollar.
(c) Taxing locked in export earnings.
(d) By directly intervening in the foreign exchange market.
(e) None of the above
47. If the bank rates are decreased substantially what effect it would have on rupee in foreign currency exchange market?
(a) The value of rupee will appreciate.
(b) The value of rupee will depreciate.
(c) Indian rupee will remain unaffected.
(d) Value of rupee depends upon multiple of other factors and its effects would be difficult to predict.
(e) Only A and D
48. What is meant by ‘bubble like behaviour’?
(a) Reverberations in currency market because of sharp changes in asset value.
(b) Over valuation of technology stocks.
(c) Irrational behavior of financial market leading to occasional boom-bust cycle.
(d) Unjustified strength of yen in mid 1990s.
(e) All of the above
49. Why do some countries opt for some form of capital controls to regulate the value of their currency in foreign exchange?
(a) To ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy in globalised capital market.
(b) To control capital account convertibility of currency
(c) To make capital control more porous.
(d) Only A and C
(e) All the above
50. What is the suggestion of the author regarding monetary transmission mechanism for India?
(a) Rupee should be made fully convertible on capital account.
(b) Fixed exchange rate regime is best suited for India
(c) India’s managed float mechanism is best in present circumstance
(d) Rupees value should be fixed to a basket of international currency.
(e) All of the above
Answer these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B A A C D C C B E
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B D C A B D D B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B E B C D C D D E
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B E D B B D B B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D A C C B D C A C


Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper
Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part of the sentence. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).
1. A planning of the hospital/A) and its surroundings/B) is drawn on the hoarding/C) outside the hospital-site/D). No error/E)
2. He asked me/A) when and where/B) had I planned/C) to spend my holidays? / D) No error / E)
3. The NATO had miserably/A) failed in anticipating/B) the out come of /C) airstrikes on Yugoslavia/D). No error/E)
4. The fleeing refuges/A) are at risk to get/B) caught in/C) heavy cross fire/D). No error/E)
5. I have been/A) really/B) looking forward to/C) visit you again/D). No error/E)
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of word/phrases. Choose a pair of words/phrases that fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence.
6. Star TV makes a last ditch attempt to revive its ——–even as the over all TV scenario remains in the ——-
(a) Capital; difficulty (b) chance; fraction
(c) Luck; lurch (d) fortunes; doldrums
(e) Luck; store
7. In west Bengal, the public health system has ———away and ———-government hospitals are run by party –sponsored unions.
(a) Withered; imitating (b) plundered; robust
(c) Plucked; absurb (d) pondered; rapacious
(e) Burnished; dilapidated
8. The editor claims they have only removed mistakes that ———in while ———–but other accuse them of changing meaning.
(a) Blurred; imitating (b) bombarded; shooting
(c) Braced; writing (d) brooded; copying
(e) Crept; transcribing
9. A former chief minister, ———pariah by his party boss has a word of ——–to supporters who might wish to dive with him, “Don’t”.
(a) Renounced; advice (b) rendered; advice
(c) Disowned; caution (d) abjured; promise
(e) Ceded; help
10. He was ———-with the ———-task of putting up a defence for Jeans, the country’ official submission for the Best Foreign Film Oscar.
(a) Saddled; unenviable (b) burdened; impartial
(c) Mustered; absurd (d) pestered; unsuitable
(e) referred; uncanny
Directions (Q. 10 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. Each sentence has four underlined parts. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’ (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).
11. We all/A) had some/B) of the cakes/C), she probably ate most/D). No error/E)
12. The/A) fire doesn’t/B) seem to be giving out/C) much/D) heat. No error/E)
13. Nobody /A) but/B) she /C) could be so/D) selfish. No error/E)
14. My father is in/A) the /B) CBI team which/C) is investigating the/D) security scam. No error/E)
15. No sooner did/A) the news of his murder flash/B) when/C) the violence erupted/D). No error/E)
Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the answer which produces most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact.
16. The government may soon have no alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum.
(a) No alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum.
(b) No alternative but to increase the prices of petroleum.
(c) No alternative for the increase of the prices of petroleum.
(d) No alternative for increasing the prices of petroleum.
(e) No alternative other than to increase the prices of petroleum.
17. Even the choice of a Deputy CM may prove to be a problematic because it is likely to set about intense factionalism in the party.
(a) Because it is likely to set about intense factionalism
(b) Because it like to set forth intense factionalism.
(c) That it is likely to set an intense factionalism.
(d) Because it is likely to set off intense factionalism.
(e) But it would like to set about an intense factionalism.
18. It was obviously Mr. Basu’s stature which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline for which a junior member would have had to pay a heavy price.
(a) Which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline?
(b) Which enabled him to get away with this act of indiscipline?
(c) That allowed him to get away with this act of indiscipline.
(d) That allowed him to get out with this act of indiscipline.
(e) Which enabled him to get off with this act of indiscipline?
19. While Mahatma has suffered many martayrdoms at our hands when he was slain by Godse.
(a) When he was slain by Godse. (b) Than he was slain by Godse.
(c) Since he was slain by Godse. (d) When he had been slain by Godse.
(e) Because he was slain by Godse.
20. Monarchy, democray and communism have all failed, so go the argument.
(a) Have all failed, so go to the argument. (b) Have all failed, so goes to the argument.
(c) Are all failed so go the argument. (d) Has all been failed, so goes the argument?
(e) All have failed, so is the argument.
Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are given. Choose one word or set of words, which when inserted in the sentence best fits in the meaning of the sentence, as a whole.
21. We paced the pavement for a time in ———on friends and books.
(a) Adventure (b) appraisement (c) discourse (d) exaggeration (e) collusion
22. She shook the money box so as to make it ——–.
(a) Hallow (b) surge (c) secure (d) rattle (e) corrupt
23. The only money box ——–with virtue is a box out of which one can get money when one wants it.
(a) Consonant (b) obsolete (c) dozy (d) whimsical (e) impious
24. There is a vast ———-of birds of the crow family.
(a) Consignment (b) grime (c) dump (d) eddy (e) concourse
25. Exercise is a ——–with many writers on health and longevity.
(a) Contest (b) freak (c) fetish (d) terror (e) stupor
Directions (Q. 26 to 32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
It has been a long hot summer and almost everyone seems to be having fun criticising the economic reforms. The congress party has taken leave of its lenses and wants to undo all the good work of its worthiest member, Manmohan Singh. The RSS continues to make noises against globalization. The left parties want to protect the labour aristocracy in the public sector against the interests of the labouring masses. Sharad Yadav has shamelessly given away free telephones to all telephone company employees. That leaves only the Prime Minister to fight for India’s future all alone, with only a handful of reformers to depend upon.
The reforms are anti-poor this is the constant refrain of the critics. Talk of the poor, I am convinced, confuses the debate on reforms. In the short term, the reforms will have no impact on the poor. In the longer run, the reforms will pull up the poor into the middle class.
In any society, the top 15 per cent of the people will do well and look after themselves. The bottom 15 per cent will fail and will need to be looked after. In between is the 70 per cent or the vast majority or the people, which in successful economies becomes the middle class. Our real tragedy in the last 50 years is not our poverty but that we did not create the middle class. Our socialist policies suppressed initiative, jobs, economic growth and middle class opportunities. Hence, our middle class was barely eight per cent of the population in 1980.
After the economy started seriously growing from the 1980s, the middle class has tripled, according to the National Council of Applied Economic Research, and is now 18 per cent of a much larger population. Given the right incentive system, the middle class invariably pulls itself up through hard work, self-help and education in a competitive society and the task of the economic reforms is precisely to create such an incentive system. If the reforms are successful, they will succeed in making a majority of India’s population middle class within a generation. And then, it will also be easier to look after the poor when they are 15 per cent of the population rather then forty.
Who have the reforms hurt so far? Scrapping licensing has only hurt the corrupt bureaucrat and businessman. It does not immediately affect the poor. Similarly, opening the economy to trade and investment has only hurt the inefficient Indian producer and his labour. Neither of them are the wretchedly poor. Reducing controls on the economy has only brought efficiency, removed monopolies, and liberated new entrepreneurs. It is true that the second phase of reforms will cause job losses and pain. But these jobs belong to our pampered organized labour, primarily in inefficient public sector companies. This labour has amongst the lowest productivity in the world, is insensitive to consumers, and gives Indian industry a bad name. By no stretch of the imagination can we call it poor.
Nor will cutting subsidies significantly hurt the poor. Experts are unanimously agreed that over 75 per cent of the subsidies do not reach the poor. Fertiliser and power subsidies are enjoyed by the rich and the middle class farmers –the rural poor are mainly landless labour. Similarly, the food subsidy through the PDS does not reach the poor, especially in Bihar and UP. Food subsidy has largely been enjoyed by the urban middle class. Economists around the world have been arguing that subsidies are the worst way to help the poor because they distort the price mechanism for the whole economy and misallocate society’s scarce resource. Instead of subsidies it is beter to give money to the poor (which, of course, has its own problems, for all Indians, including millionaires, will stand in a queue to be counted among the poor).
The reforms, thus, do not hurt the poor. Unlike our past policies, the reforms focus on prosperity and not on poverty. They assume that the poor do not want handouts; they want viable jobs so that they can pull themselves up into the middle class. By making the economy efficient and productive the reforms will create jobs, growth, and the middle class. Our politicians need to understand this, and proclaim from the rooftops: “The reforms are not anti-poor!”
Meanwhile, the experts in the academia, the NGOs, and the development institutions need to dig deeper into the explosive growth in our middle class to gauge the success of the reforms (and not be mesmerized by our controversial poverty figures). Finally, let us remember what Aristotle said: “The most perfect political community is one in which the middle class is in control and outnumbers both of the other classes.”
26. Since 50 years of independence, we failed to
(a) Bring-up poor above poverty line.
(b) Accelerate economic growth.
(c) Create a middle class.
(d) To bridge the gap between rich and poor.
(e) None of the above
27. In any society, a middle class grows when
(a) The policy of economic reform is successfully pursued.
(b) Proper opportunities are provided.
(c) Socialistic pattern of economy is withdrawn.
(d) Fifteen percent well to do looks after the rest.
(e) None of the above
28. According to author, the worst hits by reforms are
(a) Middle class and new entrepreneurs.
(b) Corrupt bureaucrats and businessmen and inefficient producers and labours.
(c) The poor.
(d) Only A & B
(e) Only B & C
29. According to author, subsidies should be scrapped because
(a) Most of the fertilizer and power subsidies are enjoyed by rich and middle class farmers and the rural poor mainly constitute landless labour.
(b) The food subsidies through PDS does not reach poor but enjoyed by urban middle class.
(c) Subsidies are the worst way to help poor because they distort the price mechanism and misallocate the scarce resources of the state.
(d) Only A & B
(e) All the above
30. According to author, which one of the following is not true about reforms?
(a) Reforms are not anti-poor but focused on prosperity, not on poverty.
(b) It does not intend to help poor by hand outs but by providing better opportunity and viable jobs.
(c) Reforms are successful only when it creates vast majority of population into middle class.
(d) It does not let the 15 per cent of population to pull up into middle class.
(e) It brings efficiency, removes monopoly and creates new entrepreneurs.
31. According to author, what should be the task of economic reforms?
(a) To create job opportunities for unemployed.
(b) To pull the people into middle class.
(c) To create the right incentive system.
(d) To create such a situation so that the benefits of reforms reach the poorest of the poor.
(e) None of the above
32. According to the author, in India, the success of reforms can be gauged from the fact that
(a) The Govt. has reduced the subsidies.
(b) The Govt. has started the second phase of reforms.
(c) Since 1980, the growth in our middle class has tripled from 8 to 18 percent.
(d) A much larger population under poverty line has pulled themselves up.
(e) None of the above
Directions (Q. 33 to 37): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters.
33. ALIGHT
(a) Light (b) remain (c) prevail (d) reduce (e) mount
34. ADVERSITY
(a) Adherent (b) occasion (c) fondness (d) ease (e) dimple
35. HUSBANDRY
(a) Munificence (b) consort (c) riddle (d) convocation (e) rectitude
36. APPROPRIATE
(a) Partial (b) unsuitable (c) convenient (d) conscious (e) horrible
37. METICULOUS
(a) Bourgeois (b) foolish (c) gypsy (d) careless (e) antagonistic
Directions (Q. 38 to 42): Each sentence or phrase given below is followed by five words. Pick the word which is closest in meaning to the preceeding phrase or sentence.
38. Having a strong sharp taste and smell.
(a) Gruesome (b) pungent (c) frivolous (d) opalescent (e) mortifying
39. An extremely large number
(a) Impetus (b) inconceivable (c) urge (d) myraid (e) surmise
40. A painful experience which is difficult to endure.
(a) Frustration (b) rage (c) ordeal (d) perturbation (e) idiosyncrasy
41. Love without sensual desire.
(a) Triumph (b) Devine (c) platonic (d) debauches (e) facsimile
42. To mix at random, as playing cards.
(a) puzzle (b) poach (c) synchronise (d) emulate (e) suffle
Directions (Q. 43 to 45): Arrange the sentences b, c, d, e to form a logical sequence between sentences (a) and (f).
43. a. Once the problem is diagnosed the prescription follows logically.
b. The solution must be to create a strong body of opinion among the constituents in favour of reforms.
c. And as experience, has shown once political class has brought around to your side, the bureaucracy, ever willing to sway with the wind will following suit.
d. In a democratic polity if this were to happen, the politicians would have to fall in line or face marginalization by electorate.
e. The real task before PM, therefore, is to build a conseusus in favour of reforms not just among a handful of ministers, but among the people of India whom the reforms are meant to serve. f. It is admittedly a more demanding task than campaigning to one’s own kind but it is more rewarding and more imperative.
(a) abcdef (b) abdcef (c) acbedf (d) aecbdf (e) acbdef
44. a. If the higher rate of inflation could have been explained by higher fuel costs alone, there might not have been much cause for worry.
b. In a dramatic reversal of past trend, prices of primary articles as well as manufactured articles have registered an increase during the week-in question.
c. Agreed, it is the non food category within the primary group that has recorded the sharpest increase, but that is small comfort.
d. Unfortunately, however that is not the case.
e. And while the rise in the prices of manufactured articles is quite nominal, it is difficult to be sanguine about the rise in primary article.
f. Price rises here are bound to feed through to the rest of the economy and none of this bodies well for consumer or for the government either.
(a) abcdef (b) acbdef (c) abdcef (d) adbecf (e) aecdbf
45. a. With the passing of the information technology bell, India is now poised to become one of the first few nations to have such legislation.
b. a digital signature is equivalent to a physical signature and is unique to an individual.
c. The IT bill seeks to give legal validity to digital signatures and certificates.
d. Any digital document carrying this signature has signed it and it will now hold in a court of law.
e. A digital signature not only authenticates a user but also ensures confidentiality and integrity of message.
f. The backbone of this technology is crytography.
(a) abcdef (b) acbedf (c) acbdef (d) aedbcf (e) adecbf
Directions (Q. 46 to 50): Four incomplete sentences are given below. They can be meaningfully completed by the words given below. You have to choose the word that fits maximum number of blank.
46. I. Father advised his daughter not to ———–boy friend after 7.P.M
II. It is hard to ———your explanation for being late to work.
III. Please ———the children with your stories and jokes.
IV. It was hard for Mr. Sinha to ———the notion that he would retire next Monday.
(a) Accept (b) consider (c) entertain (d) receive (e) digest
47. I. He was so hungry that he ——–everything served to him.
II. The plot in the novel was so interesting that I ———it in one siting.
III. The forest fire ——–every thing that came into its way.
IV. She was ———by intense hatered to destroy him.
(a) Exhumed (b) devoured (c) ate (d) destroyed (e) consume
48. I. An interesting———-of rural life is simplicity.
II. After the skirmish events began to take a more sinister ————
III. The worst ———-of the holocaust was that millions of people were killed.
IV. You should look at the problem from every ————
(a) Feature (b) turn (c) point of view (d) consideration (e) aspect
49. I. Three people were ——-on charges of murder.
II. Adequate preventive measures ———the spread of malaria.
III. Delicate miniature sculpture on the temple wall ——–our attention.
IV. Police ———-a thief stealing valuable from the house.
(a) Caught (b) arrested (c) stopped (d) checked (e) seized
50. I. They ——– a virulent campaign against their political opponents.
II. New model of the car will be ——–at the end of Independence Day.
III. New air craft carrier is unlikely to be ——–in next five years.
IV. He has ——–himself on a carrier in property dealing.
(a) Instituted (b) started (c) initiated (d) launched (e) made available
Answer these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C B B D D A E B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C C A C B D B C b
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D A E C C A B E D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C E D A B D B D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C E B D C C B E B D

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?
(a) US (b) Britain
(c) France (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so warrants.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Manipur
(c) Assam (d) Mizoram
(e) None of these
3. Who among the following has won the Durand Cup held in New Delhi recently?
(a) JCT (b) Chirag United
(c) East Bengal (d) Mohun Bagan
(e) None of these
4. Name the Spanish world champion who won the Valencia Grand Prix in the final round of the world championship.
(a) Jorge Lorenzo (b) Malcolm Campbell
(c) Enzo Ferrari (d) Louis Chiron
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Swiss Indoors – Roger Federer
(b) ATP Valencia Open – David Ferrer
(c) WTA tournament of Champion – Ana Ivanovic
(d) Questnet Open ITF Women’s – Nicha Lertpitak
(e) US Open 2010 – Roger Federer
6. Who is the author of the book World of All Human Rights?
(a) Harish Salve (b) Santosh Hegde
(c) Arundhati Roy (d) Soli J Sorabjee
(e) None of these
7. Name the Ethiopian legend who announced his retirement after dropping out of the New york City Marathon with a knee injury.
(a) Haile Gebreslassie (b) Duncan Kibet
(c) James Kwambai (d) Patrick Makau
(e) None of these
8. Name the deputy governor of RBI who retired recently after spending nearly 38 years there in various capacities during which she has had a stint in virtually every area of central banking.
(a) Mohan Rakesh (b) Subir Gokarn
(c) Usha Thorat (d) Shyamala Gopinath
(e) None of these
9. Name the person who has been honoured with the prestigious 2010 Intel Environment Award for his efforts to solve global safe drinking water and sanitation crises.
(a) Subir Bhomick (b) Rajesh Shah
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna (d) Chandi Prasad
(e) None of these
10. The three-day India Economic Summit, organized by the Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF), November 14-17 was held in
(a) New Delhi (b) Geneva
(c) Washington (d) Brussels
(e) None of these
11. Name Myanmar’s celebrated pro-democracy leader and a political prisoner of global stature who was set free from house arrest in Yangon.
(a) Ne Win (b) San Yu
(c) Maung Maung (d) Than Shwe
(e) None of these
12. The 10th Russia-India-China (RIC) meeting was held in
(a) Guilin (China) (b) Beijing (China)
(c) Bangalore (India) (d) Wuhan (China)
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following has been removed from the United Nations list of unresolved disputes, in a setback to Pakistan which has been asking the world body to intervene on the issue?
(a) Siachin (b) Sir Creek
(c) Baglihar dam (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(e) None of these
14. Which of the following has not been conferred Maharatna status by the Central government?
(a) ONGC (b) IOC
(c) NTPC (d) SAIL
(e) Railways
15. Who has been re-appointed as the prime minister of France?
(a) Dominique de Villepin (b) Jean-Perre Raffarin
(c) Francois Fillon (d) Lionel Jospin
(e) None of these
16. Who among the following became the first enlisted Sikh soldier in the US Army in more than two decades to complete basis training after getting a rare religious exemption for his turban and beard because the military requires his language skills?
(a) Kamaljeet Singh Kalsi (b) Tejdeep Singh Rattan
(c) Bob Singh Dhillon (d) Simran Preet Singh Lamba
(e) None of these
17. Ending weeks of opposition to a European Union bailout, heavily-indebted –has agreed finally with the EU and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on a multi-billion euro rescue package to avert bankruptcy. It will be the first country to receive financial support from the euro 750-billion (nearly trillion dollars) financial safety net, spread by the EU and the IMF six months ago, to help euro zone nations facing liquidity crisis.
(a) Ireland (b) Spain
(c) Argentina (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
18. Sonal Mansingh is associated with
(a) Painting (b) Theatre
(c) Dance (d) Sports
(e) None of these
19. Who has won the Indian Open golf title recently?
(a) Baek Seuk-Hyun (b) Rikard Karlberg
(c) Manar Jaini (d) Shiv Kapur
(e) None of these
20. Serbia has won the Davis Cup title by defeating
(a) France (b) US
(c) Switzerland (d) Sweden
(e) None of these
21. Who has been crewned Miss Earth Talent 2010 after beating 17 other contestants at a talent competition in Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam?
(a) Jennifer Pazmino (b) Watsaporn Wattanakoon
(c) Yeidy Bosquez (d) Nicole Faria
(e) None of these
22. Who won the 21st Lal Bahadur Shastri hockey tournament?
(a) ONGC (b) Indian Oil
(c) Air India (d) Indian Railways
(e) None of these
23. Which country has recently won the ICC Inter Continental Cup in Dubai?
(a) Kenya (b) Scotland
(c) Afghanistan (d) China
(e) None of these
24. World leaders from 193 countries signed a new global climate regime on Dec 11 called
(a) Cancun Agreement (b) Kyoto Agreement
(c) Copenhagen Agreement (d) London Agreement
(e) None of these
25. Mobile banking is set to get a boost form IMPS, which stands for
(a) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment Service
(b) Inter-Bank Money Payment Service
(c) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(d) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(e) None of these
26. With the aim of giving a fillip to development schemes in tribal and backward regions, mostly affected by Naxal violence, the Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs (CCEA) has approved the commencement of an Integrated Action Plan (IAP) in
(a) 20 districts (b) 40 districts
(c) 60 districts (d) 100 districts
(e) None of these
27. Name of the animal rights crusader who was presented the shining World Compassion Award along with a cheque for 20,000 dollars from Supreme Master Ching Hai International Association.
(a) Vandana Shiva (b) Sunita Narain
(c) Maneka Gandhi (d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(e) None of these
28. Name the founder of the whistleblower website Wikileaks.
(a) Julin Assange (b) Navi Pillay
(c) Phillip Adams (d) BenLaurie
(e) None of these
29. Name the country’s only government award for an environmental film.
(a) Vasudha Award (b) Vasundhara Award
(c) Vaishali Award (d) Vriksha Mistra Award
(e) None of these
30. The controversial UDRS system used in cricket is
(a) Universal Decision Review System
(b) Unified Decision Review System
(c) Umpire Decision Review System
(d) Unmanned Decision Review System
(e) None of these
31. Which of the following is anti-corruption watchdog?
(a) WTO (b) Transparency International
(c) UN Security Council (d) Wikileaks
(e) None of these
32. Who among the following has been appointed as the new director of the Central Bureau of investigation watchdog?
(a) Ashwani Kumar (b) Amar Pratap Singh
(c) DP Kohli (d) VS Tiwari
(e) None of these
33. Who is the author of the book Yes, We Can!?
(a) M Karunanidhi (b) Dr Ramadoss
(c) Vaiko (d) MK Azhagiri
(e) None of these
34. Who is the author of the book A Rainbow in the Night?
(a) Jim Corbett (b) George Orwell
(c) Riduard Lo[;omg (d) Dominique Lapierre
(e) None of these
35. Which country will host the FIFA World Cup in 2018?
(a) England (b) Spain
(c) Portugal (d) Belgium
(e) None of these
36. Name the film which is an Indo-Bangladesh joint production and has bagged the coveted Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film at the 41st International Film Festival of India (IFFI) 2010.
(a) Moner Manush (b) Bilet Pherat
(c) Andhare Lao (d) Neel Akasher Neechey
(e) None of these
37. Beighton Cup is associated with
(a) Football (b) Cricket
(c) Badminton (d) Hockey
(e) None of these
38. Name the tiny the energy-rich gulf Arab country that has been picked to host the FIFA 2022 World Cup.
(a) UAE (b) Oman
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Qatar
(e) None of these
39. World Disabled Day is observed on
(a) 1 December (b) 2 December
(c) 3 December (d) 4 December
(e) None of these
40. Name the concept introduced by the UPA govt through an Act in 2008 for imparting speedy justice to rural population.
(a) Gram Nyayalayas (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Nyaya Sabha (d) Gram Sabha
(e) None of these
41. Name the son of the late Andhra chief minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy who resigned form the Kadapa Lok Sabha constituency and Congress recently.
(a) K Rossiah (b) YS Jaganmohan
(c) Kiran Reddy (d) Gopal Rao
(e) None of these
42. What is Wikileaks?
(a) A spy agency (b) A terrorist organization
(c) A whistle-blowing website (d) A hackers, group
(e) None of these
43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) IDBI Bank – RBI (b) ULIP—SEBI
(c) Pension – PFRDA (d) Insurance—IRDA
(e) Mutual Fund – PFRDA
44. Which of the following is not an instrument of capital market?
(a) Share (b) Bond
(c) Debenture (d) Repo
(e) All the above
45. Lemuam rimmer David R udisha and Croatian high jump star Blanka Vlasic were named male and female athletes of the year respectively by the
(a) IAAF (b) World Athletic Organisation
(c) European Athletic Organisation (d) World Athletic Federation
(e) None of these
46. Which of the following is the last book of VS Naipaul?
(a) A House for Mr Biswas (b) The Masque of Africa
(c) India: A Wounded Civilization (d) India: A Million Mutinies Now
(e) None of these
47. Who among the following is not an economist?
(a) Bhagwati Prasad (b) Suresh Tendulkar
(c) Kaushik Basu (d) Vandana Shiva
(e) All the above
48. Name the chief minister of Andhra Pradesh who resigned recently.
(a) YS Jaganmohan (b) YV Reddy
(c) Janardhan Reddy (d) K Rosaiah
(e) None of these
49. Nallari Kiran Kumar Reddy has been appointed as the Chief Minister of
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of these
50. Who has been conferred Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2010?
(a) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (b) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) Bingu Wa Mutharika
(e) None of these

ENGLISH

Directions (Q. 51-64): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
July 15, 2010 turned out to be a historic day, as the Indian Rupee got the much-awaited symbol, just like other leading currencies of the world, viz Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling and the Yen. The new symbol Rs. is an amalgamation of Devanagari “Ra” and the Roman “R” without the stem. Till now, the Rupee was written in various abbreviated forms in different languages.
The new symbol designed by IIT Bombay postgraduate Shri D Udaya Kumar was approved by the Union Cabinet on July 15. “It’s a big statement on the Indian currency… The symbol would lend a distinctive character and identity to the currency and further highlight the strength and global face of the Indian economy,” said Information and Broadcasting Minister Smt Ambika Soni, while briefing the media on the Cabinet decision.
The new symbol will not be printed or embossed on currency notes or coins, but it would be included in the “Unicode Standard” to ensure that it is easily displayed and printed in the electronic and print media. The encoding of the rupee symbol in the Indian Standards is estimated to take about six months while encoding in the Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646 will take about 18 months to two years. It will also be incorporated in software packages and keyboards for use in India.
On March 5, 2009 the Government announced a contest to create a symbol for the Rupee, inviting entries for the symbol, which would reflect and capture the Indian ethos and culture. Over 3000 entries were received, which were evaluated by a jury headed by the Deputy Governor, RBI, which also included experts from three reputed art and design institutes. The Jury selected five entries and also gave its evaluation of these five entries to the Government to take a final decision.
Shri Udaya Kumar’s entry was the ‘Best of Five”. He will get an award of Rs. 2.5 lakh and more than that an incredible fame, as the designer of the Rupee symbol. “My design is a perfect blend of Indian and Roman letters – capital ‘R’ and Devanagri ‘Ra’ which represents rupaiah, to appeal to international and Indian audiences… It is based on the tricolour, with two lines at the top and white space in between,” a visibly-happy Kumar said.
The genesis of the word ‘rupee’ is in the Sanskrit word ‘raupya’ which means silver. Indian Rupee is variously called ‘rupaya’ in Hindi, ‘rupiya’ in Gujarati, ‘roopayi’ in Telugu and Kannada, ‘rubai’ in Tamil and ‘rupyakam’ in Sanskrit. However in Eastern India it is called ‘Taka/Toka’ in Bengali and Assamese and ‘Tanka’ in Oriya.
India stands among the earliest to issue coin, and as a result it has seen a wide range of monetary units throughout its history. There is some historical evidence to show that coins may have been introduced the first time some time between 2500 and 1750 BC.
51. Who is the Union Information and Broadcasting Minister?
(a) Smt Sushma Swaraj (b) Smt Meera Kumar
(c) Smt Pratibha Devisingh Patil (d) Smt Ambika Soni
(e) None of these
52. What is the importance of 15 July in the history of Indian rupee?
(a) The new Rupee symbol replaced the old.
(b) The international community approved the Rupee symbol.
(c) The Cabinet approved the much-awaited Rupee symbol.
(d) Both (1) and (3).
(e) None of these
53. Which of the following countries has a currency symbol?
(a) China (b) France
(c) Singapore (d) Germany
(e) Not mentioned in the passage
54. Who has designed the newly approved Rupee symbol?
(a) A teacher posted at IIT Bombay (b) Mr Uday Kumar of Maharashtra
(c) Mr D Uday Kumar, a postgraduate
(d) Information and Broadcasting Minister
(e) None of these
55. The new design ‘Rs.’ finds its origin in
(a) Devanagari (b) Roman
(c) Devanagari and Sanskrit (d) Devanagari and Roman
(e) None of these
56. What is the importance of the new Rupee symbol?
(a) It highlights the strength of the Indian economy.
(b) Now Indian rupee gets value like Dollar, Pound, Euro Yen.
(c) Now most of the foreign countries will maintain their foreign exchange reserves in Rupee.
(d) Now it will be a fully convertible currency.
(e) None of these
57. Where is the genesis of the term ‘rupee’?
(a) It has been derived from Sanskrit word ‘Raupya’.
(b) It finds its origin in the term ‘Rupaya’ of Hindi.
(c) ‘Rupiyo’ in Gujarati
(d) ‘Roopayi’ in Tamil and Kannada
(e) None of these
58. What does ‘Raupya’ mean in Sanskrit?
(a) Gold (b) Diamond
(c) Silver (d) Bronze
(e) None of these
59. What is Rupee called in Oriya?
(a) Taka (b) Toka
(c) Rupyakam (d) Tanka
(e) None of these
60. When was the first coin introduced?
(a) Between 250 and 750 BC (b) Between 2500 and 1750 AD
(c) Between 250 and 759 AD (d) Between 2500 and 1750 BC
(e) None of these
61. When was the process to develop a new rupee symbol initiated?
(a) 15 July 2010 (b) 5 June 2009
(c) 5 March 2009 (d) 31 January 2010
(e) None of these
62. Which among the following methods did the Government adopt to get the new symbol?
(a) All the leading artists were asked to design.
(b) A contest was announced for the purpose.
(c) The contestants were interviewed.
(d) The governor of RBI was asked to decide the process.
(e) None of these
63. What do the two lines of the design mean?
(a) They reflect the federal structure of the govt.
(b) They reflect the mixed structure of Indian economy.
(c) They reflect the new liberalized Indian economy.
(d) They reflect the tri-colour India flag.
(e) None of these
64. How many designs were sent to the Government for approval?
(a) 3000 (b) 2000
(c) 10 out of 3000 (d) 5 out of more than 3000
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 65-74): Read each sentence carefully and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case of ‘No error’, 5 will be the answer.
65. (1) To hit a man/(2) when he is down/(3) is a contemptuous/(4) thing to do./(5) No error
66. (1) The climate on this/(2) altitude is cool and dry/(3) but down in the valley/(4) it is very sultry./(5) No error
67. (1) Since her mother/(2) died when she/(3) was young/(4) she did lack maternal care./(5) No error
68. (1) In 1665 a/(2) great pestilence caused/(3) the death of 63000 persons/(4) in the city of London./(5) No error
69. (1) Because of his/(2) lack of interest in the/(3) affairs of the society, the members/(4) decided to depose the president./(5) No error.
70. (1) In the last three/(2) years Rohan has managed/(3) to obtain for him thousands/(4) of foreign stamps./(5) No error.
71. (1) We watched the/(2) aeroplane until it/(3) disappeared, surrounded/(4) complete by clouds./(5) No error
72. (1) Before the police could/(2) seize on the way the thief/(3) escaped across the/(4) river into the forest./(5) No error
73. (1) If you leave/(2) now, you will have/(3) plenty time to reach/(4) the city by noon./(5) No error
74. (1) According to/(2) present-day opinion, action/(3) must be taken long/(4) ago to preserve forests./(5) No error
Directions (Q. 75-79): Rearrange the sentences given below in a way which would make an appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.
i. In most of the tourist destinations of the valley, the somber environs greet the visitor.
ii. But the turmoil has restricted most of the pilgrims only to visit the Amarnath Shrine.
iii. Besides, most of the Amarnath Yatris too used to visit the valley’s tourist spots after their pilgrimage to the holy Amarnath cave shrine.
iv. The tourism industry was expecting a booming business this summer.
v. But the unrest has dashed the hopes of those associated with this industry, the mainstay of Kashmir’s economy.
vi. The industry was expecting at least ten lakh visitors this season.
75. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’?
(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v
76. After rearrangement which will be the ‘SECOND’ one?
(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v
77. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FOURTH’ one?
(a) v (b) vi (c) iv (d) iii (e) i
78. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FIFTH’ one?
(a) ii (b) iii (c) iv (d) v (e) vi
79. After rearrangement which will be the ‘LAST’ one?
(a) vi (b) v (c) iv (d) ii (e) i
Directions (80-89): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
An increase in repo and reverse repo 80 borrowing and lending cost 81 banks will 82. This 83 ideally lead to overall increase in interest rates like credit, deposit etc. The higher interest will in turn 84 to lower demand and thereby lower 85. This is 86 monetary transmission process. However, this 87 may not work 88 and pose 89 problems for a central bank.
80. (a) says (b) reflects
(c) relates (d) implies
(e) None of these
81. (a) of (b) for
(c) to (d) by
(e) None of these
82. (a) diminish (b) decrease
(c) increase (d) stable
(e) None of these
83. (a) do (b) could
(c) should (d) can
(e) None of these
84. (a) lead (b) come
(c) result (d) go
(e) None of these
85. (a) recession (b) deflation
(c) inflation (d) stagflation
(e) None of these
86. (a) known (b) called
(c) told (d) said
(e) None of these
87. (a) route (b) step
(c) application (d) process
(e) None of these
88. (a) suitable (b) appropriate
(c) perfectly (d) systematic
(e) None of these
89. (a) further (b) many
(c) several (d) different
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 90-94): Fill up the blanks with the most suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.
90. We’re late. The film ——— have already started by the time we ——– the cinema hall.
(a) shall, arrive (b) would, reach
(c) will, get to (d) should, approach
(e) may, go
91. The fire spread through the building ——– but everybody was ——– escape.
(a) fast, enable to (b) instant, managed to
(c) quick, able (d) immediately, safe
(e) quickly, able to
92. I am thinking ——– a house; ——– you think that’s a good idea?
(a) buying, what (b) of buying, do
(c) taking, what (d) for, will
(e) of, do
93. I am tired. I’d rather ——– out this evening, if you don’t ——– .
(a) go, feel (b) not, accompany
(c) not be, worry (d) never go, annoy
(e) not go, mind
94. I must ——– now. I promised not ——– late.
(a) leave, being (b) reach, of being
(c) go, to be (d) do it, for being
(e) get in, of been
Directions (Q. 95-100): Replace the word/words given in bold by one of the given options to make the sentence correct and meaningful. In case of ‘no correction Required’ (NCR), 5 will be the answer.
95. It was not long for I discovered that he could neither read nor write.
(a) long before (b) long since
(c) longer than (d) long then
(e) No correction required
96. The death toll in the train accident went to six hundred.
(a) increased to (b) rose to
(c) spread to (d) counted to
(e) No correction required
97. While walking on the road, a dog bit one man.
(a) a dog had bitted a man (b) the man was dogged
(c) a dog did bit a man (d) the man was bitten by a dog
(e) No correction required
98. He promised that he will deliver the letter within two days.
(a) will must deliver (b) would deliver
(c) will be delivering (d) will have delivered
(e) No correction required
99. The negotiations faced a doldrums with neither side ready to move even an inch.
(a) a hanger (b) a crisis
(c) a hold (d) an abortion
(e) No correction required
100. I started early so that I may cover the maximum of distance before even mid-day.
(a) I would (b) I shall
(c) I did (d) I could
(e) No correction required

ANSWER THESE QUESTION

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B A E D A C B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
E D D E C D A C B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C C A A C C A A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B C D E A D D C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C B D A B D D B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D C E C D A A C D D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B D D E A D E E C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C E C D E B B D D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C C A C B D C A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
E B E C A A D B B D

Solved Bank Exam Model Question Paper 2011: General Awareness
Article Category: Bank Exam Model Question Papers, Bank Recruitment
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Question Paper 2011
1) This agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet. Identify the agency.
a. SEBI
b. IRDA
c. TRAI
d. DoT
2) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.

a. Tata Steel
b. Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d. Maruti Suzuki
3) Which of the following Indian cricket players took the highest number of wickets in the recently concluded ICC World Cup 2011 along with Pakistan’s Shahid Afridi?
a. Yuvraj Singh
b. Zaheer Khan
c. Munaf Patel
d. Harbhajan Singh
4) Union Sports Ministry on 6 April 2011 formed a committee to fine-tune the draft National Sports Development Bill. Who is heading the committee?
a. Justice Mukul Mudgal
b. Justice Tej Pratap Singh Mann
c. Justice Gurdev Singh
d. Justice Jaswant Singh Phogat
5) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar
6) Record food grain production helped to reduce food inflation to a four month low for the week ending 26 March 2011. What was the inflation percentage for the week?
a. 9.18%
b. 9.25%
c. 9.21%
d. 9.36%
7) Praveen Kumar Tripathi took over as the Chief Secretary of which of the following governments on 4 April 2011?
a. Delhi Government
b. Haryana Government
c. Uttar Pradesh Government
d. Uttarakhand Government
8) The Union Government gifted a Kendriya Vidyalaya to a nondescript village Indrapura to which of the following Indian states?
a. Bihar
b. Odisha
c. Rajasthan
d. Madhya Pradesh
9) The Supreme Court on 5 April 2011 passed an order to lift iron export ban imposed by which of the following Indian states on 26 July 2010 and also ordered it to implement the new rules for regulating iron ore mining and transportation?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Karnataka
d. Odisha
10) To enhance credit worthiness of economically weaker sections and LIG households, a Mortgage Risk Guarantee Fund was announced to be created under which of the following scheme or Yojana?
a. Rajiv Awas Yojana
b. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
c. Indira Awas Yojana
d. Mahatama Gandhi NREGA
11) Which agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet?
a. SEBI
b. IRDA
c. TRAI
d. DoT
12) Buyer's Credit was launched by the Commerce and Industry Minister, Anand Sharma, on 6 April 2011 to boost project exports from India. Under which of the following was Buyer’s Credit launched?
a. National Export Insurance Account
b. Export-Import Bank of India
c. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
d. Reserve Bank of India
13) Read the two statements mentioned with regard to the budgetary allocations for addressing environmental concerns.
1. The budget proposed that the solar lantern used in far-flung villages will attract no duty from 10 per cent charged earlier.
2. To provide green and clean transportation for the masses, National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched in the year 2011 in collaboration with all stakeholders. Which of them is true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
14) 21 year old Marjan Kalhor is the first Iranian woman to have entered an Olympic event. She is a participant in the 2010 Winter Olympics that began in Vancouver on 12 Feb 2010. Which sport is she associated with?
a. Ski
b. Shot put
c. Cycling
d. Bobsleigh
15) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)
16) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a. Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b. Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
d. BSNL
17) Which Italian luxury sports car makers on 6 April 2011 announced its entry into the Indian market where it will sell its high-performance cars priced between Rs1.20 crore and Rs1.43 crore?
a. Maserati
b. Bentley
c. Aston Martin
d. Maybach
18) Who did HDFC Bank, the country's second-largest private sector lender appoint in March 2011 to head its investment banking division?
a. Rakesh Singh
b. Charul Madan
c. Gaurav Khungar
d. Atul Singh
19) Gangaur, a festival which marks the union of Lord Shiva and his consort, Goddess Parvati is celebrated for 18 days from the day after Holi in which of the following Indian states?
a. Rajasthan
b. Karnataka
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Uttaranchal
20) Read the following statements with regard to the allocation in the Educational sector as proposed by Union Budget 2011-12.
1. For Sarva Siksha Abhiyan the allocation was increased by 40 percent to 21000 crore rupees.
2. All institutions of higher learning will be connected through optical fibers by March 2012.
3. 500 crore rupees was proposed to be provided for national skill development fund.
4. For the needy scheduled castes ad scheduled tribe candidates studying in class-IX and Xth pre-matric scholarship scheme was proposed to be introduced. Which of the above mentioned statements is not true?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 & 4
d. 4
21) Scientists recently developed a computer that could be controlled by the power of thought. It would help people unable to speak or move. What is the name of the technology which they used to develop this kind of computer?
a. electrocortiography
b. symbian C++
c. java
d. flash lite
22) Which of the following companies bought the Pringles brand from Procter & Gamble Co for $1.5 billion?
a. Diamond Foods Inc
b. PepsiCo's Frito-Lay
c. Emerald Nuts
d. Kettle Potato Chips
23) Online marketplace eBay India, in association with leading apparel brand Reebok auctioned a bat autographed by Indian cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni. The proceeds of the auction will go to which of the following NGOs?
a. Oxfem
b. CRY
c. All Bengal Women’s Union
d. UNEM
24) Which Indian hockey player was in April 2011 named captain of the Indian Hockey team the upcoming Sultan Azlan Shah Cup scheduled to be played in Malaysia from 5-15 May 2011?
a. Arjun Halappa
b. Rajpal Singh
c. Bharat Kumar Chetri
d. Mohd. Amir Khan
25) Under the Godfrey Phillips Zonal Bravery Awards given away by the former ruler of Jodhpur, Gaj Singh in Jaipur on 5 April 2011, which of the following NGOs was honoured with the Amodhini Award of Rs.1 lakh?
a. Udyogini
b. Charities Aid Foundation
c. CRY
d. Akhil Bharatiya Vanavasi Kalyan Ashram
26) The Basic Customs Duty exemption was proposed to be extended to which of the following sectors?
a. art and antiquities for exhibition or display in private art galleries
b. Cinematographic film, factory-built ambulances
c. syringes and needles
d. agricultural machinery
27) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Where is the Pacific Tsunami Warning System headquartered?
a. Hawai
b. Tokyo
c. Manila
d. Jakarta
28) Which of the following companies announced on 6 April 2011 that it won contract to provide broadband internet connectivity to Indian Railways through state-run RailTel Corp of India Ltd?
a. DEL
b. IBM
c. Infosys
d. HCL Infosystems
29) Which super luxury carmaker on 7 April 2011 unveiled Continental GT sedan in India?
a. Ferrati
b. Bentley
c. Maybach
d. Maserati
30) What amount of money was allocated for Bharat Nirman?
a. 1000 crore
b. 58000 crore
c. 55438 crore
d. 14362 crore
31) Who defeated Tamarine Tanasugarn on 15 Feb 2010 to retain the Pattaya Open title?
a. Vera Zvonareva of Russia
b. Sabine Lisicki of Germany,
c. Ayumi Morita of Japan
d. Kimiko Date Krumm of Japan
32) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of japan. What are the possible factors which can cause Tsunami?
i)An Earthquake
ii) A landslide
iii) A volcanic eruption or explosion
iv) Impact by a meteorite
Please choose the right option
a. i, ii, iii and iv
b. i and ii only
c. ii and iii only
d. i and iv only
33) Which of the following Indian cricket is the most heavily insured player for the forthcoming Indian Premier League (IPL) 4 T-20 tournament which begins on 8 April 2011?
a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Yuvraj Singh
c. M S Dhoni
d. Virender Sehwag
34) The Union Budget for 2011-12 proposed lowering of qualifying age for tax relief for senior citizens from 65 years to _?
a. 55
b. 58
c. 60
d. 62
35) Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from 1 lakh 60 to _?
a. 1 lakh 80 thousand
b. 1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d. 2 lakh 20 thousand
36) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill
37) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a. Saina Nehwal
b. Wang Xin
c. Sania Mirza
d. Wang Shixian
38) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a. January 14
b. February 14
c. August 31
d. January 12
39) What is Tejas?
a. Spacecraft
b. Missile
c. Submarine
d. Light combat aircraft
40) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a. Sharmila Tagore
b. Karan Johar
c. Nafisa Ali
d. Om Puri
e. None of these
41) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a. Israel
b. Iran
c. Afghanistan
d. Indonesia
42) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a. AP Singh
b. Arun Shourie
c. Sanjeev Tripathi
d. BK Gupta
43) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Both i and ii
b. Neither I and ii
c. Only i
d. Only ii
44) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a. Gujarat
b. Bihar
c. Haryana
d. Madhya Pradesh
45) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
46) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a. Nandita Das
b. Juhi Chawla
c. Tabu
d. Konkona Sen Sharma
47) In tiger census 2010,
i) Pugmarks were used as the only indicator of tiger numbers.
ii) An advanced Scientific process was adopted which included video trapping and use of satellite data. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Choose the right option:
a. Only i is incorrect
b. Only ii is incorrect
c. Both i and ii are incorrect
d. Both i and ii are not incorrect
48) India defeated Pakistan by 29 runs in the semi finals of the ICC World Cup 2011 played at Mohali. Who was declared man of the match of the high powered game?
a. Saeed Ajmal
b. Sachin Tendulkar
c. Munaf Patel
d. Wahab Riaz
49) Which of the following bodies put off indefinitely the new rules governing unwanted telemarketing calls which were supposed to be implemented from 21 March 2011?
a. Department of Telecommunication (DoT)
b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
c. Indian Ministry of communication & Technology
d. HRD Ministry
50) The Indian government in March 2011 conferred the Miniratna status on which of the following PSUs?
a. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
b. Air India Charters Ltd
c. Cement Corporation of India
d. HMT Machine Tools Ltd
Answers:
1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A







General Awareness
1) In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from Rs 1 lakh 60 thousand to _?
a.1 lakh 80 thousand
b.1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d.2 lakh 20 thousand

2) A team from Dalhousie University in Halifax, Canada, discovered that a green alga invades tiny developing salamander embryos. What is this phenomenon called?
a)Symbiosis
b)Photosynthesis
c) Ecdysis
d) Aestivation
3) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a.Nandita Das
b.Juhi Chawla
c.Tabu
d.Konkona Sen Sharma

4) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

5) Who won the National Jute Board-Kolkata international squash at Calcutta Racket Club on 3 April 2011 after defeating Omar Mosaad?
a.Karim Darwish
b.Khawaja Adil Maqbool
c. Ritwik Bhattacharya
d. Peter Nicol

6) Read the following statements:
1.He won the ATP Miami Masters crown by defeating Nadal and thus remained unbeaten in 2011.
2.He captured all four titles- the Australian Open, Dubai, elite Masters titles at Indian Wells and Miami in 2011.
3.He had won his first Miami Masters title in 2007.
4.He joined Roger Federer, Andre Agassi and Pete Sampras as the only players to win the Australian Open, Indian Wells and Miami in the same year.Identify the tennis player being referred to.
a.Novak Djokovic
b.Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d.Rafael Nadal
7) At the National Conference on Kharif Strategies, Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar on 6 April 2011 mentioned that India has achieved an all-time high production of foodgrains. What was the estimation regarding foodgain production in 2010-11?
a.235.88 million tonnes
b.215 million tonnes
c. 261.34 million tonnes
d. 222.66 million tonnes
8) Which of the following steel plants in India achieved record production of 5.71 million tonnes (mt) of hot metal (a 6.3 per cent growth over 2009-10), 5.33 mt of crude steel (4.3 per cent) and 4.57 mt of saleable steel (4.3 per cent)?
a.Bhillai Steel Plant
b.Rourkela Steel Plant
c. Bokaro Steel Plant
d.Salem Steel Plant
9) The Department of Information Technology (DIT) on 5 April 2011 published a draft policy on which of the following to enable the government departments to provide services, including payment of utility bills and filing of tax with the use of a medium?
a.Mobile governance
b.E-governance
c. Service Delivery Gateway
d.Applications Inter-operability

10) Which of the following was not proposed in the Union Budget 2011-12 presented by pranab Mukherjee?
1.Special vehicles were proposed to be created in the form of Infrastructure Debt Funds to attract foreign funds.
2.Rs. 300 crore expenditure was proposed to promote horticulture centres in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity.
3.For the manufacturing sector, the budget proposed reduction of basic customs duty on raw silk from 30 to 5 per cent.
4.Concessional 10 per cent Excise Duty was also proposed for fuel cell or Hydrogen cell-technology-based vehicles.

a.1 & 3
b.Only 2
c.Only 4
d.3 & 4

11) Sectors Budgetary Allocations
1.Agriculture & Allied Activities A. Rs 14362 crore
2.Rural Development B. Rs 38852 crore
3.Defence Sector C. Rs 55438 crore
4.Industries & Minerals D. Rs 164415 crore
A B C D
a.1 4 2 3
b.2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d.4 2 3 1

12) In the Budget it was proposed to provide sum of money for implementation of vegetable initiative to set in motion a virtuous cycle of higher production and incomes for the farmers. What was the proposed amount?
a.Rs 500 crore
b.Rs 300 crore
c. Rs 10000 crore
d. Rs 650 crore

13) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Neither I and ii
c) Only i
d) Only ii

14) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami.
i) A Tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, reaching heights of over 100 feet onto land.
ii) Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make earthquakes and volcanoes common.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Only i
c) Only ii
d) Neither i nor ii

15) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a) Gujarat
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Madhya Pradesh

16)Engineering and construction major L&T announced that it has achieved financial closure for which of the following with the help of 10-bank consortium led by SBI pitching in with Rs 11478 crore debt?
a.Kolkata Metro Rail Project
b.Pune Metro Project
c.Delhi Metro project
d.Hyderabad Metro Rail project

17) Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni was offered and accepted the honour of being chosen to get an honorary commission in which of the following?
a.Indian Navy
b.Territorial Army
c. Indian Air Force
d. Indian Para-military Force

18) Which of the following real estate firms on 5 April 2011 announced a gift in the shape of villas worth Rs. 9 crore to skipper M.S. Dhoni and his teammates following their victory in the World Cup 2011?
a.DLF
b.Amrapali
c. Unitech
d.Tata Construction & Projects Ltd

19) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
20) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was proposed to be being extended to the beneficiaries of which of the following Union Government schemes?
a.Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries
b.Beneficiaries of Swavlamban pension scheme
c.Indira Gandhi National old Age Pension scheme beneficiaries
d.Beneficiaries of Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

21) Which of the following companies announced their alliance with Chennai Super Kings as the official team partner for the upcoming IPL Season 4?
a. ONGC
b. Indian Oil Corporation
c. Hindusthan Petroleum
d. Gulf Oil Corporation

22) Scientists have identified five genes which raise the risk of Alzheimer's disease. Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease.
i) Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of Dementia.
ii) Problems that happen due to the Alzheimer’s are personality-disorder, decision making, abstract thinking and loss of initiative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii

23) A giant predatory theropod dinosaur, similar in stature and size to Tyrannosaurus rex, has been identified by palaeontologists. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i) The new dinosaur, named Zhuchengtyrannus magnus, probably stood four metres tall, was 11 metres long and weighed around six tonnes.
ii) Like T. rex, it was a carnivore with huge powerful jaws.
iii) It ran on back legs, with small front limbs.
a) Only i and ii
b) Only i and iii
c) Only ii and iii
d) All i, ii and iii are correct
24) Solvay, the Belgian soda ash maker which sold a drugs unit a year ago, agreed to buy which of the following French companies to add specialty chemicals spanning ingredients for moisturisers and car-part polymers?
a.Rhodia
b.Danisco
c.Cognis
d.Le Zèbre

25) Gilead Sciences, a California based bio-pharmaceutical research firm, and its patent partner, Roche Holding AG, have sued which of the following Indian generic drug makers in March 2011 for allegedly infringing a US patent for Tamiflu, a drug used in treatment of bird and swine-flu infections?
a.Dr Reddy’s
b.Natco Pharma
c. Ranbaxy Laboratories
d. GlaxoSmithKline
26) AT&T on Sunday announced that it had agreed to buy T-Mobile USA from which of the following telecom companies for $39 billion?
a.Deutsche Telekom
b.Sprint Nextel
c.Verizon Wireless
d.Comcast
27) What is the prize-money of the golf tournament ‘Avantha Masters’ that began on 11 Feb 2010?
a. €1.5 million
b. €1 million
c. €2.5 million
d. €2 million
28) An international team of scientists, led by the Australian National University recently discovered evidence that the body’s immune cells often share information about foreign substances with each other to ward of invaders. The study can help increase the immunity level in human body against pathogens and cancer. Which of the followings are the symptoms of Cancer?
i) Weight Loss
ii) Excessive Sweating
iii) Lumps and Swelling (tumour)
iv) Enlargement of Spleen
Please choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii and iv
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii and iii
d) only i

29) Which of the following companies in April 2011 filed a petition in the Supreme Court to block penal action initiated by the Income Tax authorities on its contested $2.5-billion tax bill?
a. Vodafone International
b. Bharti Airtel
c. Uninor
d. Tata Teleservices

30) Vivendi agreed to buy Vodafone Group's 44% stake in which of the French mobile-phone operator’s for euro 7.95 billion ($11.3 billion) to win full control of its largest unit and secure more stable earnings?
a.T-Mobile
b.Orange
c. Virgin Mobile
d. SFR

31) A consortium comprising two companies acquired the IPL’s global Internet, mobile and audio rights, along with television rights in specific territories outside India, for the next four years. The consortium bagged the rights with a winning bid of Rs 261.6 crore in Chennai on 20 March 2011. Which are the two companies included in the consortium?
a. TIL & Nimbus Communication
b. Reliance Big Pictures & Zoom
c. TIL & Colors
d. Zoom and UTV Motion Pictures

32) Which chess player won his maiden Grand Master norm in the Chennai Open 2010 International Grand Master chess tournament on 1 Feb 2010?
a. R. Siddharth of Chennai
b. Kravtsiv of Ukraine
c. P. Shyam Nikhil of Tamil Nadu
d. Maxim Turov of Russia

33) Who was appointed member of ICC Cricket Committee as a representative of national coaches on 11 Feb 2010?
a. Gary Kirsten
b. Mark Taylor
c. Kumar Sangakkara
d. Tim May
34) At the European Geosciences Union meeting in Vienna, the scientists calculated that the Earth sees about __ thunderstorms every hour.
a) 670
b) 580
c) 760
d) 960

35) HCL Technologies on Thursday announced the expansion of its Smart Grid partner ecosystem by entering into strategic alliances with two data management software firms focused on the smart grid market. Which are the two firms with which HCL has entered into an alliance?
1. Infosys
2. eMeter
3. Cape Gemini
4. Tridium
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 4

36) The Gujarat Government banned controversial book, entitled Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his struggle with India. Who is the author of the book?
a) Joseph Lelyveld
b) Joseph Ponting
c) Hugh Grant
d) Vikram Seth

37) Which one of the following states imposed a blanket ban on plastic bags?
a) Delhi
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d)Tamil Nadu

38) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a) Sharmila Tagore
b) Karan Johar
c) Nafisa Ali
d) Om Puri
e) None of these

39) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a) Israel
b) Iran
c) Afghanistan
d) Indonesia

40) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a) AP Singh
b) Arun Shourie
c) Sanjeev Tripathi
d) BK Gupta

41) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a) January 14
b) February 14
c) August 31
d) January 12

42) What is Tejas?
A) Spacecraft
B) Missile
C) Submarine
D) Light combat aircraft

43) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a) Saina Nehwal
b) Wang Xin
c) Sania Mirza
d) Wang Shixian

44) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar

45) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.
a.Tata Steel
b.Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d.Maruti Suzuki

46) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)
47) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a.Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b.Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
d. BSNL

48) Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

49) Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

50) As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt.?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services

(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) C





















General Awareness
1) In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from Rs 1 lakh 60 thousand to _?
a.1 lakh 80 thousand
b.1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d.2 lakh 20 thousand

2) A team from Dalhousie University in Halifax, Canada, discovered that a green alga invades tiny developing salamander embryos. What is this phenomenon called?
a)Symbiosis
b)Photosynthesis
c) Ecdysis
d) Aestivation
3) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a.Nandita Das
b.Juhi Chawla
c.Tabu
d.Konkona Sen Sharma

4) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

5) Who won the National Jute Board-Kolkata international squash at Calcutta Racket Club on 3 April 2011 after defeating Omar Mosaad?
a.Karim Darwish
b.Khawaja Adil Maqbool
c. Ritwik Bhattacharya
d. Peter Nicol

6) Read the following statements:
1.He won the ATP Miami Masters crown by defeating Nadal and thus remained unbeaten in 2011.
2.He captured all four titles- the Australian Open, Dubai, elite Masters titles at Indian Wells and Miami in 2011.
3.He had won his first Miami Masters title in 2007.
4.He joined Roger Federer, Andre Agassi and Pete Sampras as the only players to win the Australian Open, Indian Wells and Miami in the same year.Identify the tennis player being referred to.
a.Novak Djokovic
b.Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d.Rafael Nadal
7) At the National Conference on Kharif Strategies, Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar on 6 April 2011 mentioned that India has achieved an all-time high production of foodgrains. What was the estimation regarding foodgain production in 2010-11?
a.235.88 million tonnes
b.215 million tonnes
c. 261.34 million tonnes
d. 222.66 million tonnes
8) Which of the following steel plants in India achieved record production of 5.71 million tonnes (mt) of hot metal (a 6.3 per cent growth over 2009-10), 5.33 mt of crude steel (4.3 per cent) and 4.57 mt of saleable steel (4.3 per cent)?
a.Bhillai Steel Plant
b.Rourkela Steel Plant
c. Bokaro Steel Plant
d.Salem Steel Plant
9) The Department of Information Technology (DIT) on 5 April 2011 published a draft policy on which of the following to enable the government departments to provide services, including payment of utility bills and filing of tax with the use of a medium?
a.Mobile governance
b.E-governance
c. Service Delivery Gateway
d.Applications Inter-operability

10) Which of the following was not proposed in the Union Budget 2011-12 presented by pranab Mukherjee?
1.Special vehicles were proposed to be created in the form of Infrastructure Debt Funds to attract foreign funds.
2.Rs. 300 crore expenditure was proposed to promote horticulture centres in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity.
3.For the manufacturing sector, the budget proposed reduction of basic customs duty on raw silk from 30 to 5 per cent.
4.Concessional 10 per cent Excise Duty was also proposed for fuel cell or Hydrogen cell-technology-based vehicles.

a.1 & 3
b.Only 2
c.Only 4
d.3 & 4

11) Sectors Budgetary Allocations
1.Agriculture & Allied Activities A. Rs 14362 crore
2.Rural Development B. Rs 38852 crore
3.Defence Sector C. Rs 55438 crore
4.Industries & Minerals D. Rs 164415 crore
A B C D
a.1 4 2 3
b.2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d.4 2 3 1

12) In the Budget it was proposed to provide sum of money for implementation of vegetable initiative to set in motion a virtuous cycle of higher production and incomes for the farmers. What was the proposed amount?
a.Rs 500 crore
b.Rs 300 crore
c. Rs 10000 crore
d. Rs 650 crore

13) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Neither I and ii
c) Only i
d) Only ii

14) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami.
i) A Tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, reaching heights of over 100 feet onto land.
ii) Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make earthquakes and volcanoes common.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Only i
c) Only ii
d) Neither i nor ii

15) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a) Gujarat
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Madhya Pradesh

16)Engineering and construction major L&T announced that it has achieved financial closure for which of the following with the help of 10-bank consortium led by SBI pitching in with Rs 11478 crore debt?
a.Kolkata Metro Rail Project
b.Pune Metro Project
c.Delhi Metro project
d.Hyderabad Metro Rail project

17) Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni was offered and accepted the honour of being chosen to get an honorary commission in which of the following?
a.Indian Navy
b.Territorial Army
c. Indian Air Force
d. Indian Para-military Force

18) Which of the following real estate firms on 5 April 2011 announced a gift in the shape of villas worth Rs. 9 crore to skipper M.S. Dhoni and his teammates following their victory in the World Cup 2011?
a.DLF
b.Amrapali
c. Unitech
d.Tata Construction & Projects Ltd

19) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
20) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was proposed to be being extended to the beneficiaries of which of the following Union Government schemes?
a.Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries
b.Beneficiaries of Swavlamban pension scheme
c.Indira Gandhi National old Age Pension scheme beneficiaries
d.Beneficiaries of Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

21) Which of the following companies announced their alliance with Chennai Super Kings as the official team partner for the upcoming IPL Season 4?
a. ONGC
b. Indian Oil Corporation
c. Hindusthan Petroleum
d. Gulf Oil Corporation

22) Scientists have identified five genes which raise the risk of Alzheimer's disease. Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease.
i) Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of Dementia.
ii) Problems that happen due to the Alzheimer’s are personality-disorder, decision making, abstract thinking and loss of initiative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii

23) A giant predatory theropod dinosaur, similar in stature and size to Tyrannosaurus rex, has been identified by palaeontologists. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i) The new dinosaur, named Zhuchengtyrannus magnus, probably stood four metres tall, was 11 metres long and weighed around six tonnes.
ii) Like T. rex, it was a carnivore with huge powerful jaws.
iii) It ran on back legs, with small front limbs.
a) Only i and ii
b) Only i and iii
c) Only ii and iii
d) All i, ii and iii are correct
24) Solvay, the Belgian soda ash maker which sold a drugs unit a year ago, agreed to buy which of the following French companies to add specialty chemicals spanning ingredients for moisturisers and car-part polymers?
a.Rhodia
b.Danisco
c.Cognis
d.Le Zèbre

25) Gilead Sciences, a California based bio-pharmaceutical research firm, and its patent partner, Roche Holding AG, have sued which of the following Indian generic drug makers in March 2011 for allegedly infringing a US patent for Tamiflu, a drug used in treatment of bird and swine-flu infections?
a.Dr Reddy’s
b.Natco Pharma
c. Ranbaxy Laboratories
d. GlaxoSmithKline
26) AT&T on Sunday announced that it had agreed to buy T-Mobile USA from which of the following telecom companies for $39 billion?
a.Deutsche Telekom
b.Sprint Nextel
c.Verizon Wireless
d.Comcast
27) What is the prize-money of the golf tournament ‘Avantha Masters’ that began on 11 Feb 2010?
a. €1.5 million
b. €1 million
c. €2.5 million
d. €2 million
28) An international team of scientists, led by the Australian National University recently discovered evidence that the body’s immune cells often share information about foreign substances with each other to ward of invaders. The study can help increase the immunity level in human body against pathogens and cancer. Which of the followings are the symptoms of Cancer?
i) Weight Loss
ii) Excessive Sweating
iii) Lumps and Swelling (tumour)
iv) Enlargement of Spleen
Please choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii and iv
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii and iii
d) only i

29) Which of the following companies in April 2011 filed a petition in the Supreme Court to block penal action initiated by the Income Tax authorities on its contested $2.5-billion tax bill?
a. Vodafone International
b. Bharti Airtel
c. Uninor
d. Tata Teleservices

30) Vivendi agreed to buy Vodafone Group's 44% stake in which of the French mobile-phone operator’s for euro 7.95 billion ($11.3 billion) to win full control of its largest unit and secure more stable earnings?
a.T-Mobile
b.Orange
c. Virgin Mobile
d. SFR

31) A consortium comprising two companies acquired the IPL’s global Internet, mobile and audio rights, along with television rights in specific territories outside India, for the next four years. The consortium bagged the rights with a winning bid of Rs 261.6 crore in Chennai on 20 March 2011. Which are the two companies included in the consortium?
a. TIL & Nimbus Communication
b. Reliance Big Pictures & Zoom
c. TIL & Colors
d. Zoom and UTV Motion Pictures

32) Which chess player won his maiden Grand Master norm in the Chennai Open 2010 International Grand Master chess tournament on 1 Feb 2010?
a. R. Siddharth of Chennai
b. Kravtsiv of Ukraine
c. P. Shyam Nikhil of Tamil Nadu
d. Maxim Turov of Russia

33) Who was appointed member of ICC Cricket Committee as a representative of national coaches on 11 Feb 2010?
a. Gary Kirsten
b. Mark Taylor
c. Kumar Sangakkara
d. Tim May
34) At the European Geosciences Union meeting in Vienna, the scientists calculated that the Earth sees about __ thunderstorms every hour.
a) 670
b) 580
c) 760
d) 960

35) HCL Technologies on Thursday announced the expansion of its Smart Grid partner ecosystem by entering into strategic alliances with two data management software firms focused on the smart grid market. Which are the two firms with which HCL has entered into an alliance?
1. Infosys
2. eMeter
3. Cape Gemini
4. Tridium
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 4

36) The Gujarat Government banned controversial book, entitled Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his struggle with India. Who is the author of the book?
a) Joseph Lelyveld
b) Joseph Ponting
c) Hugh Grant
d) Vikram Seth

37) Which one of the following states imposed a blanket ban on plastic bags?
a) Delhi
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d)Tamil Nadu

38) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a) Sharmila Tagore
b) Karan Johar
c) Nafisa Ali
d) Om Puri
e) None of these

39) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a) Israel
b) Iran
c) Afghanistan
d) Indonesia

40) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a) AP Singh
b) Arun Shourie
c) Sanjeev Tripathi
d) BK Gupta

41) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a) January 14
b) February 14
c) August 31
d) January 12

42) What is Tejas?
A) Spacecraft
B) Missile
C) Submarine
D) Light combat aircraft

43) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a) Saina Nehwal
b) Wang Xin
c) Sania Mirza
d) Wang Shixian

44) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar

45) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.
a.Tata Steel
b.Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d.Maruti Suzuki

46) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)
47) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a.Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b.Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
d. BSNL

48) Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

49) Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

50) As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt.?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services

(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) C



1.RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate
(A) Liquidity in the economy
(B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation
(D) Borrowing power of the banks
(E) All the above

2.When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as—
(A) Participation
(B) Consortium
(C) Syndication
(D) Multiple banking
(E) None of these

3.Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

4.The bank rate means—
(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
(E) None of these

5.What is an Indian Depository Receipt?
(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(E) None of these

6.An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is known as—
(A) Derivative
(B) Securitisation Receipts
(C) Hedge Fund
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding

7.Fiscal deficit is—
(A) total income less Govt. borrowing
(B) total payments less total receipts
(C) total payments less capital receipts
(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(E) None of these

8.In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to—
(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(D) variation in different markets
(E) Any of the above

9.Reverse repo means—
(A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities
(C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate
(D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(E) Any of the above

10.The stance of RBI monetary policy is—
(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(B) improving credit quality of the Banks
(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(D) supporting investment demand in the economy
(E) Any of the above

11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage—
(A) Currency risk
(B) interest rate risk
(C) currency and interest rate risk
(D) cash flows in different currencies
(E) All of the above

12.‘Sub-prime’ refers to—
(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac
(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
(E) All of the above

13. Euro Bond is an instrument—
(A) issued in the European market
(B) issued in Euro Currency
(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these

14. Money Laundering normally involves—
(A) placement of funds
(B) layering of funds
(C) integration of funds
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)

15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to—
(A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy
(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)

16.Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

17.In the term BRIC, R stands for—
(A) Romania
(B) Rajithan
(C) Russia
(D) Regulation
(E) None of these

18.FDI refers to—
(A) Fixed Deposit Interest
(B) Fixed Deposit Investment
(C) Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Future Derivative Investment
(E) None of these

19.What is Call Money?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these

20.Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these

21.Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these

22.Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda?
(A) Juhi Chawla
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these

23.The branding line of Bank of Baroda is—
(A) International Bank of India
(B) India’s International Bank
(C) India’s Multinational Bank
(D) World’s local Bank
(E) None of these

24.The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as—
(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda
(B) Baroda Sun
(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays
(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
(E) None of these

25.Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India?
(i) China’s economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich nations like
the USA, etc.
(ii) In the year 2007 China’s exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(iii) When compared to India China’s share in the World Exports is more than 30% whereas India’s share is mere 6% of the global exports.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

26.One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general?
(A) Know Your Customer Norms
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) None of these

27.Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’?
(A) Money
(B) Marginal
(C) Message
(D) Mutual Fund
(E) Mobile Phone

28.Which of the following is/are true about the ‘Sub-Prime Crisis’ ? (The term was very much in news recently.)
(i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers.
(ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers.
(iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

29.Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India?
(A) Industrial Finance
(B) Agricultural Finance
(C) Government Finance
(D) Development Finance
(E) Personal Finance

30.Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Public Sector Banks
(C) Private Sector Banks
(D) Regional Rural Banks
(E) State Co-operative Banks

31.As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt.?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services
(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

32.We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives?
(i) To attract foreign investment directly.
(ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

33.Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year?
(A) US, China, India, South Africa
(B) India, China, Russia, Britain
(C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
(D) US, Russia, China & India
(E) None of these

34.Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Nuclear Bank’ floated by International Atomic Energy Agency?
(i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the nations.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) only
(D) Only (iii)
(E) Both (i) and (ii) only

35.Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is ‘Future Trading’?
(i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future at a
predetermined price.
(iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

36.Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators?
(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Gross Domestic Product
(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(E) None of these
37.As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders?
(i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(iii) USA’s consistent presence in Iraq.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii) only
(E) None of these
38.Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA?
(A) George Bush
(B) Barack Obama
(C) John McCain
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) None of these

39.Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the—
(A) President of Congo
(B) Prime Minister of Uganda
(C) President of Venezuela
(D) Prime Minister of Brazil
(E) None of these

40.The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly—
(A) Rs. 60,000 crore
(B) Rs. 65,000 crore
(C) Rs. 72,000 crore
(D) Rs. 76,000 crore
(E) Rs. 80,000 crore

41.Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise.When is the next Census due?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2015

42.The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Alcoholic drinks
(C) Junk Food
(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
(E) None of these

43.Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these

44.India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements?
(A) Kosi
(B) Gandak
(C) Ganga
(D) Mahakali
(E) All these rivers are covered

45.Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) NLS - 5
(C) RUBIN - 8
(D) GSLV
(E) SCOPE

46.Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
(E) Golf

47.Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch?
(A) Journey of Harmony
(B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace
(D) Journey for Hunger-free World
(E) None of these

48.Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) All are social schemes

49.Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Britain
(E) Singapore

50.Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports?
(A) Kalinga Prize
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these


Answers :
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D)21. (D) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C)

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Last edited by Vinodt; March 29th, 2014 at 10:54 AM.
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