IGNOU MBA entrance?

i am BBA graduate from Dr.BAMU. aurangabad & i have given the MBA cet . what procedure of admission in IGNOU for MBA What duration of course 2 year or 3 year . need to give a IGNOU entrance. what is the fees structure of complete course

Dhanpal R. Tatu
dhanpaltatu11@gmail.com

Duration of MBA course is 3 year offered by IGNOU.
Application Forms will be available from IGNOU, New Delhi and from all Regional Centers, Study Centers, and IGNOUARMY, NAVY, AIR FORCE AND ASSAM RIFLES Recognized Regional Centers. you can also download the form IGNOU’s website.

Date of Entrance Examination is end of February, 2011
Availability of Application Forms is beginning of October, 2010
Last Date for receipt of completed application forms is mid of December, 2010

Yes you have to give the entrance exam of IGNOU.
Students can choose from any one of the two options to appear in IGNOU MBA Entrance Exam:
1. Paper-Pencil Test
2.Computer Based Test

FEE STRUCTURE Course fee of Rs. 700/- per course is payable at the time of Admission and Re-Registration. Examination fee is included in the course fee. It also covers the cost of study material and counseling.

I lost my hall ticket, i want to download no,

IGNOU MBA admission

I want to apply for MBA program at IGNOU so please inform me when the university will release application form for this program in 2012 and how much the university charges at the time of admission?

I have applied for the MBA entrance exam so I want Study material for preparation of the exam. Please give me such any website from where I can download the Study material free of cost.

I am going to sit in IGNOU MBA entrance exam 2012 in next week so I want to download my admit card from website of IGNOU. Please give me the link from where I can download my admit card and procedure of downloading it.

Respected sir,
i m student of m.sc(it) in ludhiana. i want to do M.B.A or M.C.A from distance leaning .i want to know about all the rule n regulations,fee structure ,n syllabus of both the courses.
Regards,
Priyanka

IGNOU conduct MBA entrance twice in a year and For MBA entrance IGNOU publish application form in month of November and July. January session entrance exam date is gone so you can apply for August Session entrance exam and for this session application form will start to buy in third week of June and last date of application form is 15 July.

MBA course fee is 1000/- per course and can be paid through Bank Draft obtained from any one of the scheduled banks in favour of IGNOU and should be payable at the city where your Regional Centre is situated.

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

IGNOU OPENMAT - Indira Gandhi National Open University OPEN management aptitude test is taken twice in a year by IGNOU to admit candidates for various Degree/ Diploma Programme in Management

IGNOU OPENMAT Eligibility

-You should have Graduation in any discipline with 50% marks for General Category and 45% marks for reserved category
OR
-Must have Bachelor’s degree with 3 years of supervisory/managerial/professional experience.

IGNOU OPENMAT Exam Syllabus
General Awareness.
English Language
Quantitative Aptitude
Reasoning

Here I am sharing the sample Question paper of IGNOU OPENMAT Exam --

TEST I
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Which of the following countries is not a member of
the G-8 Group?
(1) France (2) Italy
(3) Spain (4) Germany
2. Sariska and Ranthambhore are the reserves for which
of the following animals?
(1) Lion (2) Deer
(3) Tiger (4) Bear
3. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives precedence
to constitutional provision over the laws
made by the Union Parliament/Sate Legislatures?
(1) 13 (2) 32
(3) 245 (4) 326
4. ‘APSARA’ is the name of India’s first
(1) Nuclear Reactor
(2) Helicopter
(3) Ground Battle Tank
(4) Railway Locomotive
5. Which of the following countries has the second largest
rail network in the world?
(1) India (2) USA
(3) Russia (4) China
6. Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2000 was awarded
to the former President of South Africa along with
(1) C. Subramaniam
(2) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh
(3) Satish Dhawan
(4) World Health Organisation
7. Which of the following is not a part of vehicular
pollution?
(1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Nitrogen oxide
(3) Carbon monoxide (4) Hydrogen peroxide
8. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on
(1) June 5th (2) June 4th
(3) July 5th (4) July 4th
9. The theme of the World Development Report 2001 is
(1) From plan to market
(2) Knowledge for development
(3) Attacking poverty
(4) The state in the changing world
10. The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence
in 1943 in
(1) Japan (2) Then Burma
(3) Singapore (4) Then Malaya
11. The Asian Games have been held in New Delhi
(1) Once (2) Twice
(3) Thrice (4) Four times
12. The Famous book ‘Anandmath’ has been authored
by
(1) Rabindranath Tagore
(2) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(3) Sarojini Naidu
(4) Sri Aurobindo
13. SAARC declared the decade 1991-2000 as the
Decede of
(1) Youth (2) Family
(3) Literacy (4) Girl Child
14. Army Day is celebrated in India every year on
(1) 1st January (2) 15th January
(3) 1st February (4) 15th February
15. The first Indian-American Woman to go into space
was
(1) Harbans Kaur (2) Kalpana Chawla
(3) Jyotirmoyee Sikdar (4) Bachhendri Pal
16. The main occupation of the people of Indus Valley
Civilization was
(1) Trade (2) Cattle rearing
(3) Huntin (4) Agriculture
17. The term ‘Golden Quadrangle’ refers to :
(1) The base of the pyramids found in Egyptian
Desert
(2) Four sea-ports identified by the Customs department
which are routes for gold smuggling
(3) National Highways Development Project connecting
the four Indian metro-cities
(4) Rich contiguous wheat growing areas of Punjab,
Haryana, U.P. and Rajasthan
18. Which of the following was not a centre of learning
in ancient India?
(1) Taxila (2) Vikramshila
(3) Nalanda (4) Koushambi

19. ‘Charak’ was the famous court physician of
(1) Harsha
(2) Chandragupta Maurya
(3) Ashoka
(4) Kanishka
20. Who among the following Congress leaders was
called the ‘Grand Old man of India’?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) Madan Mohan
Malviya
21. The President of the Drafting Committee of the Indian
Constitution was
(1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4) J.B. Kriplani
22. Which rock is formed by the deposits of animal shells
and skeletons?
(1) Sandstone (2) Limestone
(3) Phyllite (4) Granite
23. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Mettur – Kaveri
(2) Bhakra Nangal – Sutlej
(3) Hirakud – Mahanadi
(4) Tehri – Yamuna
24. Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known
as Minicoy Islands?
(1) Northern (2) Eastern
(3) Southern (4) Western
25. Tropical evergreen forests of India are found in
(1) Kerala (2) andhra Pradesh
(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Orissa
26. G-15 is
(1) an organisation of the developed countries of
the world
(2) an organisation of the developing countries of
the world
(3) an organisation of the developed countries of
Europe
(4) an organisation of developing countries of Asia
27. The birth-rate measures the number of births during
a year per
(1) 100 of population
(2) 1, 000 of ppulation
(3) 10,000 of population
(4) 1,00,000 of population
28. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the India
Constitution in
(1) 1971 (2) 1972
(3) 1975 (4) 1976
29. In India, to be recognised as a national party, a party
must secure at least
(1) 10% of the valid votes in four or more states
(2) 4% of the valid votes in four or more states
(3) 15% of the valid votes in two states
(4) 25% of the valid votes in one state
30. In which year were the first general elections held in
India?
(1) 1947–48 (2) 1948–49
(3) 1950–51 (4) 1951–52

TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. Read the two passages given below carefully. Each passage is followed by questions
based on the contents of the passage. Answer the questions by selecting the best alternative from among those given in the
questions.

Passage I
India has come a long way since the Bengal Famine of 1943. The food situation in India, once characterised by chronic
shortages and the spectre of famines, has changed dramatically over the years. From being the biggest recipient of PL 480 aid
during the 1950s and 1960s, India today is relatively self-sufficient in foodgrains at the given level of incomes and prices; in
fact, it has marginal surpluses. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has been signed, with India as one of the
signatories, under which all countries will have to gradually open up their agricultural sectors.
It is, therefore, neigher feasible nor desirable to keep India’s foodgrains sector insulated from world markets. In fact,
this is an appropriate opportunity for India to integrate its agriculture with global agriculture, and make use of private trade
(both domestic and foreign) as an important instrument for efficiently allocating her resources as well as providing food
security to her people at the lowest economic cost. The time to change gears in food policy has come.

31. India has ‘come a long way’ means
(1) many years have passed after the Bengal famine
(2) the food position in India is now vastly improved
(3) India now handles such problems under PL-480
scheme
(4) India has advanced in science and technology
32. Which of the following views regarding GATT, does
the author seem to be advocating?
(1) India should seize the chance and make efforts
to fulfil its objectives
(2) India should not have signed it, to insulate our
foodgrains sector
(3) India should have agreed to GATT excluding
the agricultural sector
(4) India should hand over the issue of foodgrains
security to the private sector
33. According to the author, why is it necessary to en
sure food security to people?
(1) In order to sustain economic growth
(2) As per the PL-480 guidelines
(3) In order to be able to export foodgrains
(4) The passage makes no such assertion
34. Which of the following forms the most essential part
of the concept of food security in India?
(1) Availability of affordable technology of food
production to poor farmers
(2) Availability of all foodgrains in the market for
the rural poor
(3) Easy access of foodgrains to the weaker
sections at affordable prices
(4) Providing subsidies on all food items for the
rural poor
35. If private agencies are to be entrusted with the task
of making foodgrains available to people, what facilitative
role should the Government undertake?
(1) Nationalise all distribution systems
(2) Make policies that give the right signals to the market
(3) Take responsibility of distribution
(4) Make efforts to increase the income of the farmers
36. The author of the passage seems to advocate
(1) liberalisation and privatisation
(2) state controlled, socialistic but closed economy
(3) a very practical and pragmatic approach to guard
our economy
(4) stable international relations
37. According to the author, food at affordable prices
could be made available to the poor by
A. reducing the cost of production of foodgrains
by using appropriate technology
B. offering foodgrains at lower cost and offering
economic support for maintaining low cost
C. raising the earnings of the poor
(1) only A
(2) only B and C
(3) only A and C
(4) A, B and C
38. By saying Indian policy makers have followed a mix
of both options it means that
(1) production and distribution both have public and
private participation
(2) production is largely in private hands while
distribution is only through public means
(3) for production, reliance has been on the private
sector while both public and private agencies
are mobilised for distribution
(4) production and distribution are both private
endeavours
Food security, in a broader context, means that people have physical and economic access to food. Since foodgrains
have the largest share in the food basket of the poor in a developing country like India, it is the availability of foodgrains that
lies at the heart of the concept of food security. The first step in this direction, therefore, is to make foodgrains physically
available to the people. This can be done by augmenting production, or through imports and transportation of grains to people
wherever they are.
There are several ways of achieving these targets. One may rely on private entrepreneurship by letting the individual
farmers produce, traders trade/import and make it available to consumers far and wide; or the Government may directly
intervene in the production and/or the trade process. In the former case, the Government follows policies that provide appropriate
market signals while in the latter, it acts as producer, importer and trader itself. Indian policy makers have followed a
mix of both these options. For production, they have relied on the farmers while the Government has retained control over
imports. For distribution, it created public agencies to do the job along with private trade, thus creating a dual market structure.
Providing economic access to food is the second part of the concept of food security. This can be best obtained by adopting a
cost effective technology in production so that the real price of foodgrains come down and more people have access to it. In
case it still fails to reach the larger sections of the population, the Government can directly subsidise food for the poor, launch
a drive to augment their incomes, or try a combination of the two strategies. India has followed both these policies.

(1) opposed (2) diverted
(3) implemented (4) advocated
40. Why, according to the passage, was central economic
planning found to be difficult?
(1) On account of multiplicity of States and Union
Territories
(2) On account of lack of coordination in different
Government departments
(3) On account of autonomy given to the States in
certain matters
(4) On account of lack of will in implementing land
reforms
41. Which of the following issues was not appropriately
realised by the Central Government?
(1) Ethnic diversity of the people
(2) A national language for the country
(3) Implementation of the formulated policies
(4) Centre-State relations
42. Which, according to the passage, was an exercise in
democratic practice in India before Independence?
(1) The handing over of power by the British
(2) The Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service
(3) The conduct of provincial elections in 1937
(4) Several democratic institutions created by the
India National Congress
43. Which of the following statements is not true in the
context of the passage?
(1) The Congress party was originally opposed
to the idea of division of states on linguistic
basis
(2) Economic development and social reform were
initiated soon after Independence
(3) The political elite in India rebelled against the
British Raj
(4) The Congress leadership was full conscious of
the problems arising out of ethnic diversity in
India at the time of Independence
44. The new government could start with effective instrument
of central control because the
(1) process of Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service
had already begun
(2) Indian army was organised on the pattern of the
British army
(3) people of India offered their wholehearted support
to the Government
(4) transfer of power to the Indian Congress Party
was peaceful

Passage II
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independece,
which was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained
supreme authority in India until 1947, the privincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before
national independence. During the Pacific was, India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the war
was over, the transfer of power to a gevernment of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was
concerned. By 1947 ‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in the India Civil Service and Army, so that the new government
could start with effective instrument of central control.
After Independence, however, India was faced with two problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low
level of production and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of subnationalities. The Congress leadership
was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite, which had rebelled not only against the
British Raj but also against India’s old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and
undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien on behalf of all parts of India, they took
the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division, which
were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The
Congress Party was origninally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to
retain the old provinces of British India, which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong
pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights
granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a
united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the
States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land reforms remained under the control of the States and
many large scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the
States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in
power both in the States and at the Centre; When a Congress Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties
in office in the States, in became much harder.
39. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage.

45. Why was India not overrun by Japan during the
Pacific war?
(1) Japan was friendly with the British
(2) Japan was interested in India’s freedom
(3) Japan was doubtful about the success of such
attack
(4) The passage does not offer any information in
this regard

Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. From
the given alternatives, choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.
46. FEIGN
(1) to pretend (2) faint
(3) congratulate (4) glow
47. SEDITIOUS
(1) impure (2) inactive
(3) seriously injured (4) rebellious
48. GLEAN
(1) to shine (2) gather
(3) glide (4) glorify
49. VAUNTED
(1) belittled (2) exacting
(3) highly publicized (4) trusted
50. MALADROIT
(1) impossible (2) awkward
(2) sluggish (4) hardy
51. TURPITUDE
(1) amplitude (2) activity
(3) virtue (4) calmness
52. SEDULOUS
(1) indolent (2) guiledess
(3) vindicative (4) upright
53. REPROGRADE
(1) inclining (2) progressing
Directions : For questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the given alternatives, the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.
(3) evaluating (4) directing
54. PROVIDENT
(1) unholy (2) rash
(3) miserable (4) remote
55. PERNICIOUS
(1) practical (2) comparative
(3) harmless (4) tangible

Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or two blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Chosse the words or set of words from among the alternatives given,
which when inserted in the sentence best fit the meaning of the sentence.
56. Critics of the movie version of The Colour Purple
______ its saccharine, overoptimistic mood as out
of keeping with the novel’s more _______ tone.
(1) applauded, sombre
(2) decried, acerbic
(3) denounced, sanguine
(4) acclaimed, positive
57. Measurement is, like any other human endeavour, a
complex activity, subject to error, not always used
______, and frequently misinterpreted and _______.
(1) mistakenly, derided
(2) erratically, analyzed
(3) innovatively, refined
(4) properly, misunderstood
58. If you are seeking a ___________ that will resolve
all our ailments you are undertaking an _________
task.
(1) precedent, awkward
(2) panacea, impossible
(3) direction, awesome
(4) continuance, enjoyable
59. Your ____________ tactics may comple me to
___________ the contract as the job must be finished
on time.
(1) dilatory, cancel
(2) pressure, delay
(3) offensive, award
(4) confiscatory, hasten

60. We need more men of ___________ and enlightenment;
we have too many ___________ among us.
(1) courage, missionaries
(2) wisdom, pragmatists
(3) culture, philistines
(4) valour, students

Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately.
61. He is a doubtful opponent, you must respect and fear him at all times.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
62. I have no formal clothes for this occasion; perhaps I can get away in a dark suit.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
63. Sodium chloride dissolves in water and so is salt.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
64. Even as a young boy, he has lacked the incination to go outdoors and play.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
65. The printing press is one of man’s cleverest invention.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. Find the odd man out among each of the following.
66. (1) replicate (2) duplicate
(3) impersonate (4) reproduce
67. (1) renounce (2) denounce
(3) abandon (4) disown
68. (1) muted (2) maimed
(3) muffled (4) toned down
69. (1) negate (2) nether
(3) cancel (4) deny
70. (1) homily
(2) sermon
(3) admonition
(4) serious warning

Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a sentence with a highlighted phrase which can be correctly
substituted by one of the alternative choices that follow the sentence. Choose the alternative which can most appropriately
substitute the highlighted phrase, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
71. The headmaster could not regard this latest escapde
as a boyish joke and expelled the young man.
(1) new prank (2) flighty conduct
(3) current exit (4) innovative escape
72. The police immediately restrained and handcuffed
the prisoner so that he could not escape.
(1) arrested (2) detained
(3) manacled (4) quarantined
73. The foul smells began to fill her with disgust.
(1) overpower her (2) nauseate her
(3) throttle her (4) asphyxiate her
74. He offered to drive her to the airport for a very small
fee.
(1) a nominal
(2) a wholesome
(3) an appropriate
(4) an ordinary
75. As the Godfather, Michael Corleone is unwilling to
expse his wife and children to the sordid and unwholesome
side of his life as a mafia don.
(1) exciting (2) seamy
(3) unlawful (4) breathtaking

91. (2a + 3a2 – 4)–2 (4a2 – 2) (a + 4)) = ?
(1) – 5a2 + 6a + 12 (2) 5a2 + 6a + 12
(3) – 5a2 – 6a – 12 (4) 5a2 – 6a – 12
92. Find a if a .
a
10
3 a 
(1) 7 , 7 (2) 5, – 2
(3) – 5, 2 (4) 7 , 7 
93. Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their combined
weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam
weight?
(1) 150 kg (2) 175 kg
(3) 200 kg (4) 125 kg
94. A train travels at an average speed of 50 miles per
hour for
2
1
2 hours and then travels at a speed of 70
miles per hour for
2
1
1 hours. How far did the train
travel in the entire 4 hours?
(1) 200 miles (2) 120 miles
(3) 230 miles (4) 150 miles
95. Worker A takes 8 hours to do a job. Worker B takes
10 hours to do the same job. How long should it take
worker A and worker B working together, but independently,
to do the same job?

96. A club has 20 members. They are electing a president
and a vice-president. How man different outcomes
of the election are possible?
(1) 300 (2) 380
(2) 200 (4) 280
97. Find x if
x
10
5
4 
(1) 10.5 (2) 12
(3) 12.5 (4) 10
98. If m is proportional to na and m = 5 when n = 4, what
is the value of m when n = 18?
(1) 20 (2) 22.5
(3) 24.5 (4) 26.5
99. What is the eighth term of the sequence
1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ________?
(1) 36 (2) 49
(3) 64 (4) 81
100. Which of the following is the largest?

101. If m and n are two parallel lines and angle 1 is 60o,
how many degrees is angle 2?
(1) 60o (2) 30o
(3) 45o (4) 75o
102. What is the perimeter of a regular pentagon whose
sides are 6 inches long?
(1) 18 inches (2) 24 inches
(3) 27.5 inches (4) 30 inches
103. How far will a wheel of radius 2 ft travel in 500 revolutions?
(Assume the wheel does not slip)
(1) 1000 þ ft (2) 1500 þ ft
(3) 500 þ ft (4) 2000 þ ft
104. Given that x and y are real numbers let S(x, y) = x2 –
y2. Then S(3, S(3, 4)) =?
(1) –40 () – 7
(3) 40 (4) 49
105. What is the area of the figure below? ABCD is a rectangle
and BDE is an isosceles right triangle.

106. If 2x + y = 5 then 4x + 2y is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
107. In 1997 a new oven cost Rs. 2500. In 2000 the cost
of that type of oven is Rs. 4800. Wha is the percentage
increase between 1997 and 2000?
(1) 92 (2) 152
(3) 192 (4) 52
108. If x + y = 6 and 3 x – y = 4 then x – y is equal to
(1) – 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 4

110. How much simple interest will Rs. 2000 earn in 18
months at an annual rate of 6%?
(1) Rs. 120 (2) Rs. 180
(3) Rs. 216 (4) Rs. 1800
111. If the average of 6 numbers is 4.5, the sum of the
numbers divided by 32 is
(1) 4.5 (2) 3.5
(3) 3 (4) 5
112. The product of (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2) is
(1) a3 + b3 (2) a3 – b3
(3) (a + b)3 (4) (a – b)3
113. What is the value of the following expression?
04 . 0 04 . 0 04 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0
04 . 0 04 . 0 04 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0 05 . 0


(1) 0.0009 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.09 (4) 0.41
114. If I walk at 3 kmph, I miss a train by 2 munutes. If
however I walk at 4 kmph, I reach the station 2
munutes before the arrival of the train. How far do I
walk to rach the station?
117. What is the least number which must be subtracted
from 10420 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 219 (2) 200
(3) 189 (3) 16
118. 0.2 0.02 0;002 = ?
(1) 5 10
8
(2) 6 10
8 . 0
(3) 6 10 8(4) 6 10
8
119. SP = Rs. 450, loss = 10%. If gain = 10%, SP = ?
(1) Rs. 475 (2) Rs. 550
(3) Rs. 500 (4) Rs. 525
122. 80000 is equivalent to which of the following?
(1) 23 105 (2) 0.23 107
(3) 22 204 (4) 24 58
18
123. Rs. 720 is divided between 2 men, 5 women and 8
boys so that the share of a man, a woman and boy are
in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. How much does each boy get?
(1) Rs. 24 (2) Rs. 30
(3) Rs. 45 (4) Rs. 72
124. The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’ cms.
Which of the following represents the area of the
square in sq. cms?

Directions : For Questions 126 to 130. Study the table given below and answer the questions 126 to 130.
Income (Rs.) Tax (Rs.)
0 – 4,000 1 % of income
4,000 – 6,000 40 + 2% of income over 4,000
6, 000 – 8,000 80 + 3% of income over 6,000
8,000 – 10,000 140 + 4% of income over 8,000
10,000 – 15,000 220 + 5% of income over 10,000
15,000 – 25,000 470 + 6% of income over 15,000
25, 000 – 50,000 1070 + 7% of income over 25,000
126. How much tax is due on an income of Rs. 7,500?
(1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs.125
(3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 225
127. Your income for a year is Rs. 26,000. You receive a
raise so that next year your income will be Rs. 29,000.
How much more will you pay in taxes next year if
the tax rate remains the same?
(1) Rs. 70 (2) Rs. 180
(3) Rs. 200 (4) Rs. 210
128. Vibha paid Rs. 100 tax. If X was her income, which
of the following statements is true?
(1) 0 < X < 4,000
(2) 4, 000 < X < 6,000
(3) 6,000 < X < 8,000
(4) 8,000 < X < 10,000
129. Town X has a population of 50,000. The average
income of a person who lives in town X is Rs. 3, 700
per year. What is the total amount paid in taxes by
the people of town X? (Assume each person pays
tax on Rs. 3,700)
(1) Rs. 37 (2) Rs. 3,700
(3) Rs. 1,85,000 (4) Rs. 18,50,000
130. A person whose income is Rs. 10,000 pays what percent
of his or her income on taxes approximately?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Questions 131 to 134, consider the following information.
There adults – Rs, S and V – will be travelling in a van with five children – F, H, J, I and M. The van has a driver’s seat
and one passenger seat in the front, and two benches behind the front seats, one bench behind the other. Each bench has room
for exactly three people. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench, and seating is subject to the followin restrictions :
(i) An adult must sit on each bench.
(ii) Either R or S must sit in the driver’s seat.
(iii) J must sit immediately beside M.
131. Which of the following can sit in the front passenger
seat?
(1) J (2) L
(3) R (4) S
132. Which of the following groups of three can sit together
on a bench?
(1) F, J and M (2) F, J and V
(3) F, S and V (4) H, L and S
19
133. If F sits immediately beside V, which of the following
cannot be true?
(1) H sits on the same bench as R
(2) J sits immediately beside S
(3) L sits immediately beside V
(4) H sits in the front passenger seat
134. If S sits on a bench that is behind where J is sitting,
which of the following must be true?
(1) L sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of
where F is sitting
(2) M sits on the same bench as V
(3) F sits on the same bench as H
(4) L sits on the same bench as S

Directions : For Questions 135 to 138, unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.
135. (1) HONRT (2) EWTS
(3) EWSN (4) ATES
136. (1) LOW (2) ERTGI
(3) OWC (4) ROSHE
137. (1) NVESU (2) TERAH
(3) NOMO (4) RASM
138. (1) EGERN (2) DRE
(3) KADR (4) RAGONE
Directions : For Questions 139 – 140. Select the alternative which does not belong to the class of the other three.
139. (1) Million (2) Powder
(3) Letter (4) Compel
140. (1) Belief (2) Shield
(3) Deceit (4) Brief
141. A man starts walking in the morning facing the sun.
After sometime, he turned to his left. Later he again
turned to his left. The direction in which the man is
moving now is
(1) West (2) South
(3) East (4) North

Directions : For Questions 142 to 147, consider the following information.
Two nations, Fontan and Gordia, have agreed to submit any disputes that might arise between them to arbitration panels
drawn from a pool of arbitrators. The pool consists of the following : three Fontanian representatives – K, L and M; three
Gordian representatives – P, Q and R; and three neutral arbitrators – S, T and U. Each arbitration panel must be formed
according to the following conditions :
(i) A panel can have three, four, five or six members.
(ii) At least one member of each panel must be neutral.
(iii) Neither Fontanian nor Gordian representatives can make up more than half the number of members on a panel.
(iv) S cannot be on a panel with L, with M or with U.
(v) R cannot be on a panel with L or with T.
142. Which of the following is a properly constituted
panel?
(1) L, M, P, Q (2) R, P, S, T
(3) P, Q, R, U (4) P, Q, S, T
143. If both S and T are to be members of a three-member
panel, then which of the following can be the third
member of that panel?
(1) L (2) M
(3) P (4) R
144. If R and S are both selected as members of a fourmember
panel, which of the following must also be
selected as a member of that panel?
(1) K (2) L
(3) P (4) Q
145. If K, M, Q and R are all selected as members of a
five-member panel, which of the following must be
selected as the fifth member of that panel?
(1) L (2) P
(3) U (4) T
146. If S, P and Q are selected as mumbers of a four-member
panel and if T is not available to serve, the fourth
member selected must be
(1) K (2) L
(3) M (4) R
147. How many different, acceptable five-member panels
can be formed if both S and R must be selected as
members?
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 0

Directions : For Questions 148 to 155, Find the number that comes next in the sequence.
148. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ______
(1) 32 (2) 37
(3) 41 (4) 28
149. 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, _____
(1) 30 (2) 28
(3) 29 (4) 33
150. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ______
(1) 720 (2) 1080
(3) 1600 (4) 2160
151. 7776, 1296, 216, _____
(1) 16 (2) 36
(3) 108 (4) 21
152. – 15, 2, 21, 42, ______
(1) 62 (2) 84
(3) 65 (4) 66
153. 1, 2, 5, 29, ______
(1) 866 (2) 58
(3) 53 (4) 145
154. 13, 10, 4, –5, –17______
(1) – 32 (2) – 34
(3) 34 (4) – 22
155. 0.5, 1.5, 3, 5, 7.5, 10.5, _____
(1) 21 (2) 13.5
(3) 14 (4) 15

Directions : For Questions 156 to 159, consider the following information.
Seven persons – N, Q, R, S, T, U and W – are all the persons present at a party. All of them join distinct conversational
groups that form during the party and these consist of two, three, or four persons at a time. At any time during the party, each
of the persons present is considered to be a member of exactly one of the conversational groups. During the party the following
conditions are satisfied :
(1) N can never be in the same conversational group as S.
(ii) T must be in a conversational group that includes either S or W, but T cannot be in a conversational group with both S
and W.
(iii) W must be in a conversational group that consists of exactly three persons.
156. Which of the following lists three conversational
groups that can exist at the same time during the
party?
(1) N and S; Q, T and W; R and U
(2) N and T; R and S; Q, U and W
(3) N and U; R and S; Q, T and W
(4) N and W; S and U; Q, R and T
157. If, at a certain point during the party, R, T and W are
members of three distinct conversational groups, S
must at that that point be in a conversational group
that includes
(1) Q (2) R
(3) T (4) W
158. If, at a certain point during the party, a group of three
persons and a group of four persons have formed and
W is in the same conversational group as U, who of
the following must that point be in the group with W
and U?
(1) N (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
159. If, at a certain point during the party, one of the conversational
groups consists only R and W, at that
point N must be part of a group of exactly
(1) two persons, whose other member is T
(2) two persons, whose other members is U
(3) four persons, whose other members include S
(4) four persons, whose other members include T

Directions : For Questions 160 to 163. In each of these questions a word has been given following four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word that word.
160. RECOMMENDATIONS
(1) RAINS (2) MEANT
(3) SOON (4) NURSE
161. UNDERESTIMATED
(1) ESTIMATE (2) DIRT
(3) EARTH (4) TIMER

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IGNOU OPENMAT Entrance Exam Contact Details
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School of Management Studies
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi- 110068
Phone: 011-29532073
Fax: 011-29532078
Email: mba@ignou.ac.in

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plz help with solved assignment Ms-41 for mba ignou 2014.