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Topic Review (Newest First)
October 2nd, 2015 04:13 PM
Rahul Parik
Re: Previous year question papers of TANCET exam

Here you want previous year question papers of TANCET Entrance Exam for MBA Admission, so I am giving following papers:

TANCET Exam MBA Entrance Exam Paper

Directions for questions 1 – 20:
This section comprises two passages. After each passage questions consisting of items relating to the
Preceding passage are given. Evaluate each item separately in terms of the respective passage and choose your answer

PASSAGE – I (Questions 1 – 10)
The Shop-O-shelf Company's supermarkets are situated in Bangalore, Coimbatore and Vellore. The company is dynamic and aggressive having grown from 8 stores ten years ago to 26 today.
Kanchipuram is a town 60 miles from Vellore. It has not shown the spectacular growth of other suburbs, but its population has increased from around 56,000 to 1, 30,000 in the past decade. With no other Shop-O-Self supermarket within 20 miles of the area, Shop-O-Self Company is considering opening a store in
Kanchipuram. The Arguments against: some Shop-O-Self executives oppose the project as a poor risk. They point to the proposed site, which is in a shopping centre three miles from Kanchipuram business district. Two other food chains have failed on this site because they claim; most new residences are on the other side of the community. Moreover, the shopping centre owners demand a five year lease. Shop-O-Self would have to try to find another business to take over the lease should its own store fail before the end of that time.
If a Shop-O-Self market must be opened in Kanchipuram, it would be far better, these executives argue, to build it in the heart of the community. But they point out, another supermarket is already there.
The Arguments for: The Majority of the executives maintain that the site has great potential. A new east-west highway is being built which will pass Kanchipuram to the north and force the car commuters to Kanchipuram to pass by the shopping centre. A housing project of 3, 000 units is going to be constructed nearby. The average household is expected to consist of five people with over Rs. 30,000 of income to dispose of annually.

1. The residents at the projected residential development will shop in the Kanchipuram store
(a) If the item is a Major Objective in making the decision: that is, the outcome or result sought by
the decision maker
(b) If the item is a Major Factor in arriving at the decision; that is consideration, explicity mentioned
in the passage that is basic in determining the decision
(c) If the item is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or
affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(d) If the item is a Major Assumption made deliberately; that is a supposition or projection made by
the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
(e) If the item is an unimportant issue in getting to the point; that is a factor that is insignificant or not
immediately relevant to the situation.

2. Poor management causing past supermarket failures.
(a) If the item is a Major Objective in making the decision: that is, the outcome or result sought by
the decision maker.
(b) If the item is a Major Factor in arriving at the decision; that is consideration, explicity mentioned
in the passage that is basic in determining the decision.
(c) If the item is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or
affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(d) If the item is a Major Assumption made deliberately; that is a supposition or projection made by
the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
(e) If the item is an unimportant issue in getting to the point; that is a factor that is insignificant or not
immediately relevant to the situation.

3. New east-west highway.
(a) If the item is a Major Objective in making the decision: that is, the outcome or result sought by
the decision maker.
(b) If the item is a Major Factor in arriving at the decision; that is consideration, explicity mentioned
in the passage that is basic in determining the decision.
(c) If the item is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or
affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(d) If the item is a Major Assumption made deliberately; that is a supposition or projection made by
the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
(e) If the item is an unimportant issue in getting to the point; that is a factor that is insignificant or not
immediately relevant to the situation.

4. Expansion of dynamic company.
(a) If the item is a Major Objective in making the decision: that is , the outcome or result sought by
the decision maker.
(b) If the item is a Major Factor in arriving at the decision; that is consideration, explicity mentioned
in the passage that is basic in determining the decision.
(c) If the item is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or
affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(d) If the item is a Major Assumption made deliberately; that is a supposition or projection made by
the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
(e) If the item is an unimportant issue in getting to the point; that is a factor that is insignificant or not
immediately relevant to the situation.

TANCET Exam MBA Entrance Exam Paper I
31. Which of the following titles best summarises the passage as a whole?
1) At the threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
2) Neutrinos and the history of universe
3) The creations and the study of Neutrinos
4) The Dumand system and how it works
5) The properties of Neutrino
32. Which of the following statements regarding neutrino astronomy would the author is
most likely to agree?
1) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present forms of astronomy
2) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the Dumand project fails
3) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to major breakthrough in astronomy
4) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that will be more surprising than pas discoveries
5) Neutrino astronomy will always be characterised by a large time lag between hypothesis and
experimental configuration.
33. In the last paragraph the author describes the development of astronomy in order to
1) Suggest that the potential findings of neutrino astronomy can be seen as part of a series
of astronomical success
2) Illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
3) Demonstrate the effectiveness of the Dumand apparatus in detecting neutrinos
4) Name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino astronomy will illuminate
5) Contrast the motivation of earlier astronomers with that of the astrophysicists, working
on the Dumand project
34. The passage states that interactions between neutrinos and other matters are
1) Rare
2) Artificial
3) Unpredictable
4) Undetectable
5) Hazardous
35. According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in astronomy is
that key
1) Have been detected for the last twenty five years
2) Possess a variable electric charge
3) are usually extremely massive
4) Carry information about their history with them
5) are very similar to other electromagnetic particles
36. According to the passage, the primary use of the apparatus mentioned would be to
1) Increase the mass of a neutrino
2) Interpret information neutrinos carry with them
3) Study the internal structure of a neutrino
4) See neutrinos in distant regions of space
5) Detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
37. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason that neutrinos are hard to
detect? 1) Their pervasiveness in the universe
2) Their ability to escape from different regions of space
3) The inability to penetrate dense matter
4) The similarity of their structure to that of nucleons
5) The infrequency of their interaction with other matter
38. According to the passage, the interaction of a neutrino with other can produce
1) Particles that are neutral and massive
2) A form of radiation that permeates the universe
3) In accurate information about the site and circumstances of neutrino’s production
4) charged particles and light
5) A situation in which light and other forms of electromagnetic radiations are blocked
39. According to the passage, one of the methods used to establish the properties of
neutrinos was
1) Detection of photons
2) Observation of interaction of neutrinos'with gamma rays
3) Observation of neutrinos that were artificially created
4) Measurement of neutrinos that interacted with particles of sea water
5) Experiments with electromagnetic radiation
40. The strongest motivation for the Dumand project is
1) That it will detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
2) That it will exploit an important source of information about the universe
3) That measurement of neutrinos is possible
4) That it will suggest the potential of neutrino astronomy
5) That will doubtlessly bring its own share of surprises
SECOND PASSAGE
It is riot easy to write a familiar style. Many people mistake familiar for a vulgar style, and
suppose that to write without affection is to write at random. On the contrary there is nothing that
requires more precision and, if I may so say purity of expression than the style I am speaking of.
It utterly rejects not only all unmanning pomp, but all new, cant phrases and loose, unconnected
slipshod allusion. It is not to take first word that offers, but the best in common use; it is not to
throw words together in any combinations we please, but to follow and avail ourselves of the
idiom of the language. To write a genuine, familiar or truly English style to write as any one
would speak in common conversation who had a thorough command over choice of words, or
who discourses with ease, force and perspicuity, setting aside all pedantic and oratorical
flourishes. Or, to give another illustration, to write naturally is the easy thing to give the true
accent and inflection to the words you utter, because you do not attempt to rise above the level of
ordinary life and colloquial speech. You do not assume, indeed, the solemnity of the pulpit, or
tone of stage declamation, neither or you at liberty to gabble on at a venture, without emphasis or
discretion, or to resort to vulgar dialect or clownish pronunciation. You must steer a middle
course. You are tied down to a given appropriate articulation, which you can do only by entering
into the author's meaning, as you must find the proper words and style to express yourself by
fixing your thoughts on the subject you have to write about any one may write a passage with a
propriety and simplicity is more difficult task. Thus it is easy to affect a pompous style, to use so
word twice for the thing you want to express; it is not so easy to pitch upon that very word that
exactly fits in. Out of eight or ten words common, equally intelligible, with nearly equal
pretensions, it is a matter of some nicety and discrimination to pick out the one the
preferabteness of which is scarcely preceptible, but decisive.
Questions:
41. According to the passage
1) One should be permitted to speak in any way he wishes to
2) ‘Getting on stilts’ should aid one in speaking more effectively
3) It is easier to write pompously than simply
4) The preacher is a model of good speech
5) A grammatical background is not necessary for good writing
42. When the writer says "you must steer a middle course", he means that
1) You should speak neither too loudly nor too softly
2) You should speak neither too formally nor too colloquially
3) You should write as well as speak
4) You should not come to any definite conclusion about what is proper or not proper in speech
5) You should write neither too fast nor too slowly
43. "Cant Phrases" means
1) A type of language which is peculiar to a particular class
2) A sing-song type of speech
3) Expressions which consistently indicate refusal to do another’s bidding
4) Obscene language
5) Obsolete expressions
44. the author mentions all of the following important to good speech, except
1) A good command of English vocabulary
2) The careful selection of words used
3) The use of allusions and metaphors
4) Straight forward and precise delivery
5) The placing of emphasis on important words and phrases
45. The author
1) is critical of the person who converses in a manner which is easy to understand
2) Implies that foreigners do not speak well
3) Feels that there is relationship between the sound of a word and its meaning
4) Criticizes pomposity of style more so than vulgarity style
5) Urges us to speak like an actor or the preacher
SECTION III
PROBLEM SOLVING
Directions: For each of the following questions, select the choice which best answers the
questions or completes the statement.
Questions:
46. The ratio of x to y is ½. If the ratio of x + 2 to y + 1 is 2/3, then what is the value of x?
1) 6 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1
47. If the width of a rectangle is increased by 25% while the length remains constant, the
resulting area is what percent of the original area?
1) 25% 2) 75% 3) 125% 4) 225% 5) 250%
48. If n is an integer between 0 and 100, then any of the following could be 3n + 3 EXCEPT
1) 300 2) 297 3) 208 4) 63 5) 6
49. Ravi is standing 180 meters due north of point P. Latha is standing 240 meters due west
of point P. What is the shortest distance between Ravi and Latha?
1) 60 meters 2) 300 meters 3) 420 meters 4) 900 meters 5) 9000 meters
50. Roopa can stuff advertising circulars into envelopes at the rate of 45 envelopes per
minute and Anusha requires a minute and a half to stuff the same number of envelopes.
Working together, how long will it take Roopa and Anusha to stuff 300 envelopes?
1) 15 minutes
2) 2 minutes
3) 3 minutes 30 seconds
4) 3 minutes 20 seconds
5) 4 minutes
51. (4 + √5) ( 4 - √5) is equal to
1) -1 2) 0 3) 11 4) 21 5) 11 + 8√5
52. If interest on a savings account is paid monthly at an annual of 6(1/4)% and if the
interest is not reinvested, then in how many years will the total amount of interest earned
equal the amount of money saved in the account?
1) 36 2) 24 3) 18 4) 16 5) 12
53.
bo
ao 80o
eo do co
In the figure above, if a = 3d, b = ?
1) 25 2) 80 3) 75 4) 35 5) 100
54. A store sells five different kinds of nuts. If it is possible to buys x grams of the most
expensive nuts for Rs. 3.20 and x grams of the cheapest nuts for Rs. 1.40 then which of the
following could be the cost of purchasing a mixture containing x grams of each type of nut?
1) Rs.1.76 2) Rs.2.84 3) Rs.3.54 4) Rs13.60 5) Rs.16
55. A boy receives grades of 91, 88, 86 and 78 in four of his major subjects. What he receive
in his fifth major subject in order to average 85?
1) 86 2) 85 3) 84 4) 83 5) 82
56. If the following numbers are arranged in order from the smallest to the largest, what
will be their correct order?
I. 9/13 II. 13/9 III. 70% IV. 1/70
1) II, I, III, IV
2) III, II, I, IV
3) III, IV, I, II
4) II, IV, III, I
5) I, III, IV, II
57. A square is inscribed in a circle of area 18 π. Find a side of the square.
1) 3
2) 6
3) 3√2
4) 6√2
5) It cannot be determined from the information given.
58. A line segment is drawn from the point (3,5) to the point (9,13). What are the
coordinates of the mid point of this line segment?
1) (3,4) 2) (12,18) 3) (6,8) 4) (9,6) 5) (6,9)
59. Every letter in the alphabet has a number value which is equal to its place in the
alphabet; the letter A has a value of 1 and C a value of 3. The number value of a word is
obtained by adding up the values of the letters in the word and then multiplying that sum
by the length of the word. The word ‘DFGH’ would have a number value of
1) 25 2) 44 3) 66 4) 100 5) 108
60. If ab > 0 and a a < 0, which of the following is negative?
1) b 2) -b 3) -a 4) (a – b) 5) –(a + b)
61. John rents a car for d days. He pays m Rs. Per day for each of the first 7 days, and half
that rate for each additional day. Find the total change if d > 7.
1) m + 2m(d-7) 2) m + [m/2(d-7)] 3) 7m + [m/2(d-7) 4) 7m + (md/2) 5) 7m + 2md
62. The net price of a certain article is Rs. 306 after successive discount of 15% and 10%
off the marked price. What is marked price?
1) Rs.234.09 2) Rs.400 3) Rs382.50 4) RS.408 5) None of these
63. A school has enough bread to feed 30 children for 4 days. If 10 more children are
added, how many days will the bred last?
1) 5(1/3) 2) 1(1/3) 3) 2(2/3) 4) 12 5) 3
64. The ice compartment of a refrigerator is 8 inches long, 4 inches wide and 5 inches high.
How many ice cubes will at hold if each cube is 2 inches on an edge?
1) 8 2) 10 3) 12 4) 16 5) 20
65. A train 100 metres long running at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a 120 m. long train
coming from the opposite direction in 6 seconds. What is the speed of the other train?
1) 82 km/hr 2) 70 km/hr 3) 85 km/hr 4) 72 km/hr 5) 65 km/hr
2m+1 . 32m-n . 5m+n+2 .6n
66. Simplify: -----------------------------------
6m .10n+1 .15m
1) 5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5m 5) 3-n
67. The number 34041 and 32506 divided by a number of three digits, leave the same
reminder. What is the number?
1) 535 2) 405 3) 357 4) 307 5) 275
68. My watch is slow by 7 minutes at 3 P.M. Wednesday and it was 8 minutes too fast at
9.00 A.M. on Friday. At what time it gave the right time by watch?
1) 7 A.M. Thursday
2) 9 P.M. Thursday
3) 5 A.M. Thursday
4) 9 A.M. Thursday
5) 5 P.M. Thursday
69. A cistern has a leak which would empty it in 8 hours. A tap is turn on which admits 6
litres a minute into the cistern, and it is now emptied in 12 hours. How many litres does the
cistern hold?
1) 8640 litres 2) 5760 litres 3) 4320 litres 4) 2880 litres 5) 5670 litres
70. A certain basket ball team that has played 2/3 of its games has a record of 17 wins and
losses. What is the greatest number of the remaining games that the team can lose and still
win atleast ¾ of the total games played?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6 5) 7
SECTION IV
DATA SUFFICIENCY
Directions: Each question below is followed by two statements numbered as (a) and (b).
You have to determine whether the data given in the statements is sufficient for answering
the question. Use the data given, plus your knowledge of mathematics and every day facts,
to mark your answer as
1) If statements (a) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (b) alone is not
sufficient.
2) If statements (b) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (a) alone is not
sufficient.
3) If both statements together are needed to answer the question, but neither statement alone is
sufficient.
4) If either statement (a) or (b) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
5) If not enough facts are given to answer the question.
Questions:
71. A piece of wood 7 feet long is cut into three pieces. What is the length of each of the
pieces?
a) The length of the longest piece is equal to the sum of the lengths of the other two pieces
b) The length of the shortest piece is 6 inches
72. Is x an integer?
a) x > 0 b) 3 2 + 42 = x2
73. Does Balu have more records in his record collection than Lakshmi has in hers?
a) Radha has more records in her collection than Lakshmi
b) Balu has fewer records in his collection than Radha
74. What is the volume of cube C?
a) The total surface area of C is 54 square inches
b) The area of each face of C is 9 square inches
75. How much money is saved by buying a box of a dozen pencils instead of 12 pencils
singly?
a) when purchased in a box of 12, the cost of each pencil is Rs. 0.05 less than if purchased singly
b) the price of a box of a dozen pencil is Rs. 2.40
76. Salim invested a total of Rs.10,000 for a period of one year. Part of the money he put
into an investment that earned 6 percent simple interest, and the rest of the money into an
investment that earned 8 percent simple interest. How much money did he put into the
investment that earned 6 percent?
a) The total interest earned on the Rs.10,000 for the year was Rs.640
b) The rupee value of the investment that earned 6 percent was only one-fourth the dollar value
of the investment that earned 8 percent.
77. If a car is driven 150 miles, the fuel tank is filled to what percent of capacity at the end
of the trip?
a) The car averaged 15 miles per gallon for the trip
b) The tank is filled to 75 percent of capacity at the start of the trip.
78. What is the 999th term of the series S?
a) The first four terms of S are (1 + 1) 2, (2 + 1) 2, (3 + 1) 2 and (4 + 1) 2
b) For every x, the x th term of S is (x + 1) 2
79. When one piece of fruit is taken at random from a fruit bowl, what is the chance that is
an apple?
a) There are half as many apples as oranges in the fruit bowl.
b) A third of the fruit in the fruit bowl are oranges
80. A swimming pool is supplied water by two pipes, P and Q. If pipe P operating alone can
fill the pool in 12 hours, how long will it take pipe Q operating alone to fill the pool?
a) Operating together, pipes P and Q can fill the pool in 4 hours
b) Pipe P supplies water at the rate of 520 litres per hour, and 6240 gallons are required to fill the
pool.
81. Is x divisible by 70?
a) x is divisible by 2 and 5
b) x is divisible by 2 and 7
82. A company’s profit was Rs.800,000 in 1990. What was its profit in 1991?
a) There was a 20% increase in income in 1991
b) There was a 25% increase in costs in 1991

more papers detail attached pdf files.
October 2nd, 2015 04:10 PM
Unregistered
Re: Previous year question papers of TANCET exam

Tell me from where I will download previous year question papers of TANCET Entrance Exam for admission in MBA? Can you give previous year question paper of this Exam?
May 30th, 2014 01:30 PM
Educhamp
Re: Previous year question papers of TANCET exam

As you want to get the previous year question papers of exam of Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. The number obtained by reverting the digits is 594 less than the original number. The number
is
1) 762 2) 258 3) 528 4) 852
2. Twenty men can finish a piece of work in 30 days. When should 5 men leave the work so that
it may be finished in 35 days
1) 10 days 2) 20 days 3) 25days 4) l5 days
3. The value of a machine depreciates from Rs. 32,768 to Rs. 21,952 in three years. What is the
rate % of depreciation?
1) 11% 2) 12.5% 3) 33% 4) 12.25%
4. If x2 - 3x + 2 is a factor of x4 - px2 +q, then the value of p and q respectively will be
1) -5, 4 2) -5, -4 3) 5, 4 4) 5, -4
5. The rational numbers lying between (1/3) and (3/4) are
1) 117/300, 287/400 2) 97/300, 299/500 3) 99/300, 301/400 4)95/300, 301/400
6. Find the greatest number that will divide 1625, 2281 and 4218 leaving remainders 8, 4, 5
respectively
1) 11 2) 12 3) 13 4) 14
7. The area of a grassy plot is 480 metres. If each side has been 5m longer, the area would have
been increased by 245 sq. m. Find the length of the fence to surround it
1) 87 2) 88 3) 90 4) 92
8. The diagonals of a rhombus are 60 m and 80 m. Its area would be
1) 1000 sq. m 2) 3600 sq. m 3) 2400 sq. m 4) 4800 sq. m
9. A vessel can be filled by one pipe in 8 minutes, by a second pipe in 10 minutes. It can be
emptied by a waste pipe in 12 minutes. In what time will the vessel be filled if all the three be
opened at once?
1) 7 1/17 minutes 2) 6 minutes 3) 10 minutes 4) 8(1/17) minutes
10. The average age of 32 students is 10 years. If the teachers age is also included, the average
age increases by one year. What is the age of the teacher?
1) 50 2) 34 3) 43 4) 32
11. The string of a kite is 150 metres long and it makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal, the
height of the kite from the ground would be
1) 130.1m 2) 129.9m 3) 112 m 4) 75 m
12. If x = 21/3 - 2-1/3
F then the value of 2x3 + 6x would be
1) 3 2) 6 3) 9 4) 0
13. If x = (b – c)/a, y = (c – a)/b, z = (a – b)/c, then the value of x + y + z + xyz is
1) 4 2) abc 3) a + b + c 4) 0
14. The value of t he expression √(4 + √15) + √(4 - √15) - √(12 - 4√5) is
1) a natural number 2) a negative number
3) a non- integer rational number 4) a irrational number
15. A∩(B∩C) is same as
1) (AUB) – (A∩C) 2) (A∩B) – C
3) (A∩B) – (A∩C) 4) A – (B∩C)
16. If log10 x + log10 5 = 2, then x equals
1) 25 2) 20 3) 15 4) 100
17. The sum of the square of two consecutive even numbers is 1252. The sum of the numbers is
1) 48 2) 50 3) 52 4) 54
18. If the angles of a pentagon are in the ratio 1:3:6:7:10, then the smallest angle is
1) 32 2) 30 3) 27 4) 20
19. Turn odd man out 41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81
1) 61 2) 71 3) 73 4) 81
20. Complete the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ………
1) 76 2) 74 3) 75 4) 73
21. The calendar for 1990 is the same as for
1) 1996 2) 1997 3) 1994 4) 2000
22. What is the smallest number by which 3600 is divided to make it a perfect cube?
1) 9 2) 50 3) 450 4) 300
23. What is 25% of 25%?
1) 6.25 2) 0.625 3)0.0625 4) 0.00625
24. What price should a shopkeeper mark on an article, costing him Rs.153, to gain 20% after
allowing a discount of 15%
1) Rs. 224 2) Rs. 216 3) Rs. 184 4) Rs. 162
25. If 18 persons can build a wall 140 m long in 42 days, the number of days that 30 persons will
take to complete a similar wall 100m long is
1) 18 days 2) 21 days 3) 24 days 4) 28 days
Directions:
Questions 26, 27 and 28 are based on the passage given. Choose the best answer for each.
Passage: If a person reads a lot he will increase his vocabulary. In doing so he will increase his
speaking and writing power.
26. The argument is based on the assumption
(M) String vocabulary is important for writing and speaking
(N) People should read books containing unfamiliar words
(O) The books to be read should be entertaining
1) (M) only 2) (N) only 3) (M) and (n) only 4) (N) and (O) only
27. Which one of the following would weaken the argument?
1) Educated people can express their thoughts better
2) Only a well read person can make proper use of the English language
3) The style of a person is coloured by the style of the authors he reads
4) Those who passed vocabulary tests could not write well
28. Which will strengthen the argument?
(M) Slow readers cannot do well in competitive exams
(N) Every one must study English
(O) In order to become a good lecturer in English one must increase one’s vocabulary
1) (M) only 2) (N) only 3) (O) only 4) (M), (N) and (O)
Questions 29 to 32
Four cousins, Deepak, Pooja, Saurabh and Gaurau have different hobbies and play different
game. The hobbies they are interested in are story – reading, music, watching TV serials and
going to movies. The children play cricket, badminton, hockey and fly kites. Saurabh and Gaurav
do not like TV serials or movies. Pooja and Saurabh do not play cricket or hockey. Deepak and
Gaurav do not read stories or fly kites. Saurabh does not play badminton. Music lovers does not
Like to play hockey. The badminton player does not watch TV serials
29. What is Deepak’s hobby and which game does he play ?
1) TV serial : hockey 2) Music : badminton
3) Movies : cricket 4) Music : cricket
30. What are Saurabh’s interest?
1) Music : kites 2) Music : badminton
3) Stories : hockey 4) Stones : kites
31. Who likes movies and which game does that person play?
1) Deepak : hockey 2) Pooja : badminton
3) Pooja : cricket 4) Deepak : cricket
32. Who likes music?
1) Gaurav 2) Saurabh 3) Pooja 4) Deepak
Read the following statements and answer the question 33 and 34
Five shirts are placed on a shelf in a heap. Red shirt is above the Blue shirt and Green shirt is
below the Orange shirt. Blue shirt is above the Orange shirt and White is below the Green shirt.
33. The colour of the shirt between Red and Orange shirts is
1) White 2) Green 3) Blue 4) Data is insufficient
34. Which colour shirt is at the bottom ?
1) Red 2) White 3) Orange 4) Cannot be said
35. A person is driving towards west. What sequence of direction should he follow so that he is
driving towards south?
1) left, right, right 2) right, right, left
3) left, left, left 4) right, right, right
36. I was walking in South-Emit direction. After a while I turned 90° to the right and walked
ahead. Later I turned 45° to the right. In which direction am I walking now 7
1) East 2) North-East 3) South-West 4) North
Read the following statements and answer the questions 37 to 39 ;
A is the father of C. But C is not his son.
E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A.
B is the brother of C. D is the son of B.
G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G.
37. Who is the son-in-law of H?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
38. Who is the grand - daughter of A?
1) B 2) H 3) E 4) D
39. Who is the common grand - child of both F and H?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) H
Directions :
On the basis of the following diagram answer, questions 40 to 43
The rectangle represents the bachelors
The square represents the Delhi Metropolis
The circle represents the English language
The triangle represents the tourists
40. The portion representing bachelor tourists, who know the English language is
1) 2 2) 1 3) 7 4) 4
41. The portion representing bachelor tourists, who know the English language is
1) 6 2) 9 3) 7 4) 8
42. Which of the following is true?
1) Some of the tourists are staying in Delhi Metropolis
2) No person m Delhi Metropolis knows English
3) English is spoken by a few tourists and some persons in Delhi
4) None of the above statements are true
43. Tourists, who are bachelors and do not know the English language is represented by the
section marked
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
44. A hospital always has
1) attendants 2) nurses 3) emergency 4) doctors
43. Blood is formed in the human adult by
1) bone-marrow 2) liver 3) heart 4) Lungs
46. If ACTION is coded as ZXGRLM, then HEALTH will be coded in the same way as
1) SVZOGS 2) TVZOGT 3) RUZPGR 4) QVGOZQ
47. If OUT is coded as 152120, IN will be coded as
1) 1015 2) 1813 3) 819 4) 914
Direction:
Based on the relationship of the two given words, find the missing term from the given option.
48. NATION : ANITNO : : HUNGRY : ?
1) HNUGRY 2) UNHGYR 3) YRNGUH 4) UHGNYR
Direction :
Which of the following groups of letters will complete the given series
49. ab-ccca-bccc-bbcc-
1) abbc 2) bbac 3) bbca 4) cabc
50. If ÷ Means +, × Means -, + Means ×, - Means ÷ then 8÷15-3×4+2 = ?
1) 18 2) 5 3) 23/24 4) 23/6
Direction :
For questions 51 to 54, in each questions are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be True even if they seem to be
at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts
Given answer
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
51. Statements : All politicians are intelligent
Some women ore politicians
Conclusion: I Some women are intelligent
II All those intelligent women
52. Statements : Some teachers are adults
Some adults are poets
Conclusion: I Some teachers are poets
II Some poets are teachers
53. Statements : Lawyers married only fair girls
Shoba is very fair
Conclusion : I Shoba was married to a lawyer
II Shoba was not married to a lawyer
54. Statements : Some dogs are rats
All rats ere horses
Conclusion : I All dogs are horses
II Some horses are dogs
Directions (Q. 55 - 56)
Out of the five statements, there are logically compact. From the answer choices pick up the one
which give three logically compact statements.
55. (1) Some caps are tanks
(2) Some bulbs are not caps
(3) All caps ore bulbs
(4) All tanks are caps
(5) Some bulbs are tanks
1) (3), (5), (4) 2) (1), (3), (4) 3) (1), (2), (3) 4) (1), (3), (5)
56. (1) All birds are rings
(2) No wing is bird
(3) Some rings are wings
(4) No ring is wing
(5) Some birds are not rings
1) (5), (2), (1) 2) (2), (3), (4) 3) (1), (4), (2) 4) (2), (4), (5)
Direction for Q. (57 - 60)
In each of the questions one or more statements have been given followed by four interferences.
Find out the interference that definitely follows from the given statements
57. Soldiers serve their country
1) Those who serve the country are soldiers
2) Women do not serve their country because they are not soldier
3) Men generally serve the country
4) Some men who are soldiers serve their country
58. Many smokers get cancer
1) Most cancer patients are smokers
2) Smoking may lead to cancer
3) Most smokers get cancer
4) Smoking always leads to cancer
59. All business men are dishonest
All business men are fraudulent
1) Either all fraudulent persons are dishonest or all dishonest are fraudulent
2) Some dishonest persons are fraudulent
3) Generally fraudulent persons are dishonest
4) Fraud and dishonesty go together
60. All men are vertebrates
Some mammals are vertebrates
1) All men are mammals
2) All mammals are men
3) Some vertebrates are mammals
4) All vertebrates are men
Directions : Each of the questions 61 to 65 is followed by two Arguments numbered I and II.
You are to decide which one is strong and which is week. Mark
1) if argument I is strong
2) if argument II is strong
3) if neither I nor II is strong
61. Question : Should all the elected legislative members be put through compulsory training
for running the government?
Arguments : I Yes, it will certainly be helpful.
II No, people elect only matured individuals who are able to hold the office
62. Question : Should primary education be made free in India?
Arguments : I Yes, in a welfare state it is the duty of the government to impart primary
education.
II No, India does not have adequate number of primary schools to
accommodate all.
63. Question : Should the degree be de-linked from job ?
Arguments : I Yes, because such a step would discourage students from joining universities
II No, because well educated are the backbone of democracy.
64. Question : Is a coalition government suitable for democracy ?
Arguments : I Yes, because; such government cannot become dictorial
II No, because such government cannot be stable
65. Question : Should rural banks be abolished ?
Arguments : I Yes, because they are not run properly
II No, because they will develop villages
Directions :
Each of the question 66 to 70 consists of a question statement and two data statements numbered
I and II Read both and Mark
1. If data 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
2. If data II alone is sufficient to answer the question
3. If both data I and II taken together is sufficient
4. If both data I and II taken together is not sufficient
66. Statement : Which day will be the last day of the month of March ?
Data : I The first day of March and the year are given
II The first day of the year given
67. Statement : A is taller than C and D is shorter than E who among them is the shortest
Data : I D is taller than A
II C is shorter than E
68. Statement : 'A' and 'B's salaries are in proportion 4 : 3 respectively. What is A's salary?
Data : I B's salary is 75% of A's salary
II B's salary is 4,500 p.m.
69. Statement : Many pick pockets have been arrested ?
Data : I Picking pocket is a cognisable offence
II Police arrest those who commit this offence
70. Statement : Nuclear war will leave no victor and no vanquished
Arguments : I There are victors and vanquished after war
II Nuclear war is destructive
Directions:
For question 71 to 75 a statement is followed by two conclusions. Point out
1. If only first conclusion is true
2. If only second conclusion is true
3. If both the conclusions are true
4. If neither of the conclusion is true
71. Statement : The increase in adult literacy will lead to country's development and progress.
Conclusions: I The educated people offer less resistance to new innovations
II The literacy rate is higher in developed countries.
72. Statement : Crime is a function of criminals biological make up and his family relations
Conclusions: I The incidence of crime is higher in identical twins then in fraternal twins
II Families in which parents lack warmth and affection fail to build a moral
conscience in children.
73. Statement : Education is in the concurrent list. The State Government cannot bring reforms
in education without the consent of the Central Government
Conclusions: I For bringing about quick reforms in education, it should be in the state list
II States are not willing to bring about quick reforms in education.
74. Statement : Douglas is my cousin. A cousin may be a sister's son or an uncle's son or
brother's son
Conclusions: I Douglas is my sister's son
II Douglas is my uncle's son
75. Statement : The negotiations failed. There was an atmosphere of tension. The parties
withdrew to their old positions
Conclusions: I In the atmosphere of tension negotiations cannot succeed
II Had the negotiations been successful they would have taken new positions.
76. Which of the following is the most powerful type of computer?
1) Super-micro 2) Superconductor
3) Supercomputer 4) Megaframe
77. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called
1) Entry codes 2) Passwords
3) Security commands 4) Code words
78. A term associated with the comparison of processing speeds of different computer system is
1) EFTS 2) MPG 3) MIPS 4) CPS
79. Human beings are referred to as Homosapiens. Which device is called silicosapiens ?
1) Monitor 2) Hardware 3} Robot 4) Computer
80. A software package generally used with in a distributed word processing system is
1) ATMS 2) DWPS 3) RPG 4) DBMS
81. Which was the first company in the world to build computer for sale?
1) International Business Machines 2) Remington Rand Corporation
3) English Electric Computers 4) Sperry Univac
82. The first movie released in 1982 with terrific computer animation and graphics was
1) Star wars 2) Tron 3) Forbidden planet 4) Dark star
83. Which of the following is an example of nonvolatile memory ?
1) ROM 2) RAM 3) LSI 4) VLSI
84. In virtual storage, program segments stored on disk during processing are called
1) sections 2) partitions 3) sectors 4) pages
85. Which of the following is not an alternate name for primary memory ?
1) Main memory 2) Primary storage 3) Internal storage 4) Mass storage
86. What is the number of bit patterns provided by a 7-bit code ?
1) 64 2) 256 3) 128 4) 512
87. The word length of a computer is measured in
1) bits 2) bytes 3) millimetres 4) metres
88. What does the acronym ISDN stands for
1) Indian Standard Digital Network 2) Integrated Services Digital Network
3) Intelligent Services Digital Network 4) Integrated Services Data Network
89. A network which is used for sharing data, software and hardware among several users
owning micro computers is called
1) WAN 2) MAN 3) LAN 4) VAN
90. The operating system for the laptop compi called Machite is
1) Windows 2) DOS 3) MS-DOS 4) OZ
91. The errors that can be pointed out by compiler are
1) Syntax errors 2) Semantic errors 3) Logical errors 4) Intemal errors
92. Which of the following colour graphics dia adapter has the highest resohition ?
1) CGA 2) HGA 3) EGA 4) VGA
93. The programming language used in Artil Intelligence and expert system developmc
1) RPG 2) PROLOG 3) FORTRAN 4) C + +
94. Whose trademark is the operating sy: UNIX?
1) BELL Laboratories 2) Ashton Tate
3) Microsoft 4) Motorola
95. Which tanguage has recently becamt defacto standard for interfacing applic programs ivith
relational database systen
1) ORACLE 2) SQL 3) dBASE 4) 4GL
96. The naine given to a program uncitten in any one of the high level languages is
1) Object program 2) System program 3) Source program 4) Compiler program
97. The MIS structure with one main computer system is called a
1) distributed MIS structure 2) hierarchical MIS structure
3) centralised MIS structure 4) decentralised MIS structure
98. A language for simulating models of business activity is
1) SPSS 2) DL/1 3) COBOL 4) GPSS
99. Graphic interfaces were first used in a xerox product called
1) Ethernet 2) Inter LISP 3) Smalltalk 4) Zeta LISP
100. What console command displays the server name and LAN configuration ?
1) VER 2) CONFIG 3) N CONFIG 4) N DIR/LAN

For more detailed information I am uploading PDF files which are free to download:
May 29th, 2014 11:55 AM
Unregistered
Previous year question papers of TANCET exam

I want to give the exam of Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test 2014 but for that I need to get the previous year question papers so can you please make it available for me?


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