Entrance to MBA in IITS

What is the entrance exam by which the IITs provide admission in MBA program? please give me name of the entrance exam and also tell me the address of center located in Ahemdabad

IIT offers MBA course through Joint Management Entrance Test ( JMET ) but now the admission will be based on CAT score in place of JMET score.

Eligibility:
The candidate graduate, with at least 50% marks or equivalent CGPA [45% in case of the candidates belonging to SC, ST and DA.

Address of Ahemdabad center:
LJ Institute of Management Studies
Nr. Nagdev Kalyan Mandir,
Sanand-Sarkhej Circle S.G.Road,
Ahemdabad

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Here I want to inform you that the IIT takes admission in MBA through JMET Exam and CAT Exam.

So now here I am providing the syllabus for JMET Exam:

JMET Exam Syllabus

Verbal Communication
Communicative English
English as a language of business
Decision-making roles
Comprehension
English expression
Analysis of business articles
Non-fiction prose
Grammar and usage

Logical Reasoning
Analytical reasoning
Analysis of explanation questions
Argument analysis

Quantitative Ability
Area, volume, effort, etc
Complementary Events
Correlation and Simple Linear Regression
Demand and Supply
Determinants
Elementary Geometry
Equations and Inequalities
Estimation of time
Fractions
Frequency Distributions
Introductory Set Theory
Matrices
Central Tendency and Dispersion
Numbers
Permutations and Combinations
Time and Distance
Types of Data
Data Interpretation
Graphs
Pie charts
Simple tables
Binomial, Poisson and Normal Random Variables
Banking Transactions
Cost and Revenue
Conditional Probability and Independent Events
Distance,
Elementary differential calculus
Depreciation
Decimals and Percentages
HCF and LCM
Mensuration
Logarithms
Probability Concepts
Progressions
Operations
Pipes and Tanks
Unions and Intersections
Scatter diagrams
Histograms
Time and Work
Roots and Power
Ratio and Proportion

JMET Exam Question Paper

Directions: For Questions 1 to 3, choose the option

that is CLOSEST in meaning to the capitalized

words.

1. SERENDIPITY



(1) severity (2) caricature

(3) chance (4) logic

2. LAMBENT



(1) latent (2) petulant

(3) mordant (4) radiant

3. PRESTIDIGITATOR



(1) rapporteur (2) conjuror

(3) speaker (4) contractor

Directions: Questions 4 to 6 relate to the passage

given below.

I met Tom Dunfee in the Year 1977, when he joined the

National Endowment for the Humanities supported

team of philosophers, business professors, and

businessmen who proposed guidelines for a business

ethics course. It was not long before Tom Dunfee

invited me to co-teach some classes with him at

Wharton. I came to class well-armed with my

philosophical principles. However, Tom quickly

convinced me that these principles needed to take

account of the realm of the possible which meant

taking account of how ethics is practised in the world.

And, when a social scientist or lawyer looked at the

world, it was undeniable that there was a lot of

disagreement about ethics. What people actually

believed and institutionalized regarding ethics was too

messy for an easy application of ethical principles. That

was particularly true in the world of business ethics.

That message of complexity, messiness, or noise in the

system was a common theme in Tom Dunfee’s work. I

believe you can see it in Ties That Bind. The hyper-
norms are analogous to the universal principles of Tom

Donaldson’s book The Ethics of International Business

while all those micro- and macro-social contracts are

examples of moral practice. And, the notion of moral

free space is, I suspect, an attempt by Tom Dunfee to

give validation to the variety of ethical opinion on a

large amount of ethical matters, especially in business

ethics. When you worked with Tom Dunfee, it was not

enough to simply appeal to ethical principles; you

needed to take into account how people thought about

and practised ethics.



4. The author of this passage speaks from the

perspective of the discipline of



(1) Philosophy (2) Business Management

(3) Sociology (4) Ethics



5. Which of the following can be the MOST

APPROPRIATE title for the passage?



(1) Seminar on Business Ethics Course

(2) Ethical Principles for Business Ethics

(3) Balancing Principles and Practice in Business

(4) The Ethics of International Business



6. The author of the passage is most likely to believe

that



(1) ethics consists of micro-contracts among

(2) ethics consists of macro-contracts among

(3) ethics consists of what people practise.

(4) ethics consists of universal principles.



Directions: For Questions 7 and 8, choose the

option that BEST completes the relationship

indicated in the capitalized pair.



7. CRITICISE: FULMINATE



(1) Tease: Assuage (2) Flail: Control

(3) Hurt: Torture (4) Laud: Prevaricate



8. POETRY: BALLAD



(1) Reptile: Snake (2) Bulb: Tubelight

(3) Snake: Reptile (4) Life: Death


Directions: For Questions 9 and 10, choose the

option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the idioms.

9. Up the apples and pears



(1) up the trees (2) up the wall

(3) up the stairs (4) beyond imagination

10. Jot or tittle



(1) scribble (2) trifle

(3) illegible (4) talkative



Directions: Questions 11 to 13 relate to the passage

given below.

Cryptozoologist Loren Coleman visited Line Road last

week to do his own investigation into a couple's claim

that something like Bigfoot walked in front of their car.

On Monday, Coleman said that the man had reported

seeing something hairy, 7 feet tall and walking upright,

cross the road on the morning of Feb. 8th near the

Greene-Leeds town line. The woman with him put its

height at closer to 6 l/2 feet.

“They're just afraid it would ruin their lives because of

all the ridicule," Coleman said. "They're really very

skittish."

Coleman, who has a museum in Portland dedicated to

mostly unconfirmed creatures (Bigfoot, the Loch Ness

monster, the Jersey Devil), was involved several years

ago in naming the Turner Beast, a black animal that

created enough mystery that it made national headlines

before being unmasked as a dog.

The area has had other historical Bigfoot sightings, he

said, as well as sightings of animals described as black

panthers and cougars. Mystery cats, Coleman said,

seem to live in one place year-round; he questioned

whether Bigfoot migrates through the area in spring

and fall.

"l think what's happening, we may have a Turner

Triangle where there's a lot of marshy land," Coleman

said. "My conceptualization is that the whole area is

more wild than the people in Lewiston or Portland

understand."

Eric Nickerson lives on Line Road, a quarter-mile from

the point of the sighting. He said he's never seen

anything strange in the woods there. In the early 1980s,

however, 8 miles away on Turner Center Bridge Road,

he claims his brother saw a Bigfoot and that, riding

home one day on his bike, he himself was chased by

one.



Bill Dubois, manager at the family business Red Roof in

Leeds, said people had been in the store gossiping

about the sighting, though most of the information was

second or third-hand.



"The people that saw it seemed pretty spooked," he

said.



His take on whether something could be in the woods

out that way: "In this world, you never know. I have

one customer that was just a Bigfoot freak; he believes

in it. Telling him, he got all excited."



11. The word “skittish” in the passage means



(1) shy (2) aggressive

(3) methodical (4) considerate



12. From the passage, it is possible to infer that



(1) the sightings of mysterious animals are all

(2) the sightings of mysterious animals could be

(3) none of the sightings of mysterious animals is

(4) all the reports of the sightings were first-hand.



13. Choose the closest in meaning and grammatically

correct option in passive voice of the following

sentence “the whole area is more wild than the

people in Lewiston or Portland understand.”



(1) The whole area is wilder than the people in

(2) The whole area is more wild than understood

(3) It is more wild in the whole area than the

(4) It is understood that the whole area is more


Directions: Questions 14 to 16 relate to the passage

given below.

The behavioral economics literature provides several

motivations for the common observation that agents

appear somewhat unwilling to deviate from their

recent choices. For instance, some researchers mention

the bias towards recent choices as an example of the

availability bias, the ease with which instances come to

mind. Similarly, others have argued that players, when

indifferent between strategies, choose the most salient

strategy. In combination with the so-called recency

effect, this may explain why agents appear to have a

preference for recent choices. The recency effect refers

to the cognitive bias that results from disproportionate

salience of recent stimuli or observations. Other

motivations include models for agents displaying

defaulting behavior or inertia, the formation of habits,

the use of rules of thumb, or the locking in on certain

modes of behavior due to learning by doing or, as some

express it: unlearning by not doing.

14. In the above passage, ‘rules of thumb’ means



(1) Rules based on theory

(2) Rules based on practice

(3) Rules based on signature

(4) Rules based on law

15. Which of the following sentences best sums up the

meaning of the passage most accurately?



(1) The passage enumerates biases towards

recent choices.

(2) The passage suggests that learning is as

valuable as unlearning.

(3) The passage draws a hierarchy among various

kinds of motivations.

(4) The passage discusses the several motivations

for agents’ lack of deviation from their recent

choices.

16. Identify the grammatically correct sentence from

the following options without distorting the

meaning of the passage:



(1) One of the agents’ choices is motivated by the

availability bias.

(2) One of the agent’s choice is motivated by the

availability bias.



(3) One of agent’s choices is motivated by the

(4) One of the choice of the agents is motivated by



Directions: Read the following options and answer

the question.



17. In the options given below, identify the one

sentence which has an incorrect spelling:



(1) The need to handle hazardous radio-active

(2) Robotics is multidisciplinary in nature, and

(3) There is a pressing need for intellectual

(4) More infrastructure and facilities will

Directions: Question 18 consists of four jumbled

sentences, which need to be arranged in logical

sequence. Choose the option which has the correct

logical sequence.



18.

i. Ironically, the Iranian television programmers

ii. A few years ago some members of the Iranian

iii. The cartoon version of Around the World in

iv. The committee issued a lengthy report in





(1) ii-i-iv-iii (2) ii-iv-iii-i

(3) ii-iv-i-iii (4) i-iii-iv-ii



Directions: For Questions 19 and 20, choose the

option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the

capitalized words.

19. FAINEANT



(1) fainting (2) active

(3) feigning (4) idle

20. IMMURE



(1) free (2) ridicule

(3) mure (4) cry

Directions: Questions 21 to 24 relate to the passage

given below.

Buchanan’s constitutional economics takes social

conflict (the 'Hobbesian jungle', 'Hobbesian anarchy) as

the starting point for the analysis of social contract.

Buchanan argues that in the presence of social conflict

either some social contract (eg. some system of formal

laws) or some generally shared moral precepts are

needed to resolve the predicament that social conflict

presents. In this piece, I argue that a social conflict

model also served the Old Testament as an analytical

starting point. However, contrary to both standard

theological interpretation and Buchanan's explicit

claims, I argue that the Old Testament had already

made an attempt to model 'Hobbesian anarchy' in

order to approach social conflict in an essentially

modern, non-metaphysical manner. I argue that figures

like Adam and Eve or Jacob, in the tradition of

Hobbesian anarchists, questioned godly authority and

the associated imposed, authoritarian, metaphysical

social contract. In this way, one can detect a modern,

contractarian constitutional economics in pre-
Enlightenment literature (and in Genesis, specifically)

in direct contrast to Buchanan's claims.

21. The author of the passage



(1) Agrees with Buchanan

(2) Partly agrees with Buchanan

(3) Is indifferent to Buchanan

(4) Disagrees with Buchanan



22. The author believes that



(1) Social conflicts are always resolved through

(2) Buchanan’s constitutional economics and

(3) Buchanan’s constitutional economics and

(4) Buchanan’s constitutional economics and



23. The most likely explanation of contractariain

constitutional economics would be



(1) There is no relationship between social

(2) Social contracts are used to resolve social

(3) Adam, Eve and Jacob believed in Buchanan’s

(4) Social contracts may lead to social conflict.



24. According to the passage ‘questioning godly

authority’ could be a form of



(1) Social Contract

(2) Shared Moral Precept

(3) Social Conflict

(4) Social Contract and Shared Moral Precept



Directions: The direct speech in Question 25 is

rewritten as reported speech (indirect form) in the

given options. Identify the grammatically CORRECT

option.



25. A: “When are you returning?"

B: “l can’t tell”.



(1) A asked B when she was returning and B

(2) A asked B when was she returning and B

(3) A asked B when she was going to return, and B

(4) A asked B if when she was returning, and B



Directions: For Question 26, choose the option that

best describes the correct sequence of words to fill

in the blanks in the passage.

26. Most of these killings have enjoyed the backing of

the mighty kangaroo courts, which should have

___1___ themselves to sorting out minor village

feuds but exceeded their jurisdiction. Over the past

few years, these panchayats have ___2___ bizarre

diktats to married couples such as to sever the

marriage and accept each other as ___3___ , and

socially boycotted their families and, if they still

don’t relent, provoked attacks on them which have

___4___ several young lives.



(1) 1. confined 2. issued 3. friends 4. punished

(2) 1. urged 2. issued 3. neighbours 4. claimed

(3) 1. charged 2. granted 3. spouses 4. punished

(4) 1. confined 2. issued 3. siblings 4. claimed

Directions: ln Questions 27 and 28, choose the

closest grammatical and meaningful option to fill in

the blank in the sentence.

27. It is perhaps a tribute to his personal integrity and

scrupulously honest reputation ________ calls him a

fine soldier.



(1) while none of the generals he acted against

(2) whereas one of the generals he acted against

also

(3) that even one of the generals he acted against

(4) that some of the generals he acted against

28. We lived in a culture that denied any merit to

literary works, ________ something seemingly more

urgent, namely ideology.



(1) consider them more important only when they

were handmaidens to

(2) considering them important only when they

were handmaidens to

(3) are considering them important only when

they were handmaidens to

(4) seem to consider them important only when

they were handmaidens to

Directions: In Questions 29 and 30, choose the

option that is closest in meaning to the capitalized

word in the sentences.



29. By long brooding over our recollections, we

SUBTILIZE them into something akin to imaginary

stuff, and hardly capable of being distinguished

from it.



(1) arrange (2) differentiate

(3) elevate (4) degrade



30. How does it come that a few short hours later we

find him galloping TANTIVY over the dusty hills?



(1) unsurely (2) swiftly

(3) carefully (4) slowly


SECTION II: LOGICAL REASONING (Questions 31 - 60)

Directions for Questions 31 to 34: Read the following

information and answer the questions.

An ice-cream maker is experimenting with six chemical

essences, U, V, W, X, Y and Z for developing a new

flavour called “SWEETER & HEALTHIER”. The details of

these chemical essences are as follows:

1. U is sweeter than V and healthier than Z.

2. V is sweeter than Y and less healthy than Z.

3. W is less sweet than X and less healthy than U.

4. X is less sweet and healthier than Y.

5. Y is less sweet and healthier than U.

6. Z is sweeter than U and less healthy than W.

31. Which is the sweetest essence?



(1) U (2) W (3) X (4) Z

32. Which of the following essences is/are both

sweeter and healthier than V?



(1) U only (2) W only

(3) Z only (4) U & Z only

33. Which of the following essences is/are sweeter

than Y and healthier than W?



(1) U only (2) V only

(3) Z only (4) U & V only

34. Which is the least healthy essence?



(1) U (2) V (3) W (4) Y


Directions for Questions 35 to 38: Read the following

information and answer the questions.

Every morning five friends Mahima, Nimisha, Omez,

Parul and Quan go to the railway station and board a

train that stops at six subsequent stations which are

numbered l to 6. The train stops at Station l and

proceeds in numerical order to Station 6.

1. Mahima gets off either at Station 1 or at Station 2.

2. Omez always gets off one station before or one

station after Quan's station.

3. Parul always gets off at Station 3.

4. Quan always gets off at Station 4, 5 or 6.



5. No one re-boards the morning train after getting

off.



35. On a morning, when no one gets off at Station 5 or

6, which of the following MUST be true?



(1) Mahima gets off at Station 2

(2) Nimisha gets off at Station 2

(3) Omez gets off at Station 4

(4) Omez and Parul get off at the same station



36. On a morning, when Quan gets off at Station 4 and

no more than two of the friends get off at any one

station, which of the following MUST be true?



(1) lf Nimisha gets off at Station 2, Mahima gets off

(2) If Nimisha gets off at Station 3, Omez gets off at

(3) If Nimisha gets off at Station 4, Omez gets off at

(4) If Omez gets off at Station 3, Nimisha gets off at



37. At which amongst the following stations is it

possible for Nimisha and Omez to be the only

friends getting off the morning train?



(1) I only (2) II and III only

(3) III only (4) I and II only



38. On a morning, when no one gets off at Station I and

each of the five friends gets off at a different

station, which of the following cannot be true?



(1) Nimisha gets off one station before Quan.

(2) Parul gets off one station before Omez.

(3) Mahima gets off at Station 2.

(4) Nimisha gets off at Station 5.


Directions for Question 39: There are four statements

followed by four conclusions. You have to take the

given statements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance from commonly known facts, and decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows from

the given statements.

39. Statements:

i. All cricketers are football players.

ii. Some hockey players are cricketers.

iii. No football player is a basketball player.

iv. No basketball player is a hockey player.

Conclusions:

I. Some hockey players are football players.

II. No basketball player is a cricketer.

III. Some hockey players are basketball players.

IV. Some football players are cricketers.



(1) I only (2) I, II & IV only

(3) I & IV only (4) I & II only

Directions for Questions 40 to 43: Read the following

information and answer the questions.

The owner of the house has been murdered. The

visitors to the house were Aditya, Vijay and Puneet. The

following additional information is also given.

1. The murderer who was one of the three visitors,

arrived at the house later than at least one of the

other two visitors.

2. The driver of the house who was one of the three

visitors, arrived at the house earlier than at least

one of the two visitors.

3. The driver arrived at the house at midnight.

4. Neither Aditya nor Vijay arrived at the house after

midnight.

5. Between Vijay and Puneet, the one who arrived

earlier was not the driver.

6. Between Aditya and Puneet, the one who arrived

later was not the murderer.

40. Who arrived at the house earliest?



(1) Puneet (2) Aditya

(3) Vijay (4) Data insuflicient

41. Who is the murderer?



(1) Puneet (2) Aditya



(3) Vijay (4) Data insufficient



42. Who is the driver?



(1) Puneet (2) Vijay

(3) Aditya (4) Data insufficient



43. Who arrived at the house last?



(1) Puneet (2) Aditya

(3) Vijay (4) Data insufficient



Directions for Questions 44 to 45: Read the following

information and answer the questions.



There are five teams – Paraguay, Qatar, Russia, Spain

and Turkey playing in a tournament where each team

plays against every other team only once. These are the

following possibilities: each match can result in a draw

where each team scores two points; or a team can win

where it scores three points, while the losing team

scores one point.



44. If Paraguay has won all the matches and Turkey

has lost all the matches and all the remaining three

teams score equal points, how many points have

each of the three remaining teams scored?



(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6



45. If all the five teams have an equal score, what is the

number of points scored by each team?



(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8



Directions for Questions 46 to 48: Read the following

information and answer the questions.



Four students, Promilla, Qadir, Rita and Sridhar, each

working under the guidance of one of the four

professors – Anand, Bose, Chandrashekharan, and

Deshpande, made their final year MBA project

presentations one by one, one each in the area of

Finance, Marketing, Systems, and Human Resource

Management(HRM). Each professor is an expert in only

one of the above areas, and has supervised exactly one

of the above students in her/his own area. The

following clues are provided.


1. The first presentation was made by Rita.

2. Prof. Bose works in Finance.

3. Prof. Deshpande was Promilla’s supervisor.

4. The last presentation was in the Systems area.

5. Sridhar’s project was in HRM area.

6. Prof. Bose’s student’s presentation followed Prof.

Chandrashekharan’s student’s presentation.

46. In which area was Rita’s project'?



(1) Marketing (2) Finance

(3) Systems (4) Cannot be determined

47. What is Prof. Deshpande’s area of expertise?



(1) Marketing (2) HRM

(3) Systems (4) Cannot be determined

48. Which student completed her/his project under

Prof. Bose’s supervision?



(1) Qadir (2) Rita

(3) Sridhar (4) Cannot be determined



Directions for Questions 49 and 50: In the following

questions, a statement is given followed by three

assumptions: I, II, III. In the context of the questions, an

assumption is something to be taken for granted. You

have to consider the statement and the assumptions,

and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the

statement, then decide which one of the answers is

correct answer.

49. Statements: Prakash decided to get his railway

reservation done in the month of May for the

journey he wants to undertake in July to Mumbai.



Assumptions:

I. The railways open reservation two months in

advance.

II. There is more than one train to Mumbai.

III. There will be a vacancy in the desired class.



(1) II and III (2) I

(3) I and II (4) III

50. Statement: In a recently held all-India conference,

the session on Brand Management in India

surprisingly attracted a large number of

participants and also received excellent media

coverage in the leading newspapers.



Assumptions:

I. Nobody expected such an encouraging

II. Brands are not managed properly in India.

III. The Media is always very positive towards



(1) I (2) I and II

(3) I and III (4) I, II and III



Directions: Answer Questions 51 to 55 on the basis

of the following information.



ln a family, Ishita is the granddaughter of Ashima.

Deepika is the mother of Hannah. Chetan is the son of

Anil. Rohini is the mother of Ishita. Deepika is the sister

of Vivek and Chetan. Nilesh has two children, Gauri and

Hannah. Elesh is the only grandson in the family.

Chelan is not married. Rohini is the daughter-in-law of

Anil.



51. Who is married to Rohini?



(1) Anil (2) Nilesh (3) Chetan (4) Vivek



52. Who is the daughter of Anil?



(1) Gauri (2) Hannah (3) Ishita (4) Deepika



53. Who is the son-in-law of Ashima?



(1) Elesh (2) Vivek (3) Nilesh (4) Anil



54. How many children does Deepika have?



(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) none



55. Who is the father of Ishita?



(1) Nilesh (2) Vivek (3) Elesh (4) Anil



Directions: Answer Question 56 on the basis of the

following information.

56. In India, it has been observed that during the post-
liberalisation era, R&D intensive firms have

attracted more Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).



If the above statement is true, which of the

following options can be most logically deduced?



(1) R&D intensive firms will always get FDI.

(2) Companies getting FDI will have high R&D

(3) Firms investing in R&D have higher chances of

getting FDI.

(4) Firms will get FDI if the economic regime is

liberalized.

Directions: Answer Questions 57 to 60 on the basis

of the following information.

There are five friends, Charlie, John, Bobby, Anderson

and David. Each one of them belongs to one of the

following nations: the UK, the USA, Australia, France

and Spain. Each one plays a different game namely,

Football, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo. Charlie

plays neither Tennis nor Polo and belongs either to the

UK or Spain. David belongs to the USA and plays

Football. John belongs to Australia and plays neither

Polo nor Cricket. Anderson plays Hockey and belongs

either to France or Spain. Bobby belongs neither to

France nor the UK.

57. To which country does Bobby belong?



(1) The UK (2) The USA

(3) Australia (4) Spain



58. What game does Charlie play?



(1) Football (2) Cricket

(3) Polo (4) Hockey

59. What is the name of John's country and what game

does he play?



(1) The USA, Cricket

(2) The UK, Polo

(3) Australia, Tennis

(4) France, Football

60. Which of the following is the correct option?



(1) Charlie belongs to Spain and does not play

(2) David belongs to France and plays Football.

(3) Anderson plays Tennis but does not belong to

(4) Bobby plays Polo and belongs to Spain.

SECTION III: Quantitative Ability (Questions 61 - 90)

Directions: Questions 61 and 62 are based on the

following information.

A manufacturing firm is engaged in producing three

different types of bearings P, Q and R. These bearings

are produced at the company’s two plants, which have

different production capacity. In a normal 8-hour day,

Plant 1 can produce 50, 100 and 100 bearings of types

P, Q and R, respectively while Plant 2 can produce 60

bearings of Type P, 60 of Type Q and 200 of Type R. The

monthly demand for bearings of Type P, Q and R is

2500, 3000 and 7000 units, respectively. The daily cost

of operation of Plant 1 is Rs. 2500 and that of Plant 2 is

Rs. 3500.

61. If X and Y represent the number of working days

for Plant 1 and Plant 2 respectively, then the

mathematical formulation for minimization of the

operating cost is given by:



(1) Min: Z = 2500X + 3500Y

Subject to:


(2) Min: Z = 3500X + 2500Y

Subject to:

(3) Min: Z = 2500X + 3500Y

Subject to:

4) Min: Z = 2500X + 3500Y

Subject to:

62. The minimum cost of operation in rupees is:



(1) 137500 (2) 128000

(3) 141655 (4) 101755


63. The daily demand distribution of a product is given

below:



Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Probability 0.2 0.1 0.15 0.25 0.2 0.06 0.04

Demand 1500 1200 1600 1400 1600 1000 1500



The company wants to produce ten percent more

than the expected demand, so as to reduce stock-
outs. What is the production target?



(1) 1595 (2) 1680 (3) 1704 (4) 1856



64. A student pedals from his home to college at a

speed of 10 km/hr and back from the college to his

home at 15 km/hr. What is the average speed?



(1) 14 km/hr (2) 13 km/hr

(3) 12.5 km/hr (4) 12 km/hr



65. A bank issued credit card numbers and the

corresponding PIN (Personal Identification

Number). Both are 3-digit numbers up to 996.

Pinaki was the last to get the card and so he had

the last possible credit card number. He was afraid

of forgetting his PIN. He wrote down number 123

in his diary to remember his PIN. He also wrote out

the way to calculate 123: “Multiply the card

number by PIN. Divide the product by 997. The

remainder is 123”. Once. Prafull saw his diary in

which Pinaki wrote this number 123. Prafull did a

lot of purchasing, as he now knows Pinaki’s PIN.

What is Pinaki‘s PIN?



(1) 874 (2) 875 (3) 876 (4) 877



66. A square of side 1 cm is revolved about a line

which is parallel to one of its diagonals. If the

shortest distance of a vertex from this line is 1 cm.

then the volume of the solid thus generated is



(1) ( √ )

(2) ( √ )

PP-02 3A.11 www.TestFunda.com



(3) ( √ )

(4) ( √ )

67. Ajay loses 20 % of his money. After spending 80 %

of the remainder, he is left with Rs. 4500. How

much money (in rupees) did he have initially?



(1) 16785 (2) 36165

(3) 17165 (4) 28125



Directions: Questions 68 and 69 are based on the

following information.

Out of 6 ruling and 5 opposition party members, 4 are

to be selected for a delegation.

68. In how many ways can this be done so as to include

exactly one ruling party member?



(1) 50 (2) 80 (3) 45 (4) 60

69. In how many ways can this be done so as to include

at least one opposition member?



(1) 300 (2) 315 (3) 415 (4) 410

70. The number of prime number between 490 and

500 is



(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

71. Two cars, an Alto and a Swift, start at the same

time in opposite directions from two distinct points

P and Q. Starting from P, the Alto reaches Q in 6

hours 20 minutes and the Swift starting from Q,

reaches P in 4 hours 45 minutes. What is the speed

of the Swift, if the speed of the Alto is 60 Km/hr?



(1) 110 km/hr (2) 100 km/hr

(3) 90 km/hr (4) 80 km/hr

72. A carpenter is designing a table. The table will be in

the form of a rectangle whose length is 4 feet more

than its width. How long should the table be if the

carpenter wants the area of the table to be 45

square feet?



(1) 9 feet (2) 11 feet

(3) 6 feet (4) 13 feet



73. A fruit vendor professes to sell fruits at the cost

price, but uses false weights. He gains 30 % in this

manner. What weight does he substitute for one

kilogram?



( )



( )



74. If the chance that a vessel arrives safely at a port is

9/10, what is the chance that out of 5 vessels

expected at least 4 will arrive safely?


75. There are four hotels in a town. If 3 men check into

the hotels in a day, what is the probability that each

checks into a different hotel?



(1) 6/7 (2) 1/8 (3) 3/8 (4) 5/9



76. If 5 % of the electric bulbs manufactured by a

company are defective, what is the probability that

in a sample of 100 bulbs none is defective?



(1) e



77. The greatest common divisor of 123456789 and

987654321 is



(1) 1 (2) 3

(3) 9 (4) greater than 9



78. The central pole of a conical tent is 3/2 meter high.

The pole is supported by ropes tied to its top and

nails on the ground. If, on the ground from the foot

of the pole, the distances of the surface of the tent

and the nail(s) are in the ratio of l:3, and if the

angles of depression from the top of the pole of the

nails and the surface of the tent are in the ratio of

1:2, then the length of one such rope is:




(1) –2 (2) 0

(3) 2 (4) does not exist

80. A circle, centered at the origin and of radius π, is

divided by the curve y = sin x into two parts. The

area of one of the parts is:



(1) π2 (2) π3 (3) π3/2 (4) 2π2



81. Amit has 11 friends: 7 boys and 4 girls. In how

many ways, can Amit invite them, if there have to

be exactly 4 boys in the invitees?



(1) 560 (2) 450 (3) 650 (4) 820

82. A saint has a magic pot. He puts one gold ball of

radius 1 mm daily inside it for 10 days. If the

weight of the first ball is 1 gm and if the radius of a

ball inside the pot doubles every day, how much

gold has the saint made due to his magic pot?



(1) (230 – 69)/7 gm (2) (230 + 69)/7 gm

(3) (230 – 71)/7 gm (4) (230 + 71)/7 gm



83. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3:5. If 9 is

subtracted from each, then they are in the ratio of

12:23. What is the larger number?



(1) 55 (2) 45 (3) 60 (4) 40

84. Suppose circles Cn (n = 1, 2, ...) concentric at the

point O are drawn in such a way that the line Pn

Pn+1 is of unit length and is perpendicular to OPn

for every n = 1, 2, ... . If the point Pn is on the circle

Cn and Sn is the area of the region between circles

Cn and Cn+1 for n = 1, 2, ... then the value of




(1) π (2) –π (3) 0 (4) 2π

85. A ladder kept in support of a wall makes an angle

of 22.5° with the ground. The distance between the

bottom of the wall and the foot of the ladder is 2 m.

What is the length of the ladder?



87. Mahesh visited his cousin Akash during the

summer vacation. In the mornings, they both

would go for swimming. In the evenings, they

would play tennis. They would engage in at most

one activity per day, i.e., either they went

swimming or played tennis each day. There were

days when they took rest and stayed home all day

long. There were 32 mornings when they did

nothing, 18 evenings when they stayed at home,

and a total of 28 days when they swam or played

tennis. What duration of the summer vacation did

Mahesh stay with Akash?



(1) 46 days (2) 36 days

(3) 39 days (4) 58 days



88. Suppose the English alphabet letters A, B, C, ... , Z

are denoted by the remainders obtained on

dividing the numbers 20, 21, 22, ... , 225, respectively,

by 29, then the letter “K” would be denoted by



(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9



89. Which one of the following conditions must a, b

and c satisfy so that the following system of linear

simultaneous equations has at least one solution,

such that a + b + c ≠ 0



m + 2n – 3r = a

2m + 6n – 11r = b

m – 2n + 7r = c



(1) 5a + 2b + c = 0 (2) 5a + 2b – c = 0

(3) 5a – 2b – c = 0 (4) 5a – 2b + c = 0



90. A carpenter makes a triangular table, the lengths of

whose sides are in Arithmetic Progression. If the

area of the table is 6 sq. ft. then the perimeter of

one such table is:



(1) 6 ft (2) 24 ft (3) 12 ft (4) 36 ft

PP-02 3A.13 www.TestFunda.com



SECTION IV: Data Interpretation (Questions 91 - 120)



Directions: Questions 91 to 93 are based on the following information.

The Unique IDentification (UID) Project has indicated the following demographic information about the residents of

a district. The basic qualifications of the male and female citizens, as on the years 2000 and 2010, in different age

groups, are shown in the following table.

UID Demographics in percent

Gender MALE FEMALE

Age < 25 Years 25 - 40 Years > 40 Years < 25 Years 25 - 40 Years > 40 Years

Qualification

College (PG)

College(UG)

School

College (PG)

College(UG)

School

College (PG)

College(UG)

School

2000 20 8 5 18 10 7 15 12 5 25 5 3 20 8 7 20 10 3

2010 18 6 9 16 10 9 17 8 7 20 7 6 18 5 12 15 15 3

91. The largest increase in the percentage of PG qualified residents in the district, from 2000 to 2010, has occurred

amongst



(1) Females in the 25-40 years age group

(2) Females in the below 25 years age group

(3) Males in the below 25 years age group

(4) Cannot be determined

92. Looking at the data trend from 2000 to 2010, the number of residents who have only high school qualification as

a percentage of the total district population has



(1) Decreased for both females and males

(2) Increased for females but decreased for males

(3) Decreased for females but increased for males

(4) Increased for both males and females

93. The ratio of UG and PG qualified females of age 25 years and older to the UG and PG qualified males of age 25

years and older



(1) Has remained the same in 2000 and 2010

(2) Has increased from 2000 to 2010

(3) Has decreased from 2000 to 2010

(4) Cannot be determined from the data given

Directions: Questions 94 to 96 are based on the

following information.

The National Institute of Management (NIM) has

recently admitted 300 students in its Master of

Business Administration (MBA) programme. Students

have come either through the Common Aptitude Test


(CAT) stream, which fetched 60 students out of 60000

applicants, or through the Joint Management Entrance

Test (JMET), from which 240 students have been

admitted out of 96000 applicants. The pie charts below

show the distribution of the admitted students, based

on their prior discipline, as being from either



Engineering (ENGG), or Science (SCI), or Commerce

(COM), or Humanities (HUM).

SCI

20%

COM

30%

HUM

25%

ENGG

25%



CAT (60 Students)

SCI

25%

COM

20%

HUM

10%

ENGG

45%


JMET (240 Students)

94. The ratio of students with Humanities (HUM)

background in CAT stream admissions in NIM, to

those in JMET stream admissions in NIM is



(1) 5.0 (2) 2.5

(3) Less than 0.5 (4) 0.625



95. Considering both CAT and JMET streams, the

number of students in NIM with Science (SCI) and

Engineering (ENGG) background exceeds the

number of students with non-SCI and non-ENGG

backgrounds by



(1) Less than 50

(2) Between 51 and 100

(3) Between 101 and 150

(4) More than 150



96. The ratio of the number of students with

Commerce (COM) discipline in NIM from JMET

stream to those in NIM from CAT stream is



(1) 3/8 (2) 8/3 (3) 18/12 (4) 12/18


Directions: Questions 97 to 99 are based on the following information.

A National Business School (NBS) has organized three types of Management Education Programmes (MEP): a

regular MBA programme (RMBA), a part-time evening MBA programme (EMBA) and a distance MBA programme

(DMBA). In the year 2009, the demographics of students enrolled in RMBA, EMBA and DMBA are shown in the table

below, wherein the work experience is represented as integers in number of years.

RMBA EMBA DMBA TOTAL

Male Female Male Female Male Female Male Female

4 to 6 (inclusive of

Work experience

(years)

0 20 20 10 10 10 20 40 50

1 to 3 (inclusive of

both values)

both values)

> 6 50 10 20 20 10 40 80 70

Total 150 60 60 60 90 180 300 300

50 20 20 20 20 60 90 100

30 10 10 10 50 60 90 80


97. The number of non-DMBA students having work experience of 1 to 3 years, as a percentage of the total number

of students in NBS, is



(1) 55.6% (2) 45.3% (3) 25.6% (4) 18.3%

98. What proportion of all students in NBS are male students with work experience of more than 6 years?



(1) 8/60 (2) 24/60 (3) 30/60 (4) 45/60

99. The number of male students with more than 3 years experience in RMBA and EMBA differs from the number of

female students with 3 years and lesser experience in EMBA and DMBA by



(1) 0 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

Directions: Questions 100 to 102 are based on the following information.

The results of a General Studies Paper (GSP) administered to candidates appearing in the Civil Services Examination

are given in the Table below. The GSP has four sections of 100 marks each. These sections are History, Sciences,

Political Science, and Current Affairs. The numbers in the Table below represent the number of candidates securing

the respective range of marks, given in discrete numbers, wherein all the candidates wrote all the four sections.

Range of

Marks

Range of

Marks

Range of

Marks

Section

History 1520 9150 9210 13135 10785 8210 2990

Sciences 3300 6950 8910 12150 10125 9750 3815

Political

Science

Current

Affairs

Range of

Marks

0 – 10 11 – 25 26 – 40 41 – 55 56 – 70 71 – 85 86 – 100

5175 6500 8625 14215 9590 5750 5145

2750 8185 9190 16250 10140 6200 2285

100. The total number of candidates who appeared for the Civil Services Examination, assuming that all the

candidates wrote all the four sections, is



(1) 50000 (2) 55000 (3) 60000 (4) 65000



101. If the minimum marks for qualifying in the Civil Services Examination is more than 40% in each section, the

ratio of the number qualifying in History to the number qualifying in Political Science is



(1) 1.112 (2) 1.012 (3) 0.912 (4) 0.812

102. Comparing the modal ranges of all the subjects, it is seen that the largest number of candidates got marks in the

range of



(1) 11 – 25 (2) 56 – 70 (3) 41 – 55 (4) 26 – 40
Directions: Questions 103 to 105 are based on the

following information.

The performance in a Metro Infrastructure Project in a

metropolitan city is being measured in terms of the

following major subprojects: Soil investigation and

Geotechnical (SIG); Underground Tunnels and

Structures (UTS); Flyovers and Super Structures (FSS);

and Railway Stations and Shelters (RSS). The bar chart

in the following figure shows the Estimated Time of

each of the subprojects. The numbers above these bars

represent either the start-time or the finish-time of the

subproject. During the review of the project

performance, the Actual Duration of each subproject, as

a percentage of the Estimated Duration is shown in the

following table.

Duration of a subproject and that of its immediate

predecessor not more than 9 months?



(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4



105. What is the ratio of the actual time taken by the

largest subproject to that of its immediate

predecessor?



(1) (4/3)2 (2) (2/3)2 (3) (3/4)2 (4) (3/2)2

40

15

40

UTS

20

60 100

RSS 70

FSS



Directions: Questions 106 to 108 are based on the

following information.



The table below gives the state-wise cumulative

utilization of funds available under the Members of

Parliament – Local Area Development Scheme (MP-
LADS), by the Lok Sabha MPs, for the fiscal years 2005-

06 and 2006-07.



(Amount in Rs. Crores)



States having

MP-LADS

0

SIG

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Estimated Time in Months

Andhra

Pradesh

Bihar 812 70 880 78

Gujarat 542 95 586 90

Madhya

Pradesh

Subproject

SIG 100

UTS 100

FSS 60

RSS 80

103. In which of the following pairs of subprojects is the

ratio of the Actual Duration to the Estimated

Duration, the minimum?



(1) SIG and UTS (2) UTS and FSS

(3) FSS and RSS (4) RSS and SIG

104. In the Metro infrastructure Project, in how many

subprojects is the difference between the Actual

Actual Duration

(As % of Estimated Duration)

Karnataka 578 93 628 89



Maharashtra 977 89 1080 85

Rajasthan 530 82 587 88

Uttar

Pradesh

Total

(8 States)



106. The percentage of funds utilized by Andhra

Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, and Maharashtra has

changed in the following way from fiscal year

2005-06 to 2006-07



(1) Increased by around 10%

(2) Remained the same

(3) Decreased by around 10%

(4) Decreased by around 5%

PP-02 3A.17 www.TestFunda.com



107. The ratio of the funds utilized by Bihar, as the

percentage of the funds utilized by all the states in

fiscal year 2005-06 to 2006-07 has



(1) Decreased by around 1%

(2) Decreased by around 5%

(3) Increased by around 5%

(4) Increased by around 1%

108. The ratio of the funds available to Uttar Pradesh

against those available to all other states in fiscal

years 2005-06 and 2006-07 has



(1) Decreased by around 1%

(2) Decreased by around 5%

(3) Increased by around 5%

(4) Increased by around 1%


Directions: Answer questions 109 to 112 on the basis of information provided below.

A pharmaceutical firm has an R&D division and every year investment is made to augment the innovation process in

the organization. Total sales of the firm comprises sales from the generic medicines and sales from the patented

drugs. The following diagram provides graphical presentation of data (in millions of rupees) on sales from the

generic medicines, patented drugs and R&D investment from 2000 to 2010.

Sales from Generic Medicines Sales from Patented Drugs R & D Investment S

60

50

Sales, Investment (in million rupees)

40

30

20

10

0

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Year

109. In which of the following years were sales from patented drugs more than one third of the sales from the

generic medicines?



(1) 2000 (2) 2004 (3) 2005 (4) 2006

110. In which of the following years was the annual rate of growth of R&D investment the maximum?



(1) 2001 (2) 2003 (3) 2007 (4) 2009



111. What is the number of total years during which sales from the generic medicines or sales from the patented

drugs or R&D investment i.e. at least one of the variables, have shown decline?



(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

112. In which of the following years did the sales from patented drugs register positive growth even when the sales

from generic medicines have shown negative growth?



(1) 2004 (2) 2006 (3) 2007 (4) 2008

Directions: Answer questions 113 to 114 on the basis of information provided below.

The following figure presents India’s exports and imports for the year 2008-09 (in billions of rupees) with major

trading partners.

Imports Exports r

Exports and Imports

1600

1400

1200

1000

800

600

400

200

0

UAE

USA

CHINA P RP

HONG KONG

UK

GERMANY

CANADA

113. In which of the following pairs of countries is the ratio of India’s exports to these countries approximately 2:1?



(1) Korea : Italy (2) UAE : France (3) The USA : Japan (4) Saudi Arab : Germany

114. If we rank the following country pairs by the difference between imports from these countries, which pair will

be ranked second if the pair with minimum difference is ranked first?



(1) UAE and France (2) Germany and Saudi Arab

(3) Korea and Italy (4) The USA and Japan


Directions: Answer questions 115 to 117 on the basis of information provided below.

The following chart presents information on a firm’s operating expenses; marketing and selling expenses, R&D

expenses and expenses on the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) programs for the year 2009-10.

The percentage figures in parentheses provide information on expenses on the same heads for the year 2008-09.

The budget for 2008-09 and 2009-10 has been Rs. 550 million and Rs. 750 million, respectively.

Marketing

and

Selling

Expenses

30%

(36%)

Expenses

on CSR

Programs

5% (3%)

R & D

Expenses

20%

(15%)

115. Which expenditure item has shown maximum change from 2008-09 to 2009-l0 in terms of rupees?



(1) Operating expenses

(2) Marketing and selling expenses

(3) R&D expenses

(4) Expenses on CSR

116. In the year 2009-10, the difference between the amount spent on operating expenses and CSR programs (in

million rupees) is



(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 400

117. Which of the following statements is correct?



i. In the year 2008-09, the operating expenses were 3 times the expenses on CSR programs.

ii. In the year 2008-09, the R&D expenses were 5 times the expenses on CSR programs.

iii. In the year 2009-10, the R&D expenses were 6 times the expenses on CSR programs.

iv. In the year 2009-10, the operating expenses were double the marketing and selling expenses.

Directions: Answer question 118 to 120 on the basis of information provided below.

In a management institute, during the placement process of 100 students, 70 students got offers from the Finance

area, 40 students got offers from the Marketing area and 30 students got offers from HR area. Of these, 20 students

received offers from the Finance and Marketing areas, 15 students got offers from the Marketing and HR areas and

10 students got offers from the HR and Finance areas.

Operating

Expenses

45%

(46%)


118. How many students received offers only from two areas?



(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

119. How many students received offers from the Finance area but not from any other area?


(1) 45 (2) 25 (3) 35 (4) 15

120. What percentage of students received offers both from Finance and Marketing but not from HR?


(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 20%

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member