mock papers of MHCET

I need to give some mock papers of Mhcet 2012. Can anyone provide me with the link?

You were looking for the mock test papers of MHCET 2012. Please let me know that for which stream you are giving this examination. MHCET is organized for the following subjects:

Management
Engineering
Medical

If you can tell me the name of the subject for which you are giving this examination I would be able to assist you in a better way.

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

The MHT-CET (Maharashtra Common Entrance Test) is an entrance exam conducted by the Government of Maharashtra.
The degree courses of the following streams are mainly accounted for in this entrance exam:

Health Sciences
Engineering
Pharmacy

Eligibility:
The applicant should have pass 10+2 from any recognized School.

Here I am providing you the MHCET exam question paper:

1. The number of free electrons per 10 mm of an ordinary copper wire is 2 x 1021. The average
drift speed of the electrons is 0.25 mm/s. The current flowing is:
A. 0.8 A B. 8 A C. 80 A D. 5 A
2. Which of the following cells is more likely to be damaged due to short circuiting?
A. Daniel B. Dry C. Acid D. Fuel
3. A gas expands from 5 litre to 105 litre at a constant pressure 100N/m2. The work done is
A. 1 Joule B. 4 Joule C. 8 Joule D. 10 Joule
4. The Helium nuclei can be formed from
A. Hydrogen nuclei by process of chain reactionB. Hydrogen nuclei through nuclear fission
C. Hydrogen nuclei through nuclear fusion D. None of these
5. In the atom bomb dropped by Americans in 1945 on Nagasaki, Japan, the fissionable material
used was
A. Helium 4 B. Plutonium 239 C. Uranium 235 D. Uranium 233
6. The engine of a truck moving a straight road delivers constant power. The distance travelled
by the truck in time t is proportional to
A. t B. t 2 C. √t D. t 3/2
7. The velocity of electron in ground state of
hydrogen atom is
A. 2 x 105
m/s
B. 2 x 106
m/s
C. 2 x 107
m/s
D. 2 x 108
m/s
8. The radius of the first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10-11 m; then the radius
of the second orbit must be
A. 15.9 x 10-11 m B. 10.6 x 10 m C. 21.2 x 10-11 m D. 42.4 x 10-11 m
9. A person pushes a rock of 1010Kg mass by applying a force of only 10N for just 4 seconds.
The work done is
A. 1000 Joule B. 0 J C. nearly zero D. positive
10. One can take pictures of objects which are completely invisible to the eye using camera films
which are sensitive to
A. ultra-violet rays B. sodium light C. visible light D. infra-red rays
11. Light from a 100 watt filament bulb is passed through an evacuated glass tube containing
sodium vapour at a high temperature. If the transmitted light is viewed through a spectrometer,
we will observe
A. D1 and D2 lines of sodium with good
intensity
B. dark lines where D1 and D2 lines should have
been observed
C. continuous radiation from the bulb only D. the entire emission spectrum of sodium

12. Under the action of a constant force, a
particle is experiencing a constant acceleration.
The power is
A. zero B. positive
C. negative D. increasing uniformly
with time
13. If in a plane convex lens the radius of curvature of the convex surface is 10 cm and the focal
length of the lens is 30 cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will be
A. 1.5 B. 1.66 C. 1.33 D. 3
14. A plane convex lens has radius of curvature 30 cm. If the refractive index is 1.33, the focal
length of lens is
A. 10 cm B. 90 cm C. 30 cm D. 60 cm
15. A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a screen. A plane parallel plate of glass
(thickness in the direction of the beam = t, refractive index = µ ) is introduced in the path of the
beam. The convergence point is shifted by
A. t (µ - 1) away B. t (1 + 1/µ ) away C. t (1 - 1/µ ) nearer D. t (1 + 1/µ ) nearer
16 . In Young's double silt experiment the separation between the silts is halved and the distance
between the silts and screen is doubled. The fringe width will be
A. unchanged B. halved C. doubled D. quadrupled
17. Wavelength of red light is λ r, violet rays is λ v and X -ray is λ x then the order of
wavelengths is
A. λ x >λ v >λ r B. λ v >λ x >λ r C. λ r >λ x >λ v D. λ r >λ v >λ
18. The amount of work done by the labourer
who carries n bricks, each of mass m, to the roof
of a house whose height is h is
A. n mgh B. mgh/n C. zero D. ghn/m
19. In LCR circuit in the state of resonance, which of the following statements is correct ? (cos
φ)=
A. 0 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. None of these
20. In LCR circuit, phase difference between voltage and current cannot be
A. 80° B. 90° C. 145° D. 0°
21. If speed is plotted along x-axis and Kinetic energy against y-axis, then the graph obtained has
a shape similar to that of
A. circle B. ellipse C. hyperbola D. parabola
22. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires w units of work to turn it
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
A. (√ 3) w B. w

C. (√ 3w)/2 D. 2w
23. A vertical straight conductor carries a
current vertically upwards. A point p lies to the
east of it at a small distance and another point Q
lies to west of it at the same distance. The
magnetic field at p is
A. greater than at Q B. same as at Q
C. less than at Q
D. greater or less at Q
depending upon the
strength of the current
24. In a parallel arrangement if (R1 > R2), the power dissipated in resistance R1 will be
A. less than R2 B. same as R2 C. more than R2 D. none of these
25. For a fuse wire to be installed in the supply line in a house which one of the following is
immaterial ?
A. the specific resistance of the material of the
fuse wire B. the diameter of the fuse wire
C. the length of the fuse wire D. none of these
26. If V is voltage applied, Ea is emf drop across the armature, the armature current of a d.c.
motor Ia is given by
A. (V + Ea)/Ra B. Ea/Ra C. V- Ea/Ra D. V/Ra
27. The current of 2.0 amperes passes through a cell of e.m.f. 1.5 volts having internal resistance
of 0.15Ω . The potential difference measured in volts across both the terminals of the cell will be
A. 1.35 B. 1.50 C. 1.00 D. 1.20
28. In this circuit, current ratio i1/i2 depends upon
A. R1, R2
and R
B. R, R1,
R2 and E
C. R1 and
R2 D. E and R
29. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance r. The potential difference between the
terminals of the cell is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell must be
A. 2(E - V)V/r B. 2(E - V)r/E C. (E - V) r/V D. (E- V)/r
30. Copper and germanium are both cooled to 70 K from room temperature, then
A. resistance of copper increases while that of
germanium decreases
B. resistance of copper decreases while that of
germanium increases
C. resistance of both decreases D. resistance of both increases
31. The potential difference between the points A and B of the electrical circuit given is
A. 1.5 V B. 1.0 V

32. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance
of 9.8Ω and gives a full scale deflection when a
current of 10 mA passes tbrough it. The value of
the shunt required to convert it into a mini
ammeter to measure current upto 500 mA is
A. 0.02Ω B. 0.2Ω C. 2Ω D. 0.4Ω
33. The total electrical resistance between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure is
A. 9.02 Ω A. 15 Ω
C. 30 Ω D. 100 Ω
34. If the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor are pulled away from each other
A. capacitance
increases B. energy increases C. voltage increases D. voltage decreases
35. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting its plates to the terminals of a battery. The
battery remains connected and a glass plate is interposed between the plates of the capacitor,
then
A. the charge on plates will be reduced
B. the charge on plates will increase
C. the potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will be reduced
D. the potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will increase
36. A person weighing 70Kg wt lifts a mass of 30 Kg to the roof of a building 10 m high. If he
takes 50 sec to do so,then the power spent is
A. 19.6 W B. 196 W C. 300 W D. 50 W
37. Work done in carrying a charge q from A to B along a semi-circle is
A. 2πrq B. 4πrq
C. πrq D. 0
38. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same
mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through same electrical potential difference, the ratio of
their speed VA : VB will become
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1
39. The electric field at a small distance R from an infinitely long plane sheet is directly
proportional to
A. R2/2 B. R/2 C. R-2 D. none of these
40. In the diagram, the electric field intensity will be zero at a distance
A. between -q and +2q charge B. towards +2q on the line drawn
C. away from the line towards
+2q D. away from the line towards -q
41. Wein's displacement law is given by
A. λ m =
constant
B. T/λ m =
constant
C. λ m T =
constant
D. T = λ m
= constant
42. If two electrons are forced to come closer to each to each other, then the potential energy
A. becomes zero B. increases C. decreases D. becomes infinite
43. The specific heat at constant pressure is greater than that of the same gas at constant volume
because
A. at constant volume work is done in expanding the gas
B. at constant pressure work is done in expanding the gas
C. the molecular attraction increases more at constant pressure
D. the molecular vibration increases more at constant pressure
44. The specific heats of CO2 at constant pressure and constant volume are 0.833 J/kg.K and
0.641 J/kg.K respectively. If molecular weight of CO2 is 44, what is the universal constant R?
A. 4.19 x 107 erg/cal B. 848.8 J/gm/K C. 8.448 J/mol/K D. 4.19 J/cal
45. The freezing point of the liquids decreases when pressure is increased, if the liquid
A. expands while freezing B. contracts while freezing
C. does not change in volume while freezing D. none
46. The equation of a transverse wave on a
stretched string is given by
y = 0.05 sin π (2t/0.002 -x/0.1 ) where x and y
are expressed in metres and t in sec.
The speed of the wave is
A.100
m/sec B. 50 m/s C. 200 m/s D. 400 m/s
47. The ratio of velocity of the body to the velocity of sound is called
A. Magic number B. Laplace number C. Natural number D. Mach number
48. Television signals on earth cannot be received at distances greater than 100 km from the
transmission station. The reason behind this is that
A. the receiver antenna is unable to detect the signal at a distance greater than 100 km
B. the TV programme consists of both audio and video signals
C. the TV signals are less powerful than radio signals
D. the surface of earth is curved like a sphere
49. A ball is thrown from a height of h m with an initial downward velocity v0. It hits the ground,
loses half of its Kinetic energy & bounces back to the same height. The value of v0 is
A. √2gh B. √gh C. √3gh D. √2.5gh

50. A thick rope of rubber of density 1.5 x 103
kg/m3 and Young's modulus 5 x 106 N/m2, 8m in
length, when hung from ceiling of a room, the
increase in length due to its own weight is
A. 9.6 x 10-
3m
B. 19.2 x
10-5m
C. 9.6cm D. 9.6mm
51. Water is falling on the blades of a turbine at a rate 6000Kg/min. The height of the fall
is100m. What is the power gained by the turbine?
A. 10KW B. 6KW C. 100KW D. 600KW
52. If momentum of alpha-particle, neutron, proton, and electron are the same, the minimum
K.E. is that of
A. alpha-particle B. neutron C. proton D. electron
53. An electric motor while lifting a given load produces a tension of 4500 N in the cable
attached to the load. If the motor winds the cable at the rate of 2m/s, then power must be
A. 9 kW B. 15 kW C. 225 kW D. 9000 H.P
54. If an electric iron electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of V volts. Taking
electronic charge and mass to be respectively e and m, the maximum velocity attained by the
electrons is
A. 2eV/√m B. √(2eV)/m C. 2m/eV D. v2/8em
55. A particle is moving on a circular track of radius 20 cm with a constant speed of 6 m/s. Its
acceleration is
A. 0 B. 180 m/s2 C. 1.2 m/s2 D. 36 m/s2
56. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit
with a uniform speed v. If gravitational force suddenly
disappears, the satellite will:
A. continue to move with the speed v along the original orbit
B. move with the velocity v tangentially to the original orbit
C. fall downward with increasing velocity
D. ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit
57. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance
covered s as K = as2. The force acting on the part1cle is
A. 2as2/R B. 2as(1 + s2/R)1/2 C. as(1 + s2/R2)1/2 D. None of these
58. Einstein was awarded Nobel Prize for his work in
A. Photoelectric effect B. Special theory of relativity
C. General theory of relativity D. None of these
59. One second is defined to be equal to
A. 1650763.73 periods of the Krypton clock B. 652189.63 periods of the Krypton clock
C. 1650763.73 periods of the Cesium clock D. 9192631770 periods of the Cesium clock

60. The dimensions of energy and torque respectively are
A. ML2T-2 and ML2T-2 B. MLT2 and ML2T-2 C. ML2T-2 and MLT-2 D. MLT-2 and MLT-2
61. When Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with hypophosphorous acid, it produces
A. benzene B. phenol C. phenylphosphite D. phenylphosphate
62. The reaction of aliphatic primary amine with nitrous acid in cold produces
A. nitrile B. alcohol C. diazonium salt D. secondary amine
63. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic potash on
A. acetamide B. propionamide C. formamide D. methyl cyanide
64. The aldol condensation of acetaldehyde results in the formation of
A. CH3COCHOHCH3 B. CH3CHOHCH2CHO C. CH3CH2CHOHCHO D. CH3CH2OH +
CH3COOH
65. Which compound reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature?
A. Butan-l-ol B. Butan-2-ol C. 2-Methyl propan-l-ol D. 2-Methyl propan-2-
ol
66. The reaction with D2O, (CH3)3CMgCl produces
A. (CH3)3CD B. (CH3)3CO C. (CD3)3CD D. (CD3)3COD
67. The reaction with alcoholic potash, l-chlorobutane gives
A. 1-Butene B. 1-Butanol C. 2-Butene D. 2-Butanol
68. The active nitrating agent during nitration of
benzene is
A. NO3
- B. HNO2
- C. NO2
- D. HNO3
69. The number of sigma and pi bonds in 1-buten-3-yne are
A. 5 sigma and 5 pi B. 7 sigma and 3 pi C. 8 sigma and 2 pi D. 6 sigma and 4 pi
70. The most stable carbonium ion among the cations is
A. sec-butyl B. ter-butyl C. n-butyl D. none of these
71. How many optically active stereo-isomers are possible for butane-2, 3-diol?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
72. B.P. and M.P. of inert gases are
A. high B. low C. very high D. very low
73. [CO(NH3)5Br] SO4 and [CO(NH3)5 SO4] Br are examples of which type of isomerism ?
A. Linkage B. Geometrical C. Ionization D. Optical
74. The valency of Cr in the complex [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2] + is
A. 3 B. 1 C. 6 D. 5

75. In Nessler's reagent, the ion is
A. Hg+ B. Hg2+ C. HgI2
2 - D. HgI4
2 -
76. In solid CuSO4.5H2O, copper is co-ordinated to
A. five water molecules B. four water molecules C. one sulphate ion D. one water molecule
77. Which of the following is a weak acid?
A. HCl B. HBr C. HP D. HI
78. When SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution,
A. the solution turns blue B. the solution is decolourised
C. SO2 is reduced D. green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
79. Which of the following has lowest boiling point?
A. H2O B. H2S C. H2Se D. H2Te
80. Nitric oxide is prepared by the action of dil. HNO3 on
A. Fe B. Cu C. Zn D. Sn
81. The laughing gas is
A. nitrous
oxide
B. nitric
oxide
C. nitrogen
trioxide
D. nitrogen
pentaoxide
82. Ordinary glass is
A. sodium silicate B. calcium silicate
C. calcium and Sodium silicate D. copper silicate
83. The chemical name of phosgene is
A. Phosphene B. Carbonyl chloride C. Phosphorous
oxychloride
D. Phosphorous
trichloride
84. Which one of the following is strongest Lewis acid?
A. BF3 B. BCl3 C. BBr3 D. BI3
85. Three centred bond is present in
A. NH3 B. B2H6 C. BCl3 D. AlCl3
86. Plaster of Paris is
A. CaSO4.H2O B. CaSO4.2H2O C. CaSO4.1/2 H2O D. CaSO4.3/2 H2O
87. Rocky impurities present in a mineral are
called
A. flux B. gangue C. matte D. slag
88. Free hydrogen is found in
A. acids B. water C. marsh gas D. water gas
89. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard water; the

sodium ions are exchanged with
A. H+ B. K+ C. SO4
2- D. Mg2+
90. On passing 0.3 faraday of electricity through aluminium chloride, the amount of aluminium
metal deposited on cathode is (Al = 27)
A. 0.27 g B. 0.3 g C. 2.7 g D. 0.9 g
91. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as
A. Electro-osmosis B. Brownian movement C. Cataphoresis D. Dialysis
92. In a colloidal state, particle size ranges from
A. 1 to 10 Ao B. 20 to 50 Ao C. 10 to 1000 Ao D. 1 to 280 Ao
93. The half-life of a first order reaction is 69.35. The value of rate constant of the reaction is
A. 1.05-1 B. 0.15-1 C. 0.015-1 D. 0.0015-1
94. Heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and
strong base is always
A. 13.7
Kcal/mol
B. 9.6
Kcal/mol
C. 6
Kcal/mol
D. 11.4
Kcal/mol
95. In exothermic reactions,
A. HR =HP B. HR >HP C. HR < HP D. None of the above
96. Which is a buffer solution?
A. CH3COOH +
CH3COONa
B. CH3COOH +
CH3COONH4
C. CH3COOH + NH4Cl D. NaOH + NaCl
97. The pH of 0.01 M solution of HCl is
A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 10.0 D. 11.0
98. In which of the following case does the reaction go fastest to completion?
A. k = 102 B. k = 10 -2 C. k = 10 D. k = 1
99. What quantity of limestone (CaCO3) on heating will give 28 kg of CaO?
A. 1000 kg B. 56 kg C. 44 kg D. 50 kg
100. The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is
A. 40 B. 16 C. 18 D. 10
101. If we take 44 g of CO2 and 14 g of N2,
what will be the mole fraction of CO2 in the
mixture?
A. 1/5 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/4
102. The molarity of a solution of Na2CO3 having 5.3 g/250 ml of solution is
A. 0.2 M B. 2 M C. 20 M D. 0.02 M
103. A gas is initially at 1 atm pressure. To compress it to 1/2th of its initial volume, pressure to
be applied is

A. 1 atm B. 4 atm C. 2 atm D. 1/4 atm
104. The value of R in calorie/degree/mole is
A. 0.0831 B. 8.31 C. 8.31 x 107 D. 1.987
105. Which of the following possesses zero resistance at 0 K?
A. Conductors B. Semi-conductors C. Super-conductors D. Insulators
106. CsCl has lattice of the type
A. ccp B. fcc C. bcc D. hcp
107. In the reaction between sodium and chlorine to form sodium chloride,
A. sodium atom is
reduced
B. sodium ion is
reduced
C. chlorine atom is
reduced
D. chloride ion is
reduced
108. Octahedral molecular shape exists in
______ hybridisation.
A. sp3d B. sp3d2 C. sp3d3 D. sp2d2
109. NH3 and BF3 form an adduct readily because they form
A. a co-ordinate bond B. a covalent bond C. an ionic bond D. a hydrogen bond
110. Diagonal relationship exists between
A. Li and Mg B. Na and Mg C. K and Mg D. Al and Mg
111. Which element has the highest electro-negativity?
A. F B. He C. Ne D. Na
112. Loss of a -particle is equivalent to
A. loss of two neutrons only B. loss of two protons only
C. loss of two neutrons and loss of two protons D. none of the above
113. Stable compounds in + 1 oxidation state are formed by
A. B B. Al C. Ga D. Th
114. Sodium hexametaphosphate is used as
A. a cleansing agent B. an insecticide C. a water softner D. an iron exchange
resin
115. The strongest acid is
A.
ClO3(OH)
B.
ClO2(OH)
C.
SO(OH)2
D.
SO2(OH)2
116. Which one among the following pairs of ions cannot be separated by H2S in dilute
hydrochloric acid?
A. Bi3+, Sn4+ B. Al3+, Hg2+ C. Zn2+, Cu2+ D. Ni2+, Cu2+
117. The alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon is

A. Pentane B. 2-methylbutane C. 2, 2-
dimethylpropane D. 2, 3-dimethylbutane
118. The product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethy1 bromide is
A. ethane B. ethene C. nitroethane D. ethyl a1coho1
119. Formy1 chloride has not been so prepared. Which one of the following can function as
formyl chloride in formulation?
A. HCHO + HCl B. HCOOCH3 + HCl C. CO + HCl D. HCONH2 + HCl
120. Amongst the following, the most basic compound is
A. Benzylarnine B. Aniline C. Acetanilide D. p-Nitroaniline
121. If the roots of x2 - bx + c = 0 are
consecutive integers, then b2 - 4c is equal to
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
122. Condition that the two lines represented by the equation ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0 to the
perpendicular is
A. a = - b B. ab = 1 C. a = b D. ab = -1
123. If A ⊆ B, then A ∩ B is equal to
A. Bc B. Ac C. B D. A
124. In order that the function f(x) = (x + 1)cot x is continuous at x = 0, f(0) must be defined as
A. f(0) = 0 B. f(0) = e C. f(0) = 1/e D. none of the above
125. The eccentricity of the ellipse 16x2 + 7y2 = 112 is
A. 4/3 B. 7/16 C. 3/√7 D. 3/4
126. If z1, z2, z3 are three complex numbers in A.P., then they lie on
A. a circle B. an ellipse C. a straight line D. a parabola
127. If [(a2 + 1)2]/(2a - i) = x + iy, then x2 + y2 is
equal to
A. [(a2 +
1)4]/(4a2 +
1)
B. [(a +
1)2]/(4a2 +
1)
C. [(a2 -
1)2]/(4a2 -
1)2
D. none of
the above
128. The vertices of a triangle are (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4). Its orthocentre is at
A. (3/2, 2) B. (0, 0) C. (1, 4/3) D. none of the above
129. The eccentricity of the conic 9x2 - 16y2 = 144 is
A. 5/4 B. 4/3 C. 4/5 D. √7
130. The vertices of a triangle are (0, 3), (-3, 0) and (3, 0). The co-ordinates of its orthocentre are
___________________
A. (0, 2) B. (0, -3) C. (0, 3) D. (0, -2)
131. If t is the parameter for one end of a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax, then its length is
A. a [t - (1/t)] B. a [t + (1/t)] C. a [t - (1/t)]2 D. a [t + (1/t)]2
132. The value of cos2 θ + sec2 θ is always
A. equal to 1 B. less than 1
C. greater than or equal to 2 D. greater than 1, but less than 2
133. The number of points of intersection of 2y
= 1 and y = sin x, -2π ≤ x ≤ 2π is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
134. If sin θ1 + sin θ2 + sin θ3 = 3, then cos θ1 + cos θ2 + cos θ3 =
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
135. The number of solutions in 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2 of the equation cos 3x tan 5x = sin 7x is
A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. none of the above
136. One end of a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 - 4x - 2y - 4 = 0 is (5, -6), the other end is
A. (4, -9) B. (-9, -4) C. (4, 9) D. (9, -4)
137. The set of values of m for which both the roots of the equation x2 - (m + 1)x + m + 4 = 0 are
real and negative consists of all m, such that
A. -3 ≥ m or m ≥ 5 B. -3 < m ≤ 5 C. - 4 < m ≤ -3 D. -3 < m ≤ -1
138. Let Pn(x) = 1 + 2x + 3x2 + ...... + (n + 1) xn be a polynomial such that n is even. Then the
number of real roots of P(x) = 0 is
A. 1 B. n C. 0 D. none of the above
139. The next term of the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10,
........ is
A. 16 B. 13 C. 15 D. 14
140. If H is the harmonic mean between P and Q, then H/P + H/Q is
A. (P + Q)/PQ B. PQ/(P + Q) C. 2 D. none of the above
141. A class is composed of two brothers and six other boys. In how many ways can all the boys
be seated at a round table so that the two brothers are not seated besides each other?
A. 4320 B. 3600 C. 720 D. 1440
142. The binomial coefficient of the 4th term in the expansion of (x - q)5 is
A. 15 B. 20 C. 10 D. 5
143. For x ≠ 0, the term independent of x in the expansion of (x - x -1) is equal to
, then
A. | A | = 2 | B | B. | A | = | B | C. | A | = - | B | D. none of the above
147. Equation of the sphere with centre (1, -1, 1) and radius equal to that of sphere 2x2 + 2y2 +
2z2 - 2x + 4y - 6z = 1 is
A. x2 + y2 + z2 - 2x + 2y - 2z + 1 = 0 B. x2 + y2 + z2 + 2x - 2y + 2z + 1 = 0
C. x2 + y2 + z2 - 2x + 2y - 2z - 1 = 0 D. none of the above
148. Equation of the line passing through the
point (1, 1, 1) and parallel to the plane 2x + 3y +
3z + 5 = 0 is
A. (x - 1)/1 = (y - 1)/2 =
(z - 1)/1
B. (x - 1)/-1 = (y - 1)/1
= (z - 1)/-1
C. (x - 1)/3 = (y - 1)/2 =
(z - 1)/1
D. (x - 1)/2 = (y - 1)/3 =
(z - 1)/1
________
149. If a, b, c are constants such that a and c are of opposite signs and r is the correlation
coefficient between x and y, then the correlation coefficient between ax + b and cy + d is
A. (a/c)r B. r C. - r D. (c/a)r
150. From a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a court card is
A. 3/13 B. 1/4 C. 4/13 D. 1/13
151. A binomial probability distribution is symmetrical if p, the probability of success in a single
trial, is
A. > 1/2 B. < 1/2 C. < q, where q = 1 - p D. = 1/2
152. The binomial distribution whose mean is 10 and S.D. is 2√2 is
A. (4/5 + 1/5)50 B. (4/5 + 1/5)1/50 C. (4/5 + 5/1)50 D. none of the above
153. tan (cot -1x) is equal to
A. π/4 - x B. cot (tan -1x) C. tan x D. none of the above
154. If f(x) is an odd periodic function with
period 2, then f(4) equals
A. - 4 B. 4 C. 2 D. 0
155. The function f(x) = [(x3 + x2 - 16x + 20)]/(x - 2) is not defined for x = 2. In order to make
f(x) continuous at x = 2, f(2) should be defined as
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
156. Let f and g be differentiable functions satisfying g'(a) = 2, g(a) = b, and fog = 1 (identity
function). Then f'(b) is equal to
A. 0 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. none of the above
157. A cone of maximum volume is inscribed in a given sphere. Then the ratio of the height of
the cone to the diameter of the sphere is
A. 3/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 2/3
158. The function is decreasing in the interval
A. - ∞ < x < -10/3 B. 0 < x < ∞ C. -3 < x < 3 D. -10/3 < x < 0
159. Suppose that f''(x) is
continuous for all x and
f(0) = f'(1). If
tf'(t) dt = 0,
then the value of f(1) is
A. 3 B. 2 C. 9/2 D. none of
the above
160. Integrating factor of differential equation cos x (dy/dx) + y sin x = 1 is
A. sin x B. sec x C. tan x D. cos x
_______
161. If dx/(1 + 4x2) =
π/8, then the value of a is
A. π/2 B. 1/2 C. π/4 D. 1
162. The maximum value of (log x)/x is
A. 2/e B. 1/e C. 1 D. e
163. If one root of the equation x2 + px + 12 = 0
is 4, while the equation x2 + px + q = 0 has
equal roots, then the value of q is
A. 49/4 B. 4/49 C. 4 D. none of
the above
164. The sum of the series 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6 + ....... to 9 terms is
A. -5/6 B. -1/2 C. 1 D. -3/2
165. The sum of all two digit numbers, which are odd is
A. 2475 B. 2530 C. 4905 D. 5049
166. How many ten digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 3 and 7 only?
A. 10C1 + 9C2 B. 210 C. 10C2 D. 10!
167. If x and y are real and different and u = x2 + 4y2 + 9z2 - 6xyz - 3zx - 2xy, then u is always
A. non-negative B. zero C. non-positive D. none of the above
168. If a be a non-zero vector, then which of the following is correct?
A. a . a = 0 B. a . a > 0 C. a . a ≥ 0 D. a . a ≤ 0
169. If two vectors a and b are parallel and have
equal magnitudes, then
A. they are equal B. they are not equal
C. they may or may not
be equal
D. they do not have the
same direction
170. In a triangle, the lengths of the two larger sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are
in A.P., then the length of the third side can be
A. 5 ± √6 B. 3√3 C. 5 D. none of the above
171. The three lines 3x + 4y + 6 = 0, √2x + √3y + 2√2 = 0, and 4x + 7y + 8 = 0 are
A. sides of a triangle B. concurrent C. parallel D. none of the above
172. The pole of the straight line 9x + y - 28 = 0 with respect to the circle 2x2 + 2y2 - 3x + 5y - 7
= 0 is
A. (3, 1) B. (1, 3) C. (3, -1) D. (-3, 1)

173. If the sets A and B are defined as A = { (x, y) : y = ex, x ∈ R }, B = { (x, y) : y = x, x ∈ R },
then
A. A ∪ B = A B. A ∩ B = φ C. A ⊆ B D. B ⊆ A
174. The
value of the
integral
{ f(x)/[f(x) + f(2a
- x)] }dx is equal
to
A. a B. 2a C. 3a D. none of
the above
175. The slope of the normal at the point (at2, 2at) of the parabola y2 = 4ax is
A. 1/t B. t C. - t D. -1/t
176. If z is any complex number such that | z + 4 | ≤ 3, then the greatest value of | z + 1 | is
A. 2 B. 6 C. 0 D. - 6
177. The equation cos x + sin x = 2 has
A. only one solution B. two solutions
C. no solution D. infinite number of solutions
178. The most general value of θ, which satisfies both the equations tan θ = -1 and cos θ = 1/√2
will be
A. nπ + (7π/4) B. nπ + (-1)n (7π/4) C. 2nπ + (7π/4) D. none of the above
179. A spherical ball of radius r placed on the
ground subtends an angle of 60o at a point A of
the ground. Then the distance of the point A
from the centre of the ball is
A. 3r B. 2r C. 4r D. none of
the above
180. In a triangle ABC, a2 cos 2B + b2 cos 2A + 2ab cos (A - B) is equal to
A. c B. c2 C. 2c D. none of the above



1. The radius of curvature of a spherical surface is measured using
A. a spherometer B. spectrometer C. screw gauge D. slide callipers
2. If the dimensions of length are expressed as Gx, Cy, h z, where G, C, h are universal
gravitational constant, speed of light and Plank's constant respectively, then
A. x = 1/2, y = 1/2 B. x = 1/2, z = 1/2 C. y = 1/2, z = 3/2 D. y = + 3/2, z = 1/2
3. The dimensional formula of electric field strength is:
A. MLT-2 I-1 B. MLT-3A-1 C. T-2A-1 D. MLTA-2
4. A man throws a ball in air in such a way that when the ball is in its maximum height he throws
another ball. If the balls are thrown after the time difference of 1 sec, then what wilt be the height
attained by them
A. 19.6 m B. 9.8 m C. 4.9 m D. 2.45 m
5. If the velocity time graph of a body is a straight line sloping downwards, the body has
A. acceleration B. declaration C. zero acceleration D. constant acceleration
6. Which one of the following equations represents the motion of body with finite constant
acceleration?
A. y = at B. y = at + bt2 C. y = at + bt 2 + ct3 D. y = at + bt
7. What is the magnitude of the velocity of the
body when it is projected horizontally from a
point above the ground after 0.2 seconds?
A. √2 ms-1 B. 2√2 ms-1 C. 3√2 ms-1 D. 4√2 ms-1
8. A string can withstand a tension of 25 N. What is the greatest speed at which a body of mass 1
kg can be whirled in a horizontal circle using 1 m length of the string?
A. 25 ms-1 B. 5 ms-1 C. 75 ms-1 D. 10 ms-1
9. An object tied to a piece of string is whirled in a vertical circle, at constant speed. The tention
in the string is maximum at
A. A B. B
C. C D. D
10. The maximum force of friction that comes into play is called
A. limiting friction B. kinetic friction C. static friction D. minimum friction
11. A body of mass 5 Kg is raised vertically to a
height of 10 m by a force of 170 N. The final
velocity of the body is
A. 15 ms-1 B. 17 ms-1 C. 20 ms-1 D. 22 ms-1


12. A cyclist moving at a speed of 17.64 km/h describes a circle of radius 9.8 m. If the cyclist is
held in balance, the co-efficient of friction between the tyre and the ground is
A. 0.25 B. 0.29 C. 0.36 D. 0.35
13. Two bodies with masses m1 and m2 have equal kinectic energies. If P1 and P2 are their
respective momenta, then P1 = P2 is
A. m1 : m2 B. m2 : m1 C. m1
2 : m2
2 D. √m1 : √m2
14. In elastic collision,
A. only energy is conserved B. only momentum is conserved
C. both energy and momentum is conserved D. none of these
15. The velocity of a particle whose kinetic
energy is equal to the rest energy is
A. (1/2) C B. C C. √3/3 D. √3 C
16. The propeller of a ship makes 350 rev. while its speed increases from 200 rpm to 500 rpm.
Then the time taken for this is
A. 1 min B. 1.2 minute C. 5.3 seconds D. 53 seconds
17. The K.E. needed to project a body from the earth's surface to infinity is
A. mgR B. 2 mgR C. 1/2 (mgR) D. 1/4 (mgR)
18. The distance of two planets from the sun are 1013 and 1012 meters respectively. The ratio of
time period of these two planets is
A. √10 B. 1/√10 C. 100 D. 10√10
19. Poisson ratio is the ratio of
A. the linear strain to the lateral strain B. the lateral strain to the linear strain
C. the linear stress to the lateral stress D. the lateral stress to the linear stress
20. Two wires L and M are of the same material
and of the same length, but the diameter of L is
twice that of M stretching force applied to L is
four times that of M. Then the ratio of the
elongation of L to that of M is
A. 1 : 4 B. 4 : 1 C. 1 : 1 D. 2 : 1
21. Which of the substance breaks just beyond the elastic limit?
A. Elastic B. Malleable C. Brittle D. Ductile
22. A stone of mass 16 kg is attached to a string 144-meter-long and is whirled in a horizontal
circle. The maximum tension the string can stand is 16 N. The maximum velocity of revolution
that can be given to the stone without breaking it will be
A. 12 ms-1 B. 14 ms-1


C. 16 ms-1 D. 20 ms-1
23. A vessel containing 0.1 m3 of air at 76 cm of Hg pressure is connected to an evacuated vessel
of capacity 0.09 m3. The resultant air pressure is
A. 20 cm of Hg B. 30 cm of Hg C. 40 cm of Hg D. 50 cm of Hg
24. Two gases A and B having the same temperature T, same pressure P and the same volume V
are mixed. If the mixture is at the same temperature T and occupies a volume V, the pressure of
the mixture is
A. P B. 2P C. P/2 D. 4P
25. A solid ball of metal has spherical cavity
inside it. If the ball is heated, the volume of the
cavity will
A. increase B. decrease C. remain
the same
D.
disappear
26. If the law of heat conduction is written in the form of Ohm's law, then the quantity similar to
electrical resistance is
A. A/dλ B. Ad/λ C. Aλ/d D. d/Aλ
27. The work done from 250 cals of heat is
A. 1045 ergs B. 1045 joules C. 1045 watt D. 1045 N
28. The time taken by a particle executing S.H.M of period T to move the mean position to half
the maximum displacement is
A. T/2 B. T/4 C. T/8 D. T/12
29. Let g be the acceleration due to gravity at
earth's surface and K be the rotational K.E. of
the earth. Suppose the earth's radius decreases
by 2%, then
A. g decreases by 2%
and K decreases by 4%
B. g decreases by 4%
and K increases by 2%
C. g increases by 4%
and K decreases by 4%
D. decreases by 4% and
K increases by 4%
30. A particle of mass m is hanging vertically by an ideal spring of force constant K. If the mass
is made to oscillate vertically, its total energy is
A. maximum at the extreme position B. maximum at the equilibrium
C. minimum at the equilibrium D. same at all position
31. Velocity of sound in CO2 is less than in hydrogen because
A. CO2 is heavier than hydrogen B. CO2 is a compound and hydrogen is an
element
C. CO2 is more soluble in water D. CO2 can be more easily liquefied


32. The velocity of sound in air at room temperature is 110 m/sec. The length of the wave
coming from a vibrating fork at frequency 275 is
A. 0.4 m B. 100 m C. 825 m D. 1375 m
33. The temperature at which velocity of sound in air is double its velocity at 0°C is
A. 435°C B. 694°C C. 781°C D. 819°C
34. Static electricity is produced by
A. induction B. friction
C. both induction and
friction
D. none of the above
35. Surface charge density on a pear shaped conductor is
A. maximum in the middle position B. maximum near the tapering end
C. maximum near the broad end D. equal throughout the surface
36. A given charge situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end on position
experiences a force F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the force acting on the charge will
be
A. 2F B. F/2 C. F/4 D. F/8
37. A piece of fuse wire melts when the current is 5 A. The energy produced then is 1 J/s. The
resistance of the fuse in ohm is
A. 0.04 B. 0.1 C. 0.5 D. 10
38. The gravitational force between two point masses m1 and m2 at separation r is given by
F = (m1m2)/r2 Then constant K
A. depends on systems of units only B. depends on medium between masses only
C. depends of both masses and units D. none of these
39. A piece of copper and another of germanium
are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
A. each of them
increases
B. each of them
decreases
C. copper increases and
germanium decreases
D. germanium increases
and copper decreases
40. In a given thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 20°C, while the neutral
temperature is 27°C. What will be the temperature of immersion ?
A. 420°C B. 425°C C. 520°C D. 525°C
41 When different parts of a metal are kept at different temperature and current is passed through
it, heat is either evolved or absorbed. The effect is called
A. Peltier effect B. Seebeck effect C. Thompson effect D. Joule effect
42. A storage battery is to be charged from a d.c. supply which terminal of the battery be
connected to the positive side of the line
A. positive B. negative


C. both positive and negative D. first negative and after the lapse of 5 minutes
positive
43. The force between two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction is a
A. force of attraction B. force of repulsion
C. no resultant force between the wires D. resultant force acting perpendicular to the
flow of wires
44. The motion of an electric charge produces
A. only an electric field B. only a magnetic field
C. both magnetic and
electric field D. none of the above
45. An ammeter is connected in series with a 2V circuit containing a 2V battery when the switch
is closed, the ammeter shows high deflection and comes to zero. The circuit may contain a
A. resistance of 20Ω B. fuse C. diode D. triode
46. Ferromagnetic substances have
A. very high permeability and susceptibility B. low permeability but high susceptibility
C. high permeability and low susceptibility D. none of these
47. The permeability of the paramagnetic substance is
A. very large B. very small C. negative D. small but more than
1
48. When a material is subjected to a small field
H, the intensity of magnetisation is proportional
to
A. √H B. H C. H2 D. 1/√H
49. In a capacitance circuit the resistance is
A. ω C B. 1/ω C C. 1/√ω C D √ω x C
50. In electromagnetic induction, the induced e.m.f. is independent of
A. change of flux B. time
C. number of lines of force D. resistance of the cells
51. A coil of area A is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field B. If coil is rotated by 1800, then
change in the flux will be
A. BA B. zero C. 2BA D. 3BA
52. The displacement current flows in the dielectric of a capacitor when the P.D. across its plates
A. is increasing with time B. is not decreasing with time
C. has assured a constant value D. becomes zero
53. Electromagnetic waves
A. are longitudinal
waves
B. travel in free space at
the speed of light
C. are produced by D. travel with the same


charges moving with
uniform velocity
speed in all media
54. The frequency of visible light is of the order of
A. 108 Hz B. 1018 Hz C. 1015 Hz D. 1012 Hz
55. A concave mirror of focal length 15cm forms an image at a distance of 40 cm from it. The
distance of the object from the mirror is
A. 10 cm B. 20 cm C. 24 cm D. 30 cm
56. Binoculars are made conveniently short by making use of right angled isosceles prism of
glass. In a normal pair of binoculars, the number of prism is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
57. A ray incident on a 60° prism of refractive
index √ 2 suffers minimum deviation. The angle
of incidence is
A. 0° B. 45° C. 60° D. 75°
58. Two electron beams having velocities in the ratio of 1 : 2 are subjected separately to identical
magnetic field. The ratio of deflection produced is
A. 4 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 1 : 4 D. 2 : 1
59. The ray used for determining the crystal structure of solid is
A. α -ray B. β -ray C. γ -ray D. X-ray
60. For the structural analysis of crystals X-ray are used because
A. X-rays have wavelength of the order of the inter-atomic spacing
B. X-rays are highly penetrating radiation
C. wavelength of X-rays is of order of nuclear size
D. X-rays are coherent radiation
61. The ratio of the molar amounts of H2S needed to precipitate the metal ions from 20 ml each
of 1 M Cd (NO3)2 and 0.5 M CuSO4 is
A. 2:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 D. indefinite
62. Among the following elements, which one has the highest value of first ionization potential?
A. Argon B. Barium C. Cesium D. Oxygen
63. Which of the following concepts best explains that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than pnitrophenol?
A. Resonance B. Conjugation C. Hydrogen binding D. Covalent bonding
64. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Ionic compounds generally have low m.p.and b.p.
B. Carbon tetrachloride is a non-polar molecule


C. Anhydrous AlCl3 is a covalent substance
D. A molecule represents a more stable state as compared to individual atoms
65. The chemical species having same number of electrons in the outermost and penultimate
shell is
A. Al3+ B. O2- C. Na+ D. Cl -
66. The solution was prepared by dissolving 0.0005 mol of Ba (OH)2 in 100 ml of the solution. If
the base is assume to ionize completely, the pOH of the solution will be
A. 10 B. 12 C. 2 D. unpredictable
67. In which of the following neutralization will
the enthalpy of neutralization be the smallest?
A. H3PO4
with NaOH
B. NaOH
and
CH3OOH
C. NaOH
with HCl
D. HCl
with
NH4OH
68. The pH of 10 -8 M NaOH will be
A. 6.96 B. 7.04 C. 12.0 D. 8
69. Gas deviates from ideal gas nature because molecules
A. attract each other B. contain covalent bond
C. show Brownian movement D. are colourless
70. Among the following reactions, the fastest one is
A. precipitation of silver chloride by mixing silver nitrate and sodium chloride solutions
B. burning of coal
C. rusting of iron in moist air
D. conversion of monoclinic sulphur to rhombic sulphur
71. When 5.0 g of BaCl2 is dissolved in water to have 106 g of solution. The concentration of
solution is
A. 5M B. 5gmL-1 C. 2.5 ppm D. 5 ppm
72. The unit of electrochemical equivalent is
A. coulomb/gram B. gm-ampere C. gm./coulomb D. gm-ampere-1
73. Adsorption increases when
A. temperature remains
constant
B. temperature
increases
C. temperature
decreases
D. none of the above
74. The number of hours required for a current of 3.0 A to decompose electrically 18 g of water
is
A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 6 hours D. 18 hours
75. The number of electrons per second, which pass through a cross section of a copper wire
carrying 10 -16 A, is
A. 16 x 10 -2 e/s B. 1.6 x 10 -3 C. 60 e/s D. 625 e/s


76. 20 ml of HCl having certain normality neutralizes exactly 1.0 g CaCO3. The normality of
acid is
A. 0.1 N B. 1.0 N C. 0.5 N D. 0.01 N
77. The alkali metal used in photoelectric cell is
A. Cs B. Fr C. K D. Rb
78. Calcium is extracted from
A. fused CaSO4 B. fused Ca3(PO4)3 C. fused CaCl2 D. aqueous CaCl2
solution
79. SbCl3 upon hydrolysis yields
A. Sb(OH)3 B. SbO+ C. Sb+3 D. None of the above
80. Which of the following trioxides can exist as
monomer molecule?
A. SO3 in
gaseous
state
B. TeO3 C. SeO3 in
all states
D. SO3 in
solid state
81. Pure chlorine is obtained
A. by heating PtCl4
B. by heating a mixture of NaCl and MnO2 with conc. H2SO4
C. by heating MnO2 with HCl
D. by treating bleaching powder with HCl
82. Which of the following gases is used in very low temperature thermometers?
A. N2 B. H2 C. Ne D. He
83. Number of nucleons in D2 molecule is
A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
84. There is no s-s bond in
A. S2O7
2- B. S2O3
2- C. S2O4
2- D. S2O5
2-
85. The ratio of Cp/Cv for inert gas is
A. 1.66 B. 1.33 C. 1.99 D. 2.13
86. Electrolytic reduction method is used in the
extraction of
A. highly
electropositive elements B. transition metals
C. noble metals D. highly
electronegative
elements
87. The metal that is extracted from sea water is
A. Mg B. Au C. Ca D. Fe


88. The compound having blue colour is
A. HgSO4 B. PbSO4 C. CuSO4.5H2O D. CuSO4
89. Which of the following is known as ‘Wol-framite’?
A. Na2CO3 + K2CO3 B. FeWO4 C. SnO2 D. 98% pure Zinc
90. Within each transition series, the oxidation state
A. first decreases till the middle of period and then increases
B. decreases regularly in moving from left to right
C. first increases till the middle of period and then decreases
D. none of the trend is correct
91. Which of the following properties of graphite and diamond are identical?
A. Density B. Crystal structure C. Atomic weight D. Electrical
conductivity
92. Which of the following is an example of copolymer?
A. PAN B. PTFE C.
Polythene
D. Buna-S
93. The reagent which forms crystalline osazone derivative when reacted with glucose is
A. Hydroxylamine B. Benedict solution C. Fehling solution D. Phenylhydrazine
94. To which class of dyes does phenolphthalein belong?
A. Phthalein dyes B. Triphenyl methane
dyes C. Nitro dyes D. Azo dyes
95. Peroxo linkage is present in
A. H2S2O8 B. H2SO3 C. H2S2O7 D. H2SO4
96. Tautomerism is exhibited by
A. RCH2NO2 B. R3CNO2 C. (CH3)2NH D. (CH3)3CNO
97. Latest technique for purification, isolation and separation of organic substances is
A. chromatography B. sublimation C. crystallization D. distillation
98. Lactic acid looses optical activity when reduced with red P and HI because
A. racemic mixture is formed B. spatial arrangement is changed
C. symmetry of the molecule is destroyed D. chirality of the molecule is destroyed
99. In order to convert aniline into
chlorobenzene, the reagents needed are
A.
Cl2/AlCl3 B. Cl2/CCl4
C.
NaNO2/HCl
and CuCl
D. CuCl
100. Which of the following alcohol on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 will yield 2-butene?
A. 2-methyl-2-propanol B. 2-methyl-2-butanol C. 2-propanol D. Sec. Butyl alcohol


101. A compound A has a molecular formula C2Cl3OH. It reduces Fehling solution and an
oxidation gives a monocarboxylic acid B. It can be obtained by the action of chlorine on ethyl
alcohol. A is
A. Chloral B. Chloroform C. Methyl chloride D. Monochloroacetic
acid
102. Which of the following will yield Benzaldimine hydrochloride?
A. benzonitrile and SnCl2/HCl B. nitrobenzene and SnCl2/HCl
C. benzene and hydrazine D. hydrazine and HCl
103. Isopropyl alcohol is heated on a water bath with the suspension of bleaching powder. Which
of the following products will be formed?
A. Propene B. Ethanol C. Isopropyl chloride D. Trichloromethane
104. Which of the following compounds is least basic?
A. C6H5NH2 B. C2H5NH2 C. CH3NH2 D. NH3
105. Iodine dissolves in KI solution due to the
formation of
A. I+ B. I - C. I2
- D. I3
-
106. Hydrogen sulphide exhibits
A. acidic properties B. basic properties C. oxidising properties D. none of the above
107. White Phosphorus reacts with caustic soda. The products are pH3 and NaH2PO2. This
reaction is an example of
A. oxidation B. reduction C. oxidation and
reduction
D. neutralisation
108. Ammonia solution dissolves fairly in
A. Hg2Cl2 B. PbCl2 C. Cu(OH)2 D. AgI
109. Amongst the trihalides of nitrogen, which one is the least basic?
A. NF3 B. NCl3 C. NBr3 D. NI3
110. Among the various allotropes of carbon,
A. diamond is the
hardest
B. graphite is the
hardest
C. lamp black is the
hardest D. coke is the hardest
111. Bone charcoal is used for decolourising sugar because it
A. reduces colouring matter B. oxidises colouring matter
C. absorbs colouring matter D. none of the above
112. Tin (II) chloride is used as a
A. mordant
in dying B. catalyst
C.
oxidising
agent
D. none of
the above


113. Inert pair effect is most prominent in
A. aluminium B. boron C. gallium D. thallium
114. In the alumino thermite process, aluminium acts as
A. an oxidising agent B. a flux C. a reducing agent D. a solder
115. The correct structure of mercurous ion is
A. Hg+ B. Hg2+ C. Hg2
+ D. Hg2
2+
116. Which one of the following is purely ionic?
A. Sodium chloride B. Beryllium chloride C. Lithium chloride D. Carbon tetrachloride
117. A compound 'A' on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to
obtain B. Excess CO2 is passed through aqueous solution of B, when C is formed. C on gentle
heating gives back A. The compound A is
A. NaHCO3 B. Na2CO3 C. Ca(HCO3)2 D. CaCO3
118. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is
electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products
at the cathode and anode are respectively
A. H2, O2 B. O2, H2 C. O2, Na D. O2, SO2
119. The metals occurring in the form of their compound in the earth's crust are called
A. matters B. minerals C. alloys D. gangue
120. A commercial sample of hydrogen peroxide is labelled as 10 volume. Its percentage
strength is nearly
A. 1% B. 3% C. 10% D. 90%
121. If (1 + x)n = P0 + P1 + P2x + P2x2 + ...... + Pnxn, then the value of P0 - P2 + P4 - ....... is
A. 2n cosnπ/4 B. 2n/2 cosnπ/4 C. 2n/2 sinnπ/4 D. 2n sinnπ/4
122. If a, b, c and x are real numbers, then x2 + 2bx + c will be positive if
A. b2 > c B. b2 < c C. b2 > 4c D. b2 < 4c
123. The one of the values of (-i)1/3 is
A. (1/2)(√3 - i) B. (-1/2)(√3 + i) C. ± (1/2)(√3 + i) D. none of the above
124. Let A = R ≈ {m}and B = R ≈ {n}, where R is a set of real numbers. Let f(x) = (x - n)/(x - m),
then f is (where m, n are any integers)
A. one-one onto B. many one onto C. one-one into D. many one into
125. Cards are dealt one by one from a well shuffled pack until an ace appears. The probability
that exactly n cards are dealt with before the first ace appears is


A. [4(51 - n)(50 - n)(49 - n)]/(13.51.50.49) B. 4/(52 - n)
C. [48 - (n - 1)]/(52 - n) D. none of the above
126. A determinant is chosen at random from
the set all determinants of order 2 with element
0 and only. The probability that the value of
determinant chosen is positive, is
A. 11/18 B. 11/14 C. 13/16 D. 3/16
127. The value of the
integral | 1 - x | dx equals
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0
128. The domain of the function f(x) =
sin -1
log2 (x2/2)
is
A. [-2, 2] ≈ {0} B. [-1, 1] ≈ {0} C. [-2, 2] D. [-1, 1]
129. Lt (1 - x) [(tanπx)/2] equals
x → 0
A. π/2 B. 2/π C. π - 2 D. π + 2
130. The function f(x) = | x |/x; x ≠ 0 and f(x) = 1; x = 0 is discontinuous
at
A. x = 0 B. x = 1 C. x = 2 D. x = -2
131. If x = a (t - sint), y = a (t - cost), then d2y/dx2 is equal to
A. (1/4a)(cosec2 t/2) B. (1/4a)(cosec3 t/2) C. - [(1/4a)(cosec2 t/3)] D. - [(1/4a)(cosec4 t/2)]
132. If x, y, and z are arithmetic, geometric, and harmonic means respectively of two distinct
position numbers, then
A. z < y < x B. x < y < z C. x < z < y D. x > z > y
133. All the solutions of the equation 16xy + x2 + y2 - 8x - 8y - 20 = 0 represents
A. a straight line B. pair of straight lines C. a circle D. a parabola
134. The solution set of an inequality 5 - 15y > 125, y ∈ R is
A. { y | y ∈ R } B. { y | y > 6 } C. { y | y < -8 } D. { y | y ∈ 8 & y ∈ 9 }
135. Unit vector in the xy-plane that makes an angle of 45o with the vector i + j and an angle of
60o with the vector 3i - 4j is
A. i B. 2i C. √2i D. none of the above
136. Given the line (x + 3)/2 = (y - 4)/3 = (z + 5)/2 and the plane 4x - 2y


- z = 1,then the line is
A. perpendicular to the
plane
B. inclined with 60o to
the plane
C. inclined with 45o to
the plane D. parallel to the plane
137. Lt [x sinx + log (1 - x)x]/x3
equals
x → 0
A. 1/2 B. - 1/2 C. 1/4 D. - 1/4
138. Four numbers are such that the first three are in A.P., while the last three are in G.P. The
first number is 6 and common ratio of G.P. is 1/2, then the numbers are
A. 2, 4, 6, 8 B. 6, 4, 2, 1 C. 6, 4, 3, 2 D. 6, 9, 3, 1
139. If the arithmetic and geometric mean of two distinct positive numbers are A and G
respectively, then their harmonic mean is
A. A/√G B. A/G2 C. G2/A D. √A/G
140. The area bounded by the straight lines y = 1, x + y = 2, and x - y = 2 is
A. 11 B. 11/2 C. 1/2 D. 2/11
141. The value of 52 log25 5 is
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8
142. If the angle of intersection between the curves y = x2 and y2 = 4x, then the point of
intersection is
A. (0, 0) B. (0, 1) C. (1, 0) D. (1, 1)
143. The pair of points which lie on the same side of the straight line 3x - 8y = 7 is
A. (-4, -3), (1, 1) B. (0, 1), (3, 0) C. (-1, -1), (3, -7) D. (-1, -1), (3, 7)
144. The equation x2 - 8x + 16 = 0 has
A. coincident root B. imaginary root C. unequal root D. none of the above
145. If b = 3, c = 4 and B = π/4, then the number of triangles that can be formed is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. none of the above
146. Lim (tan mθ)/m equals
θ → 0
A. θ B. - θ C. θ2 D. 0
147. The range of the function f(x)[1 - x] - 1 = 0 is
A. a set of irrational
numbers
B. a set of rational
numbers


C. a set of real numbers D. none of the above
148. If a, b, c are in A.P., then
A. 1/(a - b) = 1/(b - c) B. (a - b)/(b - c) = 2 C. (a - c)/2 = b D. b + c = 2a
149. The sum of all numbers greater than 1000 formed by using the digits 1, 3, 5, 7, no digit
repeated in any number is
A. 106656 B. 101276 C. 82171 D. 81273
150. The vertices of a triangle are represented by the complex numbers 4 - 2i, -1 + 4i, and 6 + i,
then the complex number representing the centroid of a triangle is
A. 3 + i B. 3 - i C. 9 + i D. 9 - i
151. sin (π + θ) sin (π - θ) cosec2θ is equal to
A. sin θ B. cos θ C. 1 D. -1
152. In a triangle ABC, [(b2 - c2)/a]cos A + [(c2 - b2)/a]cos B + [(a2 - b2)/a]cos C is equal to
A. abc B. 1/abc C. a2b2c2 D. 0
153. If ex-radii r1, r2, r3 of a triangle ABC are in H.P., then the sides of
the triangle are in
A. A.P. B. G.P. C. H.P. D. none of
the above
154. The vertices of a triangle are A(6, 4), B(4, -3) and C(-2, 3), which one of the following is
true for triangle ABC?
A. an isosceles triangle B. an equilateral
triangle
C. a right angled
triangle D. none of the above
155. The length of tangent from (5, 1) to the circle x2 + y2 - 6x + 4y + 3 = 0 is
A. 7 B. 14 C. 28 D. 36
156. If a = i + 2j + k
and b = 4i + 3j - 2k, then the projection of b on a
is
A. 2/√29 B. 5/√29 C. 3/√29 D. 2
157. Which one is true?
A. P(A/B) = P(A) +
P(AB)
B. P(A/B) = P(A) -
P(B)
C. P(A/B) =
[P(AB)]/P(B)
D. P(A/B) = P(A) -
P(B/A)
158. If y = (1/2)[log (tanx)], then the value of dy/dx at x = π/4 is
A. 1 B. 0 C. -1 D. ∞
159. If y = (tanx + secx)x, then dy/dx is equal to
A. x secx B. y secx C. m secx D. mxy

160. The equation 2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0 has
A. rational root B. irrational root C. equal root D. none of the above
161. A bag contains 6 red, 5 green, and 7 white balls. The probability of choosing a red or a
white ball is
A. 1/3 B. 11/13 C. 13/18 D. 3/8
162. ∫ (x + 2)/(x + 4) dx is equal to
A. 1/2[tan -1(x - 2/x)] +
c B. tan -1x + c C. 1/2[tan -1(2/x)] + c D. none of the above
163. The length intercepted on the line 3x + 4y + 1 = 0 by the circle (x - 1)2 + (y - 4)2 = 25 is
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
164. The period of the function cos [(3/5)α] - sin [(2/7)α] is
A. 7π B. 10π C. 70π D. 3π
165. The minimum value of xx is attained when x is equal to
A. - e B. + e C. e2 D. 1/e
166. If a, b, c and u, v, w are complex numbers representing the vertices
of two triangles such that c = (1 - r)a + rb and w = (1 - r)u + rv, where r
is a complex number, then the two triangles are
A. similar B.
congruent
C. equal in
area
D. equal
bases
167. In a triangle ABC, if r and R are the in-radius and circum-radius respectively, then (a cos A
+ b cos B + c cos C)/(a + b + c) is
A. r/R B. R/r C. R2/r D. r2/R
168. ∫ [(x + sinx)/(1 + cosx)] dx is equal to
A. x tan(x/2) B. x tan(x/2) + c C. log (1 + cosx) + c D. x log (cos x) + c
169. The differential coefficient of f [log(x)] when f(x) log x is
A. x log x B. x/(log x) C. 1/(x log x) D. (log x)/x
170. If x = 9 sin 2θ (1 + cos 2θ) and y = b cos 2θ (1 - cos 2θ), then the value of dy/dx is
A. (b tan θ)/a B. a/(b tan θ) C. (a tan θ)/b D. ab tan θ
171. The number of solution of the equation (tan x + sec x = 2 cos x) lying in the interval (0, 2π)
is
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
172. If θ and φ are angles in the first quadrant such that tan θ = 1/7 and
sin φ = 1/√10, then

A. θ + 2φ =
90o
B. θ + 2φ =
60o
C. θ + 2φ =
30o
D. θ + 2φ =
45o
173. If a cos 2θ + b sin 2θ = c has a and b as its solution, then the value of tan α + tan β is
A. (c + a)/2b B. 2b/(c + a) C. (c - a)/2b D. b/(c + a)
174. The perimeter of a certain sector of a circle is equal to the length of the arc of a semi-circle
having the same radius, the angle of the sector is
A. 65o 24' B. 64o 24' C. 63o 24' D. 62o 24'
175. The value of tan -1x + cot -1x is
A. π/3 B. π/6 C. 2π/3 D. 2π
176. If a circle cuts a rectangular hyperbola xy = c2 in A, B, C, D and the parameters of these
four points be t1, t2, t3 and t4 respectively, then
A. t1 t2 = t3 t4 B. t1 t2 t3 t4 = 1 C. t1 = t2 D. t3 = t4
177. If the normal to y2 = 12x at (3, 6) meets the
parabola again in (27, -8) and the circle on the
normal chord as diameter is
A. x2 + y2 + 30x + 12y -
27 = 0
B. x2 + y2 + 30x + 12y
+ 27 = 0
C. x2 + y2 - 30x - 12y -
27 = 0
D. x2 + y2 - 30x + 12y -
27 = 0
178. If the normal any point P on the ellipse cuts the major and the minor axes in G and g
respectively and C be the centre of the ellipse, then
A. a2 (CG)2 + b2 (Cg)2 = (a2 - b2)2 B. a2 (CG)2 - b2 (Cg)2 = (a2 - b2)2
C. a2 (CG)2 - b2 (Cg)2 = (a2 + b2)2 D. none of the above
179. The point of intersection of the tangent at the end of the latus rectum of the parabola y2 = 4x
is
A. (-1, 1) B. (1, 1) C. (-1, 0) D. (0, 0)
180. If a, b, c are distinct positive numbers, then the expression (b + c - a)(c + a - b)(a + b - c) -
abc is
A. positive B. negative
C. both negative and positive D. none of the above

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Answered By StudyChaCha Member