FMGE screening test papers

I am going to sit in FMGE screening test but I don’t have any idea about the paper pattern of the exam that’s why I want the exam pattern . Please give me the pattern of papers so that I can get idea about the pattern of the exam.

Pattern:
Questions Type: Multiple Choices
No of Questions: 300
Negative Marking: No

The questions are divided in two sittings 150 questions and 150 minutes each.

To qualify the exam the candidate should obtain 50% marks.

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As you are looking to get question papers of FMGE Screening Test, so here I am providing the following question papers:



Here for your reference I am giving you some questions from the paper of 2002:



Q 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except:



A. Melanocyte

B. Adrenal medulla

C. Sympathetic ganglia

D. Cauda equina

Ans. D



Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation:



A. Establishes all the three germ layers

B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to

its cephalic end

C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass

D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks

Ans. A



Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except:



A. They have centrally located nuclei

B. They are derived from neural crest cells

C. They are multipolar

D. They contain lipofuscin granules

Ans. C



Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in:



A. Auditory tube

B. Nasal septum

C. Articular cartilage

D. Costal cartilage

Ans. A



Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:



A. Coracoclavicular ligament

B. Coracoacromial ligament

C. Costoclavicular ligament

D. Coracohumeral ligament

Ans. A



Q 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of:



A. Femoral artery

B. External iliac artery

C. Internal iliac artery

D. Aorta

Ans. A



Q 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except:



A. Esophageal opening

B. Costovertebral triangle

C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm

D. Inferior vena cava opening

Ans. D



Q 8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except:



A. Ureteropelvic junction

B. Ureterovesicle junction

C. Crossing of iliac artery

D. Ischial spine

Ans. D



Q 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney ,

except:



A. Stellate veins drain superficial zone

B. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis

C. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering

the hilum

D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries

Ans. B



Q 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is:



A. Hypogastric nerve

B. Pudendal nerve

C. Splachnic visceral nerve

D. Sympathetic plexus

Ans. B



Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve:



A. Masseter

B. Buccinator

C. Tensor veli palati

D. Posterior belly of digastric

Ans. C



Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following,

except:



A. Facial nerve

B. Hypoglossal nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

Ans. B



Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except:



A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools

B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction

C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers

D. Absorbs salt and water

Ans. A



Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed except:



A. Subacromial bursa

B. Long head of biceps

C. Suprascapular nerve

D. Supraspinatus tendon

Ans. C



Physiology



Q 15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is:



A. Torr

B. mrnHg

C. kPa

D. Bar

Ans. C



Q 16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through:



A. ATP dependent K+ channels

B. cAMP

C. Carrier modulators

D. Receptor phosphorylation

Ans. A



Q 17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with:



A. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion

B. Increased phosphate

C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve

D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities

Ans. C



Q 18. Ablation of the ‘somatosensory area 1’ of the cerebral cortex leads to:



A. Total loss of pain sensation

B. Total loss of touch sensation

C. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination

D. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination

Ans. D



Q 19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to:



A. Thyroid hormone

B. Brown fat between the shoulders

C. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla

D. Muscle metabolism

Ans. C



Q 20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen:



A. Increased K+excretion

B. Decreased K+ excretion

C. Increased Na+ excretion

D. Increased Na+ reabsorption

Ans. B



Q 21. Tropomyosin:



A. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin

B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin

C. Slides over myosin

D. Causes Ca2+ release

Ans. B



Q 22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones:



A. Insulin

B. ACTH

C. Prolactin

D. PTH

Ans. C



Q 23. During muscular exercise all are seen except:



A. Increase in blood flow to muscles

B. Stroke volume increases

C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left

D. O2 consumption increases

Ans. C



Biochemistry



Q 24. “All enzymes are not proteins.†This statement is justified by:



A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis

B. RNAs act as ribozymes

C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions

D. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts

Ans. B



Q 25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:



A. Transferases

B. Oxidases

C. Lysases

D. Peptidases

Ans. A



Q 26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium required:



A. Na+K+ ATPase

B. Dismutase

C. Phosphatase

D. Aldolase

Ans. A



Q 27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by:



A. Chemical methods

B. Physical methods

C. Chemiosmotic methods

D. Conformational changes

Q Ans. C



Q 28. Thiamine level is best monitored by:



A. Transketolase level in RBC

B. Thiamine level in blood

C. G-6-PD activity

D. Reticulocytosis

Ans. A



Q 29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to:



A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow

B. Increased hemoglobin production

C. Erythroid hyperplasia

D. Increased iron absorption

Ans. A



Q 30. Nitric oxide synthase:



A. Is inhibited by Ca++

B. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction

C. Accepts electrons from NADH

D. Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron

Ans. D



Q 31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except:



A. Tyrosine

B. Epinephrine

C. Thyroxine

D. Melatonin

Ans. D



Q 32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of:



A. Palmity CoA

B. Citrate

C. Acetoacetate

D. Oxalosuccinate

Ans. C



Q 33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of: -ketoglutaratea



A. Acetoacetate to

B. Succinyl CoA to succinate

C. Fumarate to malate

D. Succinate to fumarate

Ans. B



Q 34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of differe



A. RNA editing

B. RNA splicing

C. Chromosomal loci

D. Apo-B gene

Ans. A



Q 35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except:



A. Single strand conformational polymorphism

B. Ligase chain reaction

C. Polymerase chain reaction

D. DNA sequencing

Ans. B



Q 36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch:



A. It is an anesthetic agent

B. It is a plasma expander

C. It is a crystalloid

D. Used as a nutritional agent

Ans. B



Q 37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of:



A. Histidine

B. Keratin

C. Lysine

D. Cysteine

Ans. B



Q 38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by:



A. Ubiquitin

B. Tubulin

C. Laminin

D. Keratin

Ans. B



Q 39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because:



A. It is an open system

B. It is a closed system

C. It is a governed by vitalism

D. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions

Ans. D



Q 40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours

oscillatory responses:



A. Has proportional component

B. Has a greater gain

C. Has a lesser gain

D. Positive FEEDBACK system

Ans. D



Q 41. Highest binding of iron is seen with:



A. Transferrin

B. Ferritin

C. Haemoglobin

D. Ceruloplasmin

Ans. C



Pathology



Q 42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous inflammation are derived from:



A. Basophils

B. Eosinophils

C. CD4 T lymphocytes

D. Monocytes-macrophages

Ans. D



Q 43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except:



A. Exudation

B. Vasodilation

C. Margination

D. Granuloma formation

Ans. D



Q 44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells:



A. Synthesize antibody

B. Require antibodies to be present for action

C. Effective against virus infected cells

D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers

Ans. C



Q 45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of:



A. B cell

B. T cells

C. Plasma cells

D. Basophils

Ans. B



Q 46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except:



A. Cavitation

B. Caseation

C. Calcification

D. Langerhan giant cell

Ans. A



Q 47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occurred:



A. Less than 1 hours

B. Within 24 hours

C. Within 1 week

D. Within 1 month

Ans. D



Q 48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except:



A. Ashoff nodules

B. Rupture of chordae tendinae

C. McCallum patch

D. Fibrinous pericarditis

Ans. B



Q 49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except:



A. Diffuse alveolar damage

B. Calcified pleural plaques

C. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis

D. Mesotheliomas

Ans. A



Q 50. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in:



A. Whipple’s disease

B. Amyloidosis

C. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease

D. Vibrio cholerae infection

Ans. A

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