EAMCET zoology

I have applied for the EAMCET exam and doing preparation of the exam according to the syllabus but I don’t have syllabus of zoology so please give me detailed syllabus of zoology and its old question papers for preparation.

As you need the syllabus of the Zoology subject of Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAMCET) for the preparation so here I ma sharing the same with you

1) ZOOLOGY - Diversity of Living World:

What is life?; Nature, Scope & meaning of zoology; Branches of Zoology; Need for

classification- Zoos as tools for classification; Basic principles of

Classification: Biological system of classification- (Phylogenetic classification only);

Levels or Hierarchy of classification; Nomenclature - Bi &

Trinominal; Species concept; Kingdom Animalia; Biodiversity - Meaning and

distribution, Genetic diversity, Species diversity, Ecosystem

diversity(alpha,beta and gama), other attributes of biodiversity, role of

biodiversity, threats to biodiveristy, methods of conservation, IUCN Red data

books, Conservation of wild life in India -Legislation, Preservation, Organisations,

Threatened species.

2) STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN ANIMALS:

Levels of organization, Multicellularity: Diploblastic & Triploblastic conditions;

Asymmetry,Symmetry: Radial symmetry, and Bilateral symmetry (Brief

account giving one example for each type from the representative phyla);

Acoelomates, Pseudocoelomates and Eucoelomates: Schizo & Entero

coelomates (Brief account of formation of coelom); Tissues: Epithelial,

Connective, Muscular and Nervous tissues. (make it a little more elobarative)

3) ANIMAL DIVERSITY-I : INVERTEBRATE PHYLA:

General Characters – (Strictly restrict to 8 salient features only Classification up to

Classes with two or three examples - Brief account only). Porifera;

Cnidaria; Ctenophora; Platyhelminthes; Nematoda; Annelida (Include Earthworm

as a type study strictly adhering to NCERT text book); Arthropoda;

Mollusca; Echinodermata; Hemichordata.

4) ANIMAL DIVERSITY-II: PHYLUM : CHORDATA

General Characters – (Strictly restrict to 8 points only Classification up to Classes -

Brief account only with two or three examples). Phylum :

Chordata; Sub phylum: Urochordata; Sub phylum: Cephalochordata; Sub phylum :

Vertebrata; Super class: Agnatha, Class Cyclostomata; Super class:

Gnathostomata, Super class pisces, Class: Chondricthyes, Class: Osteichthyes;

Tetrapoda, Class: Amphibia (Include Frog as a type study strictly

adhering to NCERT text book), Class: Reptilia, Class: Aves, Class: Mammalia.

5) LOCOMOTION & REPRODUCTION IN PROTOZOA:

Locomotion: Definition, types of locomotor structures pseudopodia (basic idea of

pseudopodia without going into different types), flagella & cilia

(Brief account giving two examples each); Flagellar & Ciliary movement - Effective

& Recovery strokes in Euglena, Synchronal & Metachronal

movements in Paramecium; Reproduction: Definition, types. Asexual

Reproduction: Transeverse binary fission in Paramecium & Longitudinal binary

fission in Euglena. Multiple fission, Sexual Reproduction.

6) BIOLOGY & HUMAN WELFARE:

Parasitism and parasitic adaptation; Health and disease: introduction (follow

NCERT); Life cycle, Pathogenecity, Treatment & Prevention (Brief account

only) 1. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Plasmodium vivax 3. Ascaris lumbricoides 4.

Wuchereria bancrofti; Brief account of pathogenecity, treatment &

prevention of Typhoid, Pneumonia, Common cold, & Ring worm; Drugs and

Alcohol absuse.

7) TYPE STUDY OF PERIPLANETA AMERICANA:

Habitat and habits; External features; Locomotion; Digestive system; Respiratory

system; Circulatory system; Excretory system; Nervous system -

sense organs, structure of ommatidium; Reproductive system

8) ECOLOGY & ENVIRONMENT:

Organisms and Environment: Ecology, population, communities, habitat, niche,

biome and ecosphere (definitions only); Ecosystem: Elementary aspects

only, Abiotic factors- Light, Temperature & Water (Biological effects only),

Ecological adaptations; Population interactions; Ecosystems: Types,

Components, Lake ecosystem; Food chains, Food web, Productivity and Energy

flow in Ecosystem, Ecological pyramids - Pyramids of numbers,

biomass and energy; Nutritient cycling - Carbon, Nitrogen & Phosphorous cycles

(Brief account); Population attributes: Growth, Natality and Mortality,

Age distribution, Population regulation; Environmental issues.

9) HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY-I:

Digestion and absorption: Alimentary canal and digestive glands; Physiology of

digestion and gastrointestinal hormones; Peristalsis, digestion,

absorption and assimilation of proteins, carbohydrates and fats, egestion,

Calorific value of proteins, carbohydrates and fats (for box itemnot

to be evaluated); Disorders of digestive system, indigestion, constipation,

vomiting, jaundice, diarrhea.

Breathing and Respiration: Respiratory organs in animals; Respiratory system in

humans; Mechanism of breathing and its regulation in

humans - Exchange of gases, transport of gases and regulation of respiratiory

movements, Respiratory volumes; Respiratory disorders: Asthma,

Emphysema, Bronchitis, Pneunomia, Occupational respiratory disorders -

Asbestosis, Silicosis, Siderosis, Black Lung Disease in coal miners.

10) HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY-II:

Body Fluids and Circulation: Covered in I year composition of lymph and

functions; Clotting of blood; Human circulatory system - structure of human

heart and blood vessels; Cardiac cycle, cardiac output, double circulation,

circulatory pathways, Portal circulation and coronary circulation;

regulation of cardiac activity; Disorders of circulatory system: Hypertension,

coronary artery disease, angina pectoris, heart

failure.

Excretory products and their elimination: Modes of excretion - Ammonotelism,

Ureotelism, Uricotelism, Excretory organs; Human excretory

system - structure of kidney and nephron; Urine formation, osmoregulation;

Regulation of kidney function -Renin-Angiotensin - Aldosterone system,

Atrial Natriuretic Factor, ADH and diabetes insipidus; Role of other organs in

excretion; Disorders: Uraemia, renal failure, renal calculi, glomerular

nephritis, dialysis using artificial kidney, and kidney transplantation.

11) HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY-III:

Muscular and Skeletal system: Skeletal muscle - ultra structure; Contractile

proteins & Mechanism of muscle contraction, muscle fatigue, types of

muscle fibres, Skeletal system and its functions; Joints. (to be dealt with relevance

to practical syllabus); Disorders of the muscular and skeletal

system: myasthenia gravis, tetany, muscular dystrophy, arthritis, osteoporosis,

gout.

Neural control and co-ordination: Nervous system in human beings - Central

nervous system, Peripheral nervous system and Somatic and

autonomic neural system; Generation and conduction of nerve impulse; Reflex

action; Sensory perception; Sense organs; Brief description of

other receptors; Elementary structure and functioning of eye and ear, disorders of

human neural system.

12) HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY-IV:

Endocrine system and chemical co-ordination Endocrine glands and hormones;

Human endocrine system - Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal,

Thyroid, Parathyroid, Thymus gland, Adrenal, Pancreas, Gonads; Mechanism of

hormone action (Elementary idea only), hormones of kidney, heart

and gastrointestinal tract, Role of hormones as messengers and regulators; Hypo

and Hyper activity and related disorders: Common disorders -

Dwarfism, acromegaly, cretinism, goiter, exophthalmic goiter, diabetes, Addison’s

disease, Cushing’s syndrome.(Diseases & disorders to be dealt in

brief).

Immune system: Basic concepts of Immunology - Types of Immunity - Innate

Immunity, Acquired Immunity, Active and Passive Immunity, Cell

mediated Immunity and Humoral Immunity, Cells of immune system, organs of

immune system, soluble mediators of immunity and immunological

disorders

.

13) HUMAN REPRODUCTION:

Human Reproductive System: Male and female reproductive systems;

Microscopic anatomy of testis & ovary; Gametogenesis, Spermatogenesis &

Oogenesis; Menstrual cycle; Fertilization, Embryo development up to blastocyst

formation, Implantation; Pregnancy, placenta formation,

Parturition, Lactation (elementary idea).

Reproductive Health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of sexually

transmitted diseases (STD); Birth control - Need and methods,

contraception and medical termination of pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis;

infertility and assisted reproductive technologies - IVF-ET, ZIFT,

GIFT (elementary idea for general awareness).

14) GENETICS:

Heredity and variations. Morgan experiments of inheritance, Pleiotropy, Multiple

alleles and human blood groups, Rh blood types, genetic control of Rh

system, Erythroblastosis foetalis, polygenic inheritance, sex-determination, genic

balance theory, barr bodies, Haplodiploidy in honey bees, sex linked

inheritance in human beings, linkage in Drosophila, genetic disorders: Mendelian

disorders – Haemophilia, Sicklecell anaemia, Phenylketonuria,

colorblindness, Thalassemia, cystic fibrosis, Allosomal disorders: Kleinfilter

syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Autosomal disorders: Down syndrome,

Edwards syndrome, Patau syndrome, Cry-Du-Chat syndrome, Chronic

myelogenous leukemia, Human genome project, and DNA finger printing.

15) ORGANIC EVOLUTION:

Origin of Life, Biological evolution and Evidences for biological evolution

(palaeontological, comparative anatomical, embryological and molecular

evidences); Theories of evolution: Lamarckism (in brief), Darwin’s theory of

Evolution-Natural Selection with example (Kettlewell’s experiments

on Biston bitularia), Mutation Theory of Hugo De Vries; Modern synthetic theory

of Evolution - Hardy Weinberg law, Evolutionary forces, Types of

Natural Selection; Gene flow and genetic drift; Human evolution; Speciation -

Allopatric, sympatric; Reproductive isolation.

16) APPLIED BIOLOGY:

Beekeeping, Animal Husbandry: Fishery management, Poultry management, Dairy

management; Animal breeding; Bio-medical Technology:

Diagnostic Imaging (X-ray, CTscan, MRI), ECG, EEG; Application of Biotechnology

in health: Human insulin and vaccine production; Gene Therapy;

Transgenic animals; ELISA; Vaccines, MABs, Cancer biology, stem cells.


EAMCET Zoology Question Paper
41. Assertion (A) : "The Biological Species" concept helps us to ask how species are formed.
Reason (R) : The concept of Biological species focuses our attention on the question of how
reproductive isolation comes about.
The correct answer is :
(1) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A
(2) Both A and R are not true
(3) Only A is true but R is not correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is a true explanation to A
42. In ophiuroidea branched arms are seen in :
(1) Gorgonocephalus (2) Clypeaster
(3) Salmacis (4) Gorgonia
43. Note the following :
(a) It is a fresh water, metamerically segmented protostome.
(b) The c1itellum is absent.
(c) It is unisexual.
(d) Its larval form is Trochophore.
(e) The nervous system is found in the epidermis.
Which of the above is true of "Paddle worm" ?
(1) a, b and e (2) b, c and e (3) b, c and d (4) c, d and e
44. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(A) Green glands (I) Scolopendra
(B) Amphids and Phasmids (II) Respiratory organ
(C) Ctenidia (III) Shell protein
(D) Poison claw (IV) Excretory organs
(E) Concholin (V) Sense organs
The correct match is :
A B C D E
(1) IV V II I III
(2) I III IV V II
(3) II IV V III I
(4) III IV V II I
45. The type of connective tissue that is associated with the Umbilical cord is :
(1) Areolar connective tissue (2) Jelly-like connective tissue
(3) Adipose connective tissue (4) Reticular connective tissue
46. Note the following:
(a) It forms the lining of the cavities of alveoli of the lungs.
(b) It forms the lining of wet surfaces like buccal cavity and oesophagus.
(c) It occurs in the ducts of sweat glands.
(d) It forms the lining of salivary glands and sweat glands.
(e) It is a loose connective tissue.
Which of the above are associated with simple epithelial tissue ?
(1) a and d (2) band c (3) c and a (4) d and e
47. In vorticella, the total number of micronuclei formed at the end of prezygotic nuclear division in
female gamont is:
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4)5
48. Which stage in the life cycle of Taenia solium, infects the intermediate host?
(1) Hexacanth larva (2) Oncosphere
(3) Cysticercus larva (4) Miracidium
49. Assertion (A) : Predation is an interspecific interaction with a feeding strategy.
Reason (R) : Predation. and their prey maintain fairly stable population through time and rarely• one
population become abundant or scarce.
The correct answer is :
(1) Both A and R are not correct
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is a correct explanation of A
(3) Only A is correct, R is not correct
(4) Both A and Rare correct, but R is not a correct explanation of A
50. In pheretima, gizzard, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, pharyngea1 nephridia receive the blood
from thisblood vessel :
(1) Supra oesophageal (2) Lateral oesophageal
(3) Dorsal Blood (4) Subneural
51. The location of lymph glands in Pheretima is :
(1) 4th, 5th and 6th segments (2) 10th to 20th segments
(3) 26th to the last segments (4) 13th segment
52. Note the following:
(a) Fenestra (b) Pedical
(c) Lacinia (d) Flagellum
(e) Galea (f) Mentum
(g) Palpifer (h) Cardo
(i) Glossa
Which of the above found in the first pair of maxillae in the case of Cockroach?
(1) c,e, g and h (2) a, c, e and I (3) a, f, g and i (4) b, e, g and i
53. Note the following:
An insect whose mouthparts are biting and chewing type in the larval condition, while they are
siphoning type in the adult and this insect gives an economically important substance during yet
another stage of its development.
The insect is :
(1) Anopheles (2) Laccifer (3) Bombyx (4) Apis
54. Note the following:
(a) Monocytes (b) Trophocytes
(c) Lymphocytes (d) Mycetocytes
(e) Leucocytes (f) Oenocytes
(g) Urate cells
Which of the above are fat cells in Peripanata ?
(1) a, c, e and h (2) b, d, f and g (3) c, e, f and g (4) a, c, e and f
55. In cockroach which of the following is the principal motor centre:
(1) Supraoesophageal ganglia (2) Suboesophageal ganglia
(3) Metathoracic ganglia (4) Abdominal ganglia
56. The growth of a population without limit at its maximal rate and also that, rates of immigration and
emigration are equal, then it is called:
(1) Carrying capacity (2) Biotic potential
(3) Positive growth (4) Negative growth
57. The state of Gujarat has river, desert, forest and lake ecosystems, thus exhibiting a diversity of life.
Which measure do you use to denote total diversity in such a case :
(1) α (Alpha) (2) β (Beta) (3) γ (Gamma) (4) δ(Delta)
58. The pair of Amphibians found in Indian Peninsula is :
(1) Amphiuma (2) Tylototriton and Ichthyophis
(3) Hyla and Ambystoma (4) Psittacus and Apteryx
59. In coelomates the problem of diffusion of food from gut to tissues is solved by:
(1) The presence of coelomic fluid
(2) Churning the food within the body cavity
(3) Developing a circuilatory system
(4) Developing gut associated glands
60. Ovoviviparity is seen in this caecilian
(1) Wuchereria (2) Typhlonectus (3) Ichthyophis (4) Uraeotyphlus
61
Identify the region where all Na+ channels are reactivated but closed and all K+ channels are closed.
(1) D (2) C (3) B (4)A
62. A hormone secreted by the endocrinal cells of duodenal mucosa which influences the release of
pancreatic juice is :
(1) Relaxin (2) Cholecystokinin (3) Secretin (4) Progesteron
63. With the help of the below given, identify the correct sequence, that leads to the formation of blood
clot:
(a) Blood clot (b) Injury
(c) Factor II (d) Factor III
(e) Factor IV (f) Fibrinogen
(g) Thrombin
(1) b →c → d → f → g→ a
(2) b→c→g→f→a e d + ↑ ←⎯⎯
(3) d→b→c→g→f→a
e+ ↑
(4) b→d→c→f→g→a
e+ ↑
64. Left shift of oxyhaemoglobin curve is noticed under :
(1) Normal temperature and pH (2) Low temperature and high pH
(3) Low pH and high temperature (4) Low pH and low temperature
65. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia and Leucopenia are caused by the deficiency of respectively
(1) Pyridoxine and Riboflavin (2) Pyridoxine and Folacin
(3) Biotin and Folacin (4) Biotin and Cyanocobalamin
66. Which of the following given bones divide olfactory capsules in rabbit into left and right halves
(a) nasals (b) premaxillae (c) maxillae ( d) mesethmoid
(1) a (2) d (3) b (4)c
67. The glycoprotein layer between oocytes and cuboidal cells in ovary of rabbit is :
(1) Membrana granulose (2) Zona pellucida
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Zona reticulata
68. During the muscle contraction which zone decreases :
(1) I zone (2) Z zone (3) H zone (4) M zone
69. Note the following:
(a) Skin (b) Phagocytes
(c) B-cells (d) Inflammation
(e) Antibodies (f) T-cells
(g) Fever (h) Antimicrobial proteins
(i). NK-cells (j) Secretions
Identify the factors involved in 2nd line of defense
(1) b, d, g and i (2) b, c, e and I (3) d, f, h and j (4) c, e, g and h
70. The urine is :
(1) Hypotonic to blood and Isotonic to medullary fluid
(2) Hypertonic to blood and Isotonic to medullary fluid
(3) Isotonic to blood and Hypotonic to medullary fluid
(4) Isotonic to blood and Hypertonic to medullary fluid
71. The extinct reptiles without temporal fossae belong to :
(1) Chelonia (2) Synaptosauria (3) Ichthyopterygia (4) Cotylosauria
72.
In the above given pedigree, assume that no outsider marrying in, carry a disease. Write the genotypes
of II and III.
(1) All Xdy (2) XDY and XDXd
(3) XdX Xdy and XdyD (4) XdXd and Xdy
73. Match the following:
List•I List-II
(A) XX• XO, method of sex determination (I)
o+
Heterogamtic
(B) 1.5 X/A ratio (II) Turner's syndrome
(C) Karyotype 45 (III) Hemiptera
(D) ZW-ZZ method of sex determination (IV) Metafemale
The correct match is :
A B C D
(1) I IV II III
(2) III IV II I
(3) IV I II III
(4) I IV II III
74. A woman with blood group 'O' has a child with blood group 'O'. She claims that a man with blood
group 'N as the father of her child. What would be the genotype of the father, if her claim is right?
(1) IO IO (2) IAIB (3) IA IO (4) IBIO
75. A specific nucleotide sequence to which RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription of m-RNA
from a gene:
(1) Promoter gene (2) Structural gene (3) Operon (4) Regulator gene
76. A selection that acts to eliminate one .extreme from an array of phenotypes is :
(1) Disruptive (2) Directional (3) Stabilizing (4) Coevolution
77. Assertion (A) : The Theory of Survival of the Fittest is widely misunderstood.
Reason (R) : Evolution does not always increase the chances of a species survival and species do not
survive when such chances happen rapidly.
The correct answer is :
(1) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(2) Only A is true, but R cannot explain A
(3) Both A and R are true and R is a true explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are not true
78. In poultry first Deworming is usually done around this age :
(1) 4 weeks (2) 8 weeks (3) 12 weeks (4) 16 weeks
79. The sequence of Nitrogen Bases(Triplet) on t-RNA is :
(1) Anticodon (2) Terminating codon
(3) Degenerate codon (4) Initiating codon
80. Match the following:
List-I List-II tion between
(A) Sandwich ELISA (I) Three dimensional image
(B) QRS Complex (II) Substrate linked antibody
(C) Allograft (III) Ventricular depolarisation
(D) CT Scan (IV) Transplantation between non-identical individual
The correct match is :
A B C D
(1) II III IV I
(2) II IV III I
(3) I II IV III
(4) II III IV I
ANSWERS
(41) 4 (42) 1 (43) 3 (44) 1 (45) 2
(46) 1 (47) Del (48) 2 (49) 2 (50) 3
(51) 3 (52) 1 (53) 3 (54) 2 (55) 2
(56) 2 (57) 3 (58) 2 (59) 3 (60) 2
(61) 2 (62) 2 (63) 2 (64) 2 (65) 2
(66) 2 (67) 2 (68) 3 (69) 1 (70) 2
(71) 4 (72) 2 (73) 2 (74) 3 (75) 1
(76) 2 (77) 3 (78) 2 (79) 1 (80) l or 4

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I have applied for the Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAMCET) and starting the preparation of Zoology subject so please provide me the syllabus of it than I can do my preparation according to it?