Punjab University CET

When Panjab University CET (Common Entrance Test) for UG course admission will be held in 2012? From where students can obtain application form for Panjab University CET (Common Entrance Test)?

Panjab University will held Common Entrance Test on May 27, 2012 ( Sunday) in. Chandigarh. Candidate can apply online for CET on following link.

cetadmissions.puchd.ac.in/registration.php

The registration form will look like the image as given belwo



Here i am providing the list of few questions of Panjab University CET Exam paper.
1. Round off the number 15461 to three significant digits. The options are
(A) 15461 (B) 15400
(C) 15560 (D) 15500

2. A ball is thrown with a velocity of 98 m/s at an angle of 45º with the horizontal. Assuming no frictional
force to be present, at what distance will the ball hit the ground again ?
(A) 490 m (B) 980 m
(C) 10 m (D) ∞

3. The magnitude of area of parallelogram whose adjacent sides are given by vectors A = i + j + k and
B = 2i + 2j + 4k measured in meters is
(A) 2 m (B) –2 m
(C) m 20 (D) 8 m

4. Which of the following angular quantities is a vector ?
(A) θ (B) dθ
(C) ω (D) α

5. If the earth stops rotating, the weight of a body lying on its equator will become
(A) more than its present weight
(B) less than its present weight
(C) zero
(D) ∞

6. The viscous force acting between two layers of a liquid is given by
dzdν η –AF = whereAFis called
(A) pressure (B) longitudinal stress
(C) volume stress (D) tangential stress

7. A refrigerator removes heat from a freezing chamber at –5ºF and discharges it at 95ºF. What is its maximum coefficient of performance ?
(A) 4.55 (B) 4.60
(C) 2.68 (D) 2.73

11. Transverse waves pass along a stretched wire at 1000 m/s. If the tension of the wire is quadrupled, what will the new velocity be ?
(A) 4000 m/s (B) 2000 m/s
(C) 1000 m/s (D) 250 m/s

12. A 1 ft long organ pipe is open at both ends. If the velocity of sound is 1100 ft/s, what is the frequency of the first overtone ?
(A) 550 Hz (B) 1100 Hz
(C) 1650 Hz (D) 3300 Hz

13. A train is moving with a speed of 100 ft/s toward an observer. The whistle of its engine has a frequency 40 Hz and the speed of the sound is 1100 ft/s. The frequency of the sound heard by the observer is
(A) 400 Hz (B) 440 Hz
(C) 333.3 Hz (D) 365.5 Hz

For more questions , here i am giving attachment

1. Which one of the following input devices is user-programmable ?
(A) Dumb terminal (B) Smart terminal
(C) VDT (D) Intelligent terminal
2. Which Computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed
by the CPU ?
(A) Mass memory (B) Internal memory
(C) Non-volatile memory (D) PROM
3. Computer instructions written with the use of English words instead of binary machine
code is called
(A) Object code (B) Symbolic code
(C) Gray codes (D) Opcode
4. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is … and storage is …
(A) temporary, permanent (B) small, huge
(C) slow, fast (D) cache, virtual
5. What is meant by a dedicated computer ?
(A) Which is used by one person only (B) Which is assigned one and only one task
(C) Which uses one kind of software (D) Which is meant for application software
6. A Computer progam that translates one program instruction at a time into machine
language is called a/an
(A) Interpreter (B) CPU
(C) Compiler (D) Simulator
7. A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language is
(A) Compiler (B) Interpreter
(C) Assembler (D) Comparator
8. Array passed as an argument to a function is interpreted as
(A) Address of the number of elements of the array
(B) Values of the first elements of the array
(C) Address of the first element of the array
(D) Number of elements of the array

Computer Science–II/A
9. The first step in problem solving process is to
(A) Plan the algorithm (B) Analyze the problem
(C) Desk-check the algorithm (D) Code the algorithm
10. Which of the following control structures is used in every program ?
(A) Repetition (B) Selection
(C) Sequence (D) Switching
11. The directives for the preprocessors begin with
(A) Ampersand symbol (&) (B) Two Slashes (//)
(C) Number Sign (#) (D) Less than symbol (<)
12. There is a unique function in C++ program by which all C++ programs start their execution
(A) Start( ) (B) Begin( )
(C) main( ) (D) Output( )
13. Every statement in C++ program should end with
(A) A full stop (.) (B) A Comma (,)
(C) A Semicolon ( (D) A colon (
14. Which of the following can not be used as identifiers ?
(A) Letters (B) Digits
(C) Underscores (D) Spaces
15. A block comment can be written by
(A) Starting every line with double slashes(//) (B) Starting with /* and ending with */
(C) Starting with //* and ending with *// (D) Starting with
16. Which of the following is not a valid escape code ?
(A) \ t (B) \ v
(C) \ f (D) \ w
17. Regarding following statement which of the statements is true ?
const int pathwidth = 100;
(A) Declares a variable pathwidth with 100 as its initial value
(B) Declares a construction pathwidth with 100 as its initial value
(C) Declares a constant pathwidth whose value will be 100
(D) Constructs an integer type variable with pathwidth as identifier and 100 as value.

18. Regarding #define which of the following statements is false ?
(A) It is not C++ statement but the directive for the preprocessor
(B) This does not require a semicolon at the end of line
(C) It is a C++ statement that declares a constant in C++
(D) It is not C++ statement but the directive for the preprocessor
19. To increase the value of c by one which of the following statement is wrong ?
(A) c++; (B) c = c + 1;
(C) c + 1 => c; (D) c + = 1
20. When following piece of code is executed, what happens ?
b = 3;
a = b++;
(A) a contains 3 and b contains 4 (B) a contains 4 and b contains 4
(C) a contains 4 and b contains 3 (D) a contains 3 and b contains 3
21. The result of a Relational operation is always
(A) either True or False (B) is less than or is more than
(C) is equal or less (D) is equal or more
22. What is the final value of x when the code int x; for (x = 0; x < 10; x++) { } is run ?
(A) 10 (B) 9
(C) 0 (D) 1
23. When does the code block following while (x<100) execute ?
(A) When x is less than one hundred (B) When x is greater than one hundred
(C) When x is equal to one hundred (D) While it wishes
24. How many times is a do while loop guaranteed to loop ?
(A) 0 (B) Infinitely
(C) 1 (D) Variable
25. Which of the header file must be included to use stringstream ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

26. The size of following variable is not 4 bytes in 32 bit systems
(A) int (B) long int
(C) short int (D) float
27. Which of the following is not a looping statement in C ?
(A) while (B) until
(C) do (D) for
28. Which of the following is selection statement in C++ ?
(A) break (B) goto
(C) exit (D) switch
29. In an assignment statement
a = b;
which of the following statements is true ?
(A) The variable a and the variable b are equal
(B) The value of b is assigned to variable a but the later changes on variable b will not affect the
value of variable a
(C) The value of b is assigned to variable a and the later changes on variable b will affect the value of
variable a
(D) The value of variable a is assigned to variable b and the value of variable b is assigned to variable a
30. Identify the correct statement regarding scope of variables
(A) Global variables are declared in a separate file and accessible from any program
(B) Local variables are declared inside a function and accessible within the function only
(C) Global variables are declared inside a function and accessible from anywhere in program
(D) Local variables are declared in the main body of the program and accessible only from functions
31. Reusability is a desirable feature of a language as it
(A) decreases the design time (B) lowers the maintenance cost
(C) reduces the compilation time (D) reduces the execution time
32. A constructor is called whenever
(A) an object is declared (B) A class is declared
(C) An object is used (D) A class is used

33. Class Dog : public X, public Y is an instance of
(A) multiple inheritance (B) repeated inheritance
(C) linear inheritance (D) single inheritance
34. If a method is to be an interface between the outside world and a class, it has to be declared
(A) private (B) protected
(C) public (D) external
35. C++ encourages to structure a software as a collection of components that are
(A) interactive and loosely coupled (B) not interactive but loosely coupled
(C) interactive and tightly coupled (D) not interactive but tightly coupled.
36. Cout stands for
(A) Class Output (B) Character Output
(C) Common Output (D) Call Output
37. The term that best describes the process of executing two or more programs at the same time on a
single CPU is called
(A) Multiprocessing (B) Simultaneous processing
(C) Multiprogramming (D) Spooling
38. The size of following variable is not 4 bytes in 32-bit systems
(A) int (B) long int
(C) short int (D) float
39. Printer resolution is measured by the number of _______.
(A) characters per second (cps) (B) dots per inch (dpi)
(C) pages per minute (ppm) (D) spots per centimetre (spc)
40. Which of the following function has a complexity function of order Q(n2) ?
(A) Quicksort (B) Heapsort
(C) Mergesort (D) Selection sort
Computer Science-II/A/FRH-40788 8
41. Which of the following is not a searching technique ?
(A) Binary search (B) Linear search
(C) Breadth-first search (D) Hashing
42. The octal equivalence of 111010 is
(A) 81 (B) 72
(C) 71 (D) 33
43. Array passed as an argument to a function is interpreted as
(A) Address of the number of elements of the array
(B) Value of the first element of the array
(C) Address of the first element of the array
(D) Number of elements of the array
44. The distinguishable parts of a record are called
(A) Files (B) Data
(C) Database (D) Fields
45. In case of pass by reference
(A) The value of the variable is passed to the function so that it can manipulate it
(B) The location of variable in memory is passed to the function so that it can use the same memory area for its
processing
(C) The value of the variable cannot be changed within the calling function
(D) The calling function cannot return the manipulated value
46. Which of the following topologies is highly reliable ?
(A) Star (B) Bus
(C) Fully connected Mesh (D) Ring
47. Preorder is nothing but
(A) Depth first order (B) Breath first order
(C) Topological order (D) Linear order
48. The average search time for sequential search on n terms is
(A) n/2 (B) (n+1)/2
(C) n–1/2 (D) n*n/2
49. Sorting is useful for
(A) report generation (B) minimizing the storage
(C) making searching fast (D) better presentation
50. The process of accessing data stored in a tape is similar to manipulating data on a
(A) stack (B) queue
(C) list (D) heap
51. Merge sort uses
(A) Divide and conquer strategy (B) Backtracking Approach
(C) Greedy approach (D) Depth-first search
52. A data model is a collection of conceptual tools for describing
(A) data only
(B) data and data relationships only
(C) data, data relationships and data semantics only
(D) data, data relationships, data semantics and constraints
53. Student and courses enrolled is example of
(A) one-to-one relationship (B) one-to-many relationship
(C) many-to-one relationship (D) many-to-manyone relationship
54. An attribute of one table matching the primary key of another table is called as
(A) foreign key (B) secondary key
(C) candidate key (D) composite key
55. Which of the following is not a transmission medium ?
(A) modem (B) telephone lines
(C) satellite (D) cables
56. Which transmission mode is used for telephone lines ?
(A) parallel (B) serial
(C) synchronous (D) asynchronous

57. A communication network used by large organizations over regional, national or global area is called
(A) LAN (B) WAN
(C) MAN (D) Intranet
58. Which of the following is the 1’s complement of 10 ?
(A) 01 (B) 101
(C) 11 (D) 111
59. One thousand bytes represent
(A) Megabytes (B) Gigabytes
(C) Kilobytes (D) Ten bytes
60. Which is not a logical gate ?
(A) AND (B) OR
(C) NOT (D) Complement

Subject : Biotechnology
Time : 70 minutes Number of Questions : 60 Maximum Marks : 120
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 60 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Sr. No.

1. The species of microorganism that landed in Dr. Fleming’s Petri dish was ________ .
(A) Streptococcus mutans (B) Penicillium notatum
(C) Penicillium chrysogenum (D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. Which of the following enzymes acts on protein ?
(A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin
(C) Amylase (D) Maltase
3. Bt in popular Bt-cotton stands for _________ .
(A) Bacillus thermophilus (B) Botulinum Toxin
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis (D) Biotechnology
4. Golden Rice development through transgenic technique is enriched with ________ .
(A) high lysine (B) high methionine
(C) high glutenin (D) high vitamin content
5. The buildup of pesticides in ospreys (sometimes known as the fish eagle or fish hawk)
is known as ________ .
(A) succession (B) food web dynamics
(C) biological magnification (D) keystone predation
6. Who coined the term genome ?
(A) Patrick Brown (B) H. Winkler
(C) Francis Collins (D) James Kent
7. Which technique attempts to correct certain disorder ?
(A) Genomics (B) risk assessment
(C) karyotype analysis (D) gene therapy
8. Which is the faster method of rapid clonal propagation ?
(A) callus culture (B) suspension culture
(C) embryo culture (D) anther culture
9. Which of the following is NOT an example of bioremediation ?
(A) Using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins
(B) Using bacteria to break down the organic matter in sewage sludge
(C) Using bacteria to clean up oil spills
(D) Using bacteria to remove toxic substances from old mining sites.

Biotechnology—II/A
10. Isoelectric focusing method separates protein molecules according to their ______ .
(A) variation in shape with pH (B) variation in size
(C) variation of net charge with pH (D) nuclear magnetic resonance.
11. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA ?
(A) Deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil (B) Ribose + phosphate group + uracil
(C) Ribose + phosphate group + thymine (D) Deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
12. Gametes are produced by the process of __________ .
(A) crossing-over (B) mitosis
(C) replication (D) meiosis
13. The DNA of a certain organism has cytosine as 20% of its bases. What percentage of the bases
would be thymine ?
(A) 10% (B) 30%
(C) 20% (D) 40%
14. Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype ?
(A) An extra chromosome (B) Change in a DNA base
(C) Genes (D) Alleles
15. In animals, carbohydrates normally function as _________ .
(A) a component triglycerides (B) enzyme in the regulation of metabolic processes
(C) energy storage molecules (D) the functional unit of lipids
16. In an SDS-PAGE experiment proteins are separated on the basis of their _______ .
(A) different isoelectric points (B) molecular weight
(C) negatively charged side chains (D) charge-to-mass ratio
17. The sequence of a template strand of DNA is 3'-G C G T A A T C T C A G A C G G G T-5'. Which of
the following is the sequence of the corresponding mRNA ?
(A) 3'-T G G G C A G A C T C T A A T G C G-5'
(B) 3'-G C G T A A T C T C A G A C G G G T-5'
(C) 5'-C G C A T T A G A G T C T G C C C A-3'
(D) 5'-C G C A U U A G A G U C U G C C C A-3'
18. Bacteriophages are ______________ .
(A) bacteria that are parasitic (B) bacteria that infect viruses
(C) viruses that infect bacteria (D) viruses that are parasitic

19. When a mixture of DNA fragments of different sizes is loaded onto an agarose gel and a voltage is
applied, the DNA will migrate in the gel. Which molecules will migrate the fastest ?
(A) The shortest
(B) The longest
(C) The molecules with the greatest fraction of A/T nucleotide
(D) The molecules with the greatest fraction of G/C nucleotide.
20. Which is NOT true about the cell theory ?
(A) It states that all cells come from preexisting cells
(B) It states that bacteria and other small organisms can arise spontaneously
(C) It states that all organisms are composed of cells
(D) Its various parts were described by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow.
21. A culture of bacteria produces 6 generations in 3 hours. What is the generation time for this bacterium
under those conditions ?
(A) 30 minutes (B) 60 minutes
(C) 25 minutes (D) 90 minutes
22. PCR is exclusively used for _______________ .
(A) DNA identification (B) DNA recombination
(C) DNA amplification (D) DNA repair
23. Which gene masks the expression of a different, nonallelic gene ?
(A) Codominant (B) Incompletely dominant
(C) Hemizygous (D) Epistatic
24. The terms cistron, recon and muton were introduced by ___________ .
(A) Wilhelm Johannsen (B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(C) Joshua Lederberg (D) Seymour Benzer
25. What is the starting material for making a cDNA library ?
(A) mRNA (B) Plasmid vectors
(C) Genomic DNA (D) Viral DNA
26. What does NOT occur during telophase ?
(A) Cytokinesis usually gets under way
(B) The centromeres split apart
(C) The nuclear envelope is being constructed
(D) The nucleolus reforms.

27. What is NOT true about a DNA probe ?
(A) It is typically 10-1000 nucleotides long
(B) It is able to hybridize to a DNA sequence of interest
(C) It hybridizes only to DNA and not RNA.
(D) It contains a nucleotide that is complementary to the nucleic acid sequence of interest.
28. Which comparison between plant and animal cells is NOT correct ?
(A) Plant : centrioles; animals : no centrioles.
(B) Plant : cell wall; animal : no cell wall.
(C) Plants : large, single vacuole; animal : many, small vacuole.
(D) Plant : chloroplast; animals : no chloroplast.
29. What are restriction enzymes ?
(A) Enzymes that are limited (i.e., restricted) in how big they can become
(B) Vitamins such as vitamin A
(C) Plasmids
(D) Enzymes that cleave through a DNA helix wherever they encounter a specific sequence of nucleotides.
30. The statistical test used by population geneticists to determine the probability that differences between
observed and expected results would occur by chance is the ________ test.
(A) student t (B) chi-square
(C) Hardy-Weinberg (D) product rule.
31. In animal cell culture addition of serum in the media would provide
(A) All amino acids (B) Nucleotides
(C) Glucose (D) Growth factors
32. In animal cell culture enzyme trypsin is added to
(A) Disintegrate cells (B) Destroy cellular proteins
(C) Increase the number of cells (D) Stimulate growth
33. In Plant cell culture, cell masses initiated from plant tissues or explants are known as
(A) Callus (B) Cambium
(C) Primordia (D) Meristem

34. All of the following are plant growth regulators except
(A) Cytokinins (B) Abscisic acid
(C) Cytokines (D) Gibberellins
35. The transgenic tomato has a much longer shelf life than conventional tomatoes due to reduction of
which of the following enzyme, responsible for fruit softening ?
(A) Polygalacturonase (B) Polyglucuronase
(C) Polyaminase (D) Polymerase
36. DNA can be introduced into a cell by all except
(A) Electroporation (B) Calcium salts
(C) Gene gun (D) Electrophoresis
37. Restriction endonucleases
(A) Cleave DNA at highly specific recognition sequences
(B) Are produced in eukaryotic cells
(C) Add phosphate groups to specific DNA sequences
(D) Remove phosphate groups from specific DNA sequences
38. A phylogeny tree provides information about diversity of organisms based on
(A) Mathematical models only
(B) Computational power only
(C) Both mathematical model and computational power
(D) Randomly selecting either machematical model or computational power
39. BLAST acronym for the tool used for sequence data comparison stands for
(A) Basic Local Alignment Search Tool
(B) Basic Local Arrangement Search Tool
(C) Basic Local Alignment Sequence Tool
(D) Basic Length wise Alignment Search Tool
40. Hemocytometer in a tissue culture laboratory is used for
(A) Hemoglobin content assessment (B) Cell viability and cell number assessment
(C) Type of Hemoglobin assessment (D) Assessment of Hemoglobin containing Cells

41. The cells of Inner cell mass (ICM) embryo at blastocyst stage are
(A) totipotent (B) pluripotent
(C) bipotent (D) unipotent
42. Which of the following is not a microbial fermentation product ?
(A) Paracetamol (B) Wine
(C) Cheese (D) Vinegar
43. The highest level of structure acquired in myoglobin protein is
(A) primary (B) secondary
(C) tertiary (D) quarternary
44. Identify the group of amino acids with nonpolar, aliphatic groups
(A) valine, isoleucine, leucine (B) valine, tyrosine, leucine
(C) valine, phenylalanine, alanine (D) valine, serine, alanine
45. The peptide bond is rigid and planar due to sharing of electrons between
(A) carbonyl oxygen and amide nitrogen (B) carbonyl nitrogen and amide oxygen
(C) carbonyl oxygen and C–carbon (D) C–carbon and amide nitrogen
46. A set of overlapping clones representing a catalogue for a long continuous segment of a genome is
referred as
(A) Contig (B) cDNA library
(C) genomic library (D) cloned gene
47. The genome sequence of which of the following was completed first ?
(A) H. Pylori (B) H.influenzae
(C) M.smegmatis (D) S.cerevisiae
48. Identify the microorganism used in Beer manufacturing industries
(A) Saccharomyces (B) Streptococcus
(C) Shigella (D) Salmonella
49. For the DNA strand TACGATCATAT’ the correct complementary DNA strand is
(A) TATACTAGCAT (B) ATATGATCGTA
(C) AUAUGAUCGUA (D) TACGATCATAT

\50. Which of the following is Not an application of genetic engineering in plants ?
(A) nitrogen fixation (B) DNA vaccines
(C) Insecticide resistance (D) Vitamin fortification
51. The plant cell after removal of cell wall is called as
(A) Protoplast (B) Plant cell
(C) De novo cell (D) Transgenic cell
52. To produce transgenic plants the host for the Ti-plasmid is :
(A) Agrobacterium (B) Salmonella
(C) Cryptococcus (D) Cryptobacterium
53. A probe is used in which stage of genetic engineering ?
(A) Screening (B) Recombining DNA
(C) Cleaving DNA (D) Adding adapters
54. Bacteriophages are used as vectors in recombinant DNA technology experiments because they
(A) catalyze specific cleavage of DNA
(B) are small and made of double stranded RNA
(C) are supercoiled, and possess restriction endonuclease activity
(D) insert their genetic material into bacteria
55. The fungal strain used for large scale production of penicillin is
(A) Penicillium chrysogenum (B) Penicillium nostoc
(C) Streptomyces chrysogenum (D) Streptomyces notatum
56. In bacterial culture, glassware and nutrients are sterilized through
(A) Immersing in water bath at 200 ºC (B) Dry air oven at 200 ºC
(C) Dehumidifier and heater at 200 ºC (D) Autoclave
57. The complete set of chromosomal and extra-chromosomal genes of an organism is called :
(A) Genome (B) Gene pool
(C) Gene bank (D) Gene library
58. Variations observed during tissue culture of some plants are known as
(A) Clonal variations (B) Somatic variations
(C) Somaclonal variations (D) Tissue culture variations
59. Plasmids are used as vectors for gene cloning because these can
(A) Self replicate in bacterial cells
(B) Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
(C) Can be multiplied alone by culturing
(D) Kill the other vectors.
60. Large vessel containing all parts and conditions necessary for the growth of desired microorganism
is called
(A) Bioreactor (B) Autoreactor
(C) Heteroreactor (D) Radiation reactor

Subject : Biology
Time : 70 minutes Number of Questions : 60 Maximum Marks : 120
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 60 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.

7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.

16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Sr. No. :
1. Fucoxanthin is a characteristic pigment of :
(A) Phaeophyta (B) Chlorophyta
(C) Rhodophyta (D) Cyanophyta
2. Mitospores in algae are differentiated by :
(A) meiosis (B) mitosis
(C) fragmentation (D) fusion of gametes
3. Syngamy is the fusion of :
(A) isogametes (B) anisogametes
(C) sperm and egg (D) micro and macro gametes
4. Carpogonium is formed in :
(A) Batrachospermum (B) Spirogyra
(C) Albugo (D) Oedogonium
5. Puccinia graminis tritici causes :
(A) Brown rust (B) Black rust
(C) Yellow rust (D) White rust
6. Dolipore septum is found in :
(A) Oomycota (B) Ascomycota
(C) Myxomycota (D) Chytridiomycota
7. Sexual reproductive structures in lichens are produced by :
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Both algae and fungi (D) Lichens remain vegetative and do not reproduce
8. Which of the following is not present in thallus of Marchantia ?
(A) Nostoc (B) Oil cells
(C) Starch grains (D) Reticulate thickenings
9. Binomial Nomenclature means :
(A) A scientific name comprising of a generic and specific epithet
(B) One name given by two different botanists
(C) a latinised name
(D) scientific name given to a piece of vegetation.

Biology-II/A

10. Basic unit of taxonomy is :
(A) Species (B) Kingdom
(C) Family (D) Variety
11. Holotype is :
(A) Specimen used by the person as nomenclatural type
(B) Duplicate of the nomenclatural type
(C) Specimens mentioned while describing a new taxa on which the description is not based
(D) Specimens of a taxa deposited by different workers
12. Sex organs in Pteridophytes are :
(A) Multicellular and Jacketed (B) Unicellular and Jacketed
(C) Unicellular and non Jacketed (D) Multicellular and non Jacketed
13. Meristematic tissues in plants are :
(A) Which have their walls made of cellulose
(B) Which have intercellular spaces between them
(C) Which store reserve food materials
(D) Which have their cell walls made of Chitin
14. Plant cell differs from animal cell by :
(A) Presence of vacuoles (B) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast
(C) Absence of cell wall (D) Absence of chloroplast
15. Chromosomes are concerned with :
(A) Respiration (B) Growth
(C) Transmission of heredity characters (D) Assimilation
16. Which of the following is the chief energy food in a cell ?
(A) Nucleotides (B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Vacuoles
17. Which of the following structures is not bounded by cell membrane ?
(A) Spherosomes (B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes (D) Lysosomes

18. The colour of flower petals is due to :
(A) Xanthophyll (B) Carotenes
(C) Anthocyanin (D) Phycoerythrin
19. Site of protein synthesis is :
(A) Ribosomes (B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus (D) DNA
20. Chloroplasts of algae lack :
(A) Quantasomes (B) Lamellae
(C) Pigments reticulum (D) Grana
21. In an adult human being, growth and cell division stops in :
(A) Skin cells
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Testes and ovary
(D) Bone cells
22. The cause of chromosome laggards during meiosis is :
(A) Inversion (B) Dicentric chromosome
(C) Acentric chromosome (D) Duplication of a gene
23. Stomata open at night and close during the day time in :
(A) Mesophytes (B) Hydrophytes
(C) Succulents (D) Shrubs
24. Guttation takes place through :
(A) Caticle (B) Stomata
(C) Lenticels (D) Hydathodes
25. The chemical composition of chlorophyll and carotenoids was given by :
(A) Senebier (B) Mayer and Anderson
(C) Robert Mayer (D) Willstatter and Stoll
26. Maximum number of ATP is obtained from :
(A) Glucose (B) Amino-acid
(C) Palmitic acid (D) Malic acid

27. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is :
(A) Cytokinin (B) Auxin
(C) Gibberellin (D) Ethylene
28. When one molecule of glucose undergoes glycolysis aerobically, last stable product will be :
(A) One molecule of pyruvic acid
(B) Two molecules of pyruvic acid
(C) Three molecules of pyruvic acid
(D) Four molecules of pyruvic acid
29. The gland which regulates the level of calcium in the blood is :
(A) Thyroid (B) Adrenal
(C) Parathyroids (D) Pituitary
30. Kidneys perform all the functions except :
(A) filtration of blood (B) regulation of B.P.
(C) secretions of antibodies (D) regulation of pH in body fluid
31. A temporary endocrine gland in humans is :
(A) Islets of Langerhans (B) Pineal body
(C) Corpus luteum (D) Corpora allata
32. Braxton Hicks contractions occur during :
(A) Passage of food through alimentary canal
(B) Peristaltic movements
(C) Pregnancy
(D) Lactation
33. A condition in which the body’s internal environment remains relatively constant within limits is :
(A) Hematoma (B) Homeostasis
(C) Haemopoiesis (D) Hemostasis

34. Which of the following human pathogens is a flagellated protozoan ?
(A) Plasmodium (B) Trypanosoma
(C) Taenia (D) Entamoeba
35. The correct sequence of human embryonic development is :
(A) Blastocoel - gastrocoel - neural crest - notochord
(B) Gastrocoel - blastocoel - notochord - neural crest
(C) Gastrocoel - blastocoel - neural crest - notochord
(D) Blastocoel - neural crest - gastrocoel - notochord
36. ‘Food web’ refers to :
(A) Transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next trophic level
(B) Unidirectional energy flow
(C) Capturing solar energy by autotrophs
(D) Connecting feeding pattern in a biotic community
37. Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is home for :
(A) Golden langur (B) Water birds
(C) Rhino (D) Porcupine
38. Which of the following is a vestigial structure in man ?
(A) Caecum (B) Pinna of ear
(C) Wisdom tooth (D) Muscles of glottis
39. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Wings of insects and bats are homologous
(B) Wings of insects and bats are analogous
(C) Wings of bats and birds are homologous
(D) Wings of insects and birds are analogous
40. Filarial worm is transmitted by :
(A) Mosquito (B) Tsetse fly
(C) Sand fly (D) Kissing bug

\41. The onset of menstrual cycle in females of anthropoid primates is known as :
(A) Puberty (B) Menarche
(C) Menopause (D) Menstruation
42. Thick yellow high protein fluid produced by the mammary glands of a woman during first 2-3 days
after child birth is known as :
(A) Meconium (B) Hymen
(C) Cumulus oophorous (D) Colostrum
43. Which of the following is concerned with asexual reproduction ?
(A) Gemmules (B) Gametes
(C) Gonads (D) Genitalia
44. Which of the following is formed as a result of double fertilization in angiosperms ?
(A) Endosperm (B) Megaspore
(C) Seed (D) Fruit
45. Milky water of green coconut is :
(A) Liquid endosperm (B) Liquid gametophyte
(C) Liquid nucellus (D) Liquid chalaza
46. Entomophillous flowers are related to which of the following ?
(A) Honey bees (B) Wind
(C) Hairy mammals (D) Water
47. A woman with straight hair mates with a man with curly hair who is known to be heterozygous for
that trait. What is the chance that their first child will have curly hair ?
(A) No chance (B) One in two
(C) It is certain (D) One in four
48. Which of the following crosses and resultant phenotype ratios are mismatched ?
(A) Tt × Tt — 3 : 1 (B) tt × Tt — 2 : 1
(C) TtYy × ttyy — 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (D) TtYy × TtYy — 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
49. The segment of DNA which participates in crossing over is termed as :
(A) Recon (B) Cistron
(C) Muton (D) Operon

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50. Lampbrush chromosomes are giant chromosomes which are commonly seen in :
(A) Salivary glands of Chironomous
(B) Salivary glands of Drosophila
(C) Oocytes of sharks
(D) Gametes of Drosophila
51. Fatty liver syndrome is associated with :
(A) Smoking (B) Alcoholism
(C) Drug addiction (D) Drug abuse
52. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from hybrid cells called hybridomas. Hybridoma cells can be
obtained from :
(A) B- lymphocytes and myeloma cells
(B) T- lymphocytes and myeloma cells
(C) B- lymphocytes and carcinoma cells
(D) Lymphoma cells and bone marrow cells
53. The term humor in humoral immunity implies :
(A) Hormones (B) Bone marrow
(C) Plasma and lymph (D) Cerebrospinal fluid
54. The fruit of which plant is capable of producing biodiesel ?
(A) Ficus (B) Ziziphus
(C) Pongamia (D) Jatropha
55. High amount of Escherichia coli in water indicates :
(A) Hardness of water
(B) Industrial pollution
(C) Sewage pollution
(D) Pollution due to electromagnetic radiations
56. First transgenic plant released for commercial use was :
(A) Bt- cotton (B) Tobacco
(C) Golden rice (D) Solan gola
Biology-II/A/FRH-40792 9 [Turn over
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57. PCR is a technique used for :
(A) Amplification of DNA (B) Amplification of RNA
(C) Synthesis of DNA (D) Reverse transcription
58. Which of the following are called the molecular scissors ?
(A) Helicase (B) Restriction endonuclease
(C) Lysozyme (D) Ligase
59. The study of interaction between groups of various organisms with their environment is :
(A) Ecology (B) Zoogeography
(C) Synecology (D) Systems biology
60. Precious stones such as gem stones are the product of :
(A) Volcanic rocks (B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks (D) Igneous rocks

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