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Topic Review (Newest First)
December 25th, 2014 12:41 PM
Nilesh
Re: Last Years Question Papers of SET Life Science

SET Life Science exam paper have questions from following topics:

PAPER II
1. Cell Biology : Structure and function of cells and intracellular organelles (of both prokaryotes
and eukaryotes), Mechanism of cell division including (mitosis and meiosis) and cell
differentiation; Cell-cell interation, Malignant growth, lmmune response : Dosage compensation
and mechanism of sex determination.
2. Biochemistry : Structure of atoms, molecules and chemical bonds, Principles of physical
chemistry, Thermodynamics, kinetics, dissociation and association constants, Nucleic acid
structure, genetic code, replication, transcription and translation : Structure, function and
metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins, Enzymes and coenzyme, Respiration and
photosynthesis.
3. Physiology : Response to stress, Active transport across membranes, Plant and animal hormones
Nutrition (including vitamins), Reproduction in plants, microbes, plant and animals, Sensory
responses in microbes, plant and animals.
4. Genetics : Principles of Mendelian inheritance, chromosome structure and function, Gene
Structure and regulation of gene expression, Linkage and genetic mapping, Extra-chromosomal
inheritance (episomes, mitochondria and chloroplasts), Mutation, DNA damage and repair,
chromosome aberrations, Transposons, Sex-linked inheritance and genetic disorders, Somatic
cell genetics, Genome organisation (in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes).
5. Evolutionary Biology : Origin of life (including aspects of prebiotic environment and molecular
evolution), Concepts of evolution, Theories of organic evolution, Mechanisms of speciation,
Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium, genetic polymarphism and selection, Origin and evolution
of economically important microbes, plants and animals.
6. Environmental biology : Concept and dynamics of ecosystem, components, food chain and
energy flow, productivity and biogeochemical cycles, Types of ecosystems, Population ecology
and biological control, Community structure and organisation, Environmental pollution,
Sustainable development, Economic importance of microbes, plants and animals.
7. Biodiversity and Taxonomy : Species concept, Biological nomenclature theories of bilogical
classification, Structural biochemical and molecular systmatics, DNA finger printing, numerical
taxonomy, Biodiveristy, characterization, generation, maintenance and loss, Magnitude and
distribution of biodiversity, economic value, wildlife biology, conservation strategies,
cryopreservation.

PAPER III
1. Principles of Taxonomy as applied to the systamics and Classification of Plant Kingdom,
Taxonomic structure, Biosystematics, Plant geography, Floristics.
2. Patterns of variation in morphology and life history in plants, broad outlines of classification
an evolutionary trends among algae, fungi, bryophytes and pteriophytes, Principles of
palaeobotany, Economic importance of algae, fungi and lichens.
3. Comparative anatomy and developmental morphology of gymnosperms and angiosperms,
Histochemical and ultrastructural aspects of development, Differentiation and morphogenesis.
4. Androgenesis and gynogenesis, Breeding systems, Pollination biology, structural and functional
aspects of pollen and pistill, Male sterility, Self and inter-specific incompatibility, Fertilization,
Embryo and seed development.
5. Plants and civilization : Centres of origin and gene diversity, Botany, utilization, cultivation
and improvement of plants of food, drug, fibre and industrial values, Unexploited plants of
potential economic value, Plants as a source of renewable energy, Genetic resources and their
conservation.
6. Water Relations : Mineral nutrition, Photosynthesis and photorespiration : Nitrogen,
Phosphorous and Sulphur metabolism, Stomatal physiology, Source and sink relationship.
7. Physiology and biochemistry of seed dormancy and germination, Hormonal regulation of
growth and development, Photoregulation : Growth responses, Physiology of flowering,
Senescence.
8. Principles of plant breeding : Important conventional methods of breeding self and cross
pollinated and vegetatively propagated crops, Non-conventional methods, Polyploidy : Genetic
variability, Plant diseases and defensive mechanism.
9. Principles of taxonomy as applied to the systematics and classification of the animal kingdom,
Classification and interrelationship amongst the major invertebrete phyla, Minor invertebrate
phyla, functional anatomy of the non-chordates, Larval forms and their evolutionary significance.
10. Classification and comparative anatomy of protochordates and chordates, Origin, evolution
and distribution of chordate groups : Adaptive radiation.
11. Histology of mammalian organ systems, nutrition, digestion and absorption, Circulation (open
and closed circular, lymphatic systems, blood composition and function), Muscular contration
and electric organs, Excretion and osmoregulation : Nerve conduction and neurotransmitter,
major sense organs and receptors, Homeostatis (neural and hormonal), Bioluminiscence,
Reproduction.

12. Gametogenesis in animals : Molecular events during fertilization, Cleavage patterns and fate
maps, Concepts of determination, competence and induction, totipotency and nuclear transfer
experiments, Cell differentiation and differential gene activity. Morphogenetic determinants in
egg cytoplasm, Role of maternal contributions in early embryonic development, Genetic
regulation of early embryonic development in Drosophila, Homeotic genes.
13. Feeding, learning, social and sexual behaviour of animals, Parental care, Circadian rhythms,
Mimicry, Migration of fishes and birds, Sociobiology, Physiological adaptation at high altitude.
14. Important human and veterinary parasites (protozoans and helminths), Life cycle and biology
of Plasmodium, Trypanosoma, Ascaris, Wuchereria, Fasciola, Schistosoma and Leishmania,
Molecular, cellular and physiological basis of host-parasite interactions.
15. Arthropods and vectors of human diseases (mosquitoes, lice, flies, and ticks), Mode of
transmission of pathogens by vectors, Chemical biological and environmental control of
anthropod vectors, Biology and control of chief insect pests of agricultural importance, Plant
host-insect interaction, insect-pest management, useful insects, Silkworm.
16. The law of DNA constancy and C-value paradox, Numerical and structural changes in
chromosomes, Molecular basis of spontaneous and induced mutation and their role in evolution,
Environment mutagenesis and toxictiy testing, Population genetics.
17. Structure of pro and eukaryotic cells, Membrane structure and function, Intracellular
compartments, protein sorting, secretory and endocytic pathways, Cytoskeleton, Nucleus,
Mitochondria and chloroplasts and their genetic organisation, cell cycle, Structure and
organisation of chromatin, polytene and lamphrush chromosomes, Dosage compensation and
sex determination and sex-linked inheritance.
18. Interactions between environment and biota, Concept of habitat and ecological niches, Limiting
factors, Energy flow, food chain, food web and trophic levels, Ecological pyramids and recycling,
Biotic community—concept, structure, dominance, fluctuation and succession, N.P.C. and S
Cycles in nature.
19. Ecosystem dynamics and management : Stability and complexity of ecosystems, Speciation
and extinction, Environmental impact assessment, Principles of conservation, Conservation
strategies, Sustainable development.
20. Physico-chemical properties of water, Kinds of aquatic habitats (fresh water and marine),
Distribution of and impact of environmental factors on the aquatic biota, Productivity, mineral
cycles and biodegradation in different aquatic ecosystems, Fish and Fisheries of India with
respect to the management of estuarine, coastal water systems and man-made reservoirs,
Biology and ecology of reservoirs.
21. Structure, classification, genetics, reproduction and physiology of bacteria and viruses (of
bacteria, plants and animals), Mycoplasma protozoa and yeast (a general accounts).

1. Which one of the following is not a
modification of a compound light
microscope ?
(A) Phase contrast microscope
(B) Fluorescence microscope
(C) Electron microscope
(D) Dark-field microscope
2. In Drosophila melanogaster, sex is
determined by :
(A) X and Y chromosomes
(B) X/A ratio
(C) Ploidy
(D) Z and W chromosomes
3. Organelle found in plant seeds that
oxidise stored lipids as source
of carbon and energy for growth
are :
(A) peroxisomes
(B) chloroplasts
(C) glyoxysomes
(D) lysosomes
4. Which of the following represents
mammalian mitotic cyclins ?
(A) Cyclins A and D
(B) Cyclins B and D
(C) Cyclins E and B
(D) Cyclins A and B
5. The valency of Immunoglobulin M
molecule is :
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
6. Bivalent formation and crossing
over take place during :
(A) Zygotene
(B) Pachytene
(C) Diplotene
(D) Leptotene
7. Induction of new blood vessels that
invade the tumor and nourish it is
known as :
(A) metastasis
(B) neogenesis
(C) angiogenesis
(D) extravasation
8. GIUT 1 is a well studied example
of a protein that mediates :
(A) active transport
(B) facilitated diffusion
(C) osmosis
(D) differentiation
9. Cadherins are a family of cell
adhesion molecules dependent on :
(A) Ca2+
(B) K1+
(C) Na1+
(D) Mg2+
10. Cellulose is formed by repeated units
of :
(A) glucose and galactose
(B) galactose
(C) glucose
(D) fructose
11. The acetyl groups required for
cytoplasmic fatty acid biosynthesis
generated due to activity of :
(A) citrate lyase
(B) citrate synthase
(C) isocitrate lyase
(D) isocitrate dehydrogenase
12. A non-competitive inhibitor :
(A) increases Km and Vmax both
(B) decreases Km and increases
Vmax
(C) decreases Km and Vmax both
(D) Km remains unaltered, Vmax
decreases
13. Which one of the following is not a
proton pump ?
(A) NADH-Q reductase
(B) Succinate-Q reductase
(C) Cytochrome C reductase
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
14. Two molecules of double stranded
DNA have same length (1000
basepairs) but differ in base
composition. Molecule 1 contains
20% A + T, molecule 2 contains 60%
A + T. Which molecule has a higher
Tm and how many C residues are
there in molecule 2 ?
(A) 1 ; 400
(B) 1 ; 200
(C) 2 ; 400
(D) 2 ; 40
15. Which of the following is NOT
involved in the lagging strand
synthesis ?
(A) RNaseA
(B) Primase
(C) Reverse Transcriptase
(D) DNA Pol I
16. There are three kinds of RNA
polymerases (I, II, III) in eukaryotic
cells, each specific for one class of
RNA molecule (mRNA, tRNA and
rRNA). Which of the following is a
correct match ?
(A) I-rRNA, II-tRNA
(B) II-mRNA, III-rRNA
(C) I-rRNA, II-mRNA
(D) I-tRNA, III-rRNA
17. Which of the following does not
inhibit translation ?
(A) chloramphenicol
(B) streptomycin
(C) tetracycline
(D) rifampicin
18. For a spontaneous reaction ∆G
should be :
(A) positive
(B) negative
(C) equal to zero
(D) may be negative or zero
19. Cold stress—induced increase in
membrane fluidity is caused due
to :
(A) increase in cholesterol
(B) increase in long chain fatty
acids
(C) increase in unsaturated fatty
acids
(D) increase in sphingolipids
20. Which of the following statements
is true ?
(A) Intestinal cells have Na+/
glucose antiporters
(B) Intestinal cells have Na+/amino
acid symporters
(C) Maintenance of low Ca++
concentration in cytosol is due
to primary active transport of
Na+ and Ca++
(D) Cells have Na+/H+ symporters.
21. Which of the following is an
osmoregulatory hormone in lower
vertebrates ?
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Malatonin
(C) Prolactin
(D) Epinephrine
22. “Mottled enamel” a condition which
makes teeth particularly more
resistant to decay is due to :
(A) vitamin A excess
(B) fluoride excess
(C) vitamin B12 deficiency
(D) selenium excess
23. Blue-light receptors in the plant
are :
(A) Cryptochromes
(B) Carotenoids
(C) Cytochromes
(D) Phytochromes
24. Echo location is characteristic of :
(A) Bats
(B) Whales
(C) Birds
(D) Birds, whales and bats
25. Genes that are located at identical
loci of homologous chromosomes are
called :
(A) alleles
(B) polygenes
(C) homozygous
(D) pseudogenes
26. The Okazaki fragments of the
lagging strand of DNA template are
joined by :
(A) DNA gyrase
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) RNA primer
27. The name of chromosome map unit
is :
(A) Inter locus distance
(B) Cytomorgan
(C) Chromomere
(D) Centimorgan
28. The basic unit of chromatin
nucleosome consists of :
(A) H1A, H2B, H3, H4 histones and
200 bp of DNA
(B) H1, H2, H3, H4 histones and 180
bp of DNA
(C) H2A, H2B, H3, H4 histones and
140 bp of DNA
(D) DNA polymerase, DNA helicase
and histones
29. The human hereditary disease
associated with DNA repair is :
(A) Kleinfelter’s syndrome
(B) Haemophilia
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Bloom’s syndrome
30. A molecular technique that can be
used to isolate contiguous regions of
genomic DNA beginning with
previously cloned DNA fragments
that map near a gene of interest is
called :
(A) chromosome walking
(B) chromosome painting
(C) chromosome scanning
(D) chromosome mapping
31. Renewability, pluripotency and
ability to differentiate are properties
of :
(A) endocrine cells
(B) endodermal cells
(C) oocytes
(D) stem cells
32. Exception to universal genetic code
is seen in :
(A) plasmids
(B) viruses
(C) mitochondria
(D) transposons
33. Characteristics that have arisen as
a result of common evolutionary
descent are said to be :
(A) analogous
(B) homologous
(C) heterologous
(D) heterogamous
34. The effect of natural selection may
be countered by :
(A) gene flow
(B) genetic drift
(C) mutation
(D) inbreeding
35. In a population of 100 persons, there
are 30 persons with M blood group
and 20 persons with N blood group.
The gene frequency for M and N
blood groups is :
(A) 0.20, 0.80
(B) 0.60, 0.40
(C) 0.20, 0.30
(D) 0.65, 0.45
36. Which of the following definitions
correctly depicts “biological species”
concept ?
(A) A species is the most inclusive
population of organisms that
share a common fertilization
system
(B) A species is a single lineage of
population that maintains an
identity separate from other
such lineages
(C) Species are groups of actually
or potentially interbreeding
natural populations that are
reproductively isolated from
other such groups
(D) A species is the smallest unit of
group of individuals sharing
common ancestry
37. During the early stages of
development, embryos of reptiles,
birds and mammals look very
similar. This suggests that reptiles,
birds and mammals :
(A) have a common ancestor
(B) live in the same type of
environment
(C) have undergone parallel
evolution
(D) are no longer undergoing
evolution
38. Speciation is more likely to occur in
cases of :
(A) sympatry
(B) allopatry
(C) antipatry
(D) panmixis
39. The ecosystem without stress is :
(A) highly productive
(B) highly diverse and stable
(C) highly unstable
(D) less productive and unstable
40. A sustainable development practice
involves :
(A) control of pathogens using
biopesticides
(B) reclamation of soils using
chemical fertilizers
(C) use of chemicals for control of
pathogens
(D) use of fossil fuels
41. Which of the following ecosystems
is represented by inverted pyramid
of biomass ?
(A) Forest
(B) Grass land
(C) Pond
(D) Rhizosphere
42. The organism used for large scale
production of vit B2 is :
(A) Penicillium chrysogenum
(B) Aspergillus niger
(C) Ashbya gossypi
(D) Trichoderma harzianum
43. Assimilatory microbial SO4
reduction occurs in :
(A) flowing water
(B) surface water
(C) atmosphere
(D) water sediments
44. Bt toxin is active in the gut
environment having :
(A) alkaline pH
(B) alkaline protease
(C) alkaline pH and alkaline
protease
(D) neutral pH and protease
45. Bentham and Hooker’s system
classifies :
(A) all tracheophytes
(B) all seed plants
(C) all embryophytes
(D) thallophytes, bryophytes and
pteridophytes
46. Botanical gradens serve the purpose
of .................................. conservation of
plants.
(A) ex situ, ex vitro
(B) in situ, ex vitro
(C) ex situ, in vitro
(D) in situ, in vitro
47. The common mushroom puffballs
and truffles belong to the class of
fungi :
(A) Ascomycetes
(B) Basidiomycetes
(C) Oomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes
48. The biological name of common
brewing and baking yeast is :
(A) Candida albicans
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Cryptococcus neoformans
(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
49. A pair of halteres is seen in :
(A) Damsel fly
(B) May fly
(C) Butterfly
(D) Fruit fly
50. The group which contains all
Cnidaria is :
(A) Obelia, Acetabularia, Hydra,
Coral
(B) Hydra, Jellyfish, Rotifer, Coral
(C) Obelia, Hydra, Jellyfish, Sea
Anemone
(D) Jellyfish, Ascon, Physalia, Sea
February 4th, 2014 01:06 PM
Sashwat
Re: Last Years Question Papers of SET Life Science

As per your request, here I am sharing the Last Years Question Papers of SET Life Science

1. Sex determination in mammals is
governed by TDy. The most probable
candidate gene for TDy is :
(A) Zfy
(B) Bkm
(C) Sry
(D) Sox 9
2. How does homologous recombination
play a role in replicative
transposition ?
(A) Replicative transposition can
only occur between homologous
sequences
(B) Proteins involved in homologous
recombination are required to
initiate replicative transposition
(C) After the transposon is
replicated, free copy of sequence
is integrated into genome at the
new site via homologous
recombination
(D) Replication of transposon
sequence converts the hybrid
DNA molecule into a
cointegrate, which is uncoupled
via homologous recombination
3. Which of the following types of genes
are not found in mitochondrial
genome ?
(A) tRNA genes
(B) respiratory chain genes
(C) rRNA genes
(D) glycolytic genes
4. Genes responsible for determining
the identification of the segments in
Drosophila are the :
(A) Gap genes
(B) Pair-rule genes
(C) Segment polarity genes
(D) Homeotic selector genes
5. In garden peas, yellow seed colour
(Y) is dominant to green (y), round
seed shape (R) is dominant to
wrinkled (r) and tall (T) is dominant
to dwarf (t). These traits segregate
independently. What phenotypes are
expected from the cross TyRRTt and
YyRRTT ?
(A) Yellow-wrinkled-dwarf and
green-round-tall
(B) Yellow-round-tall only
(C) Yellow-round-tall and greenround-
tall
(D) Yellow-round-tall and greenwrinkled-
dwarf
6. Damage encountered during
replication is repaired by :
(A) Nucleotide excision repair
system
(B) Base excision repair system
(C) Recombination repair system
(D) Mismatch repair system
7. Transgenic plants expressing the
CryA1 genes will show the following
phenotype :
(A) Pathogen resistance
(B) Insect resistance
(C) Drought tolerance
(D) Oxidative stress tolerance
8. Why is actin used as a control
for transcriptome studies in
vertebrates ?
(A) It is used as a negative control
as the gene is not expressed in
vertebrates
(B) It is used as a negative control
as its mRNA is degraded
rapidly
(C) It is used as a positive control
as its expression is fairly
constant in different cell types
(D) It is used as a positive control
as it is the most highly
expressed gene in all cell types
9. Which of the following codons code
for two amino acids based on its
context ?
(A) AUG
(B) GUG
(C) UGA
(D) GUA
10. For efficient attachment of sister
chromatids to the spindle, which
one of the following processes is
required :
(A) Inhibition of Cdk
(B) Aggregation of lamins in
nuclear membrane
(C) Breakdown of nuclear
membrane
(D) Rapid synthesis of cyclin B
11. Which of the following enzymes is
not found in lysosome ?
(A) Collagenase
(B) Mannosidase
(C) Acetylcholine esterase
(D) Hyaluronidase
12. Which of the following is not a part
of host defence mechanism :
(A) Lipopolysaccharide
(B) Macrophage
(C) Skin
(D) Interferon
13. Which of the following components
exhibits peptidyl transferase
activity ?
(A) 16S rRNA
(B) 23S rRNA
(C) One of the 30S ribosomal
protein
(D) One of the 50S ribosomal
protein
14. Which one of the following is not a
molecular motor ?
(A) Myosin
(B) Kinesin
(C) Dynein
(D) Dynamin
15. Which one of the following immune
cells has both myeloid and lymphoid
lineage ?
(A) Natural killer cell
(B) Dendritic cell
(C) Mast cell
(D) Monocyte
16. Which of the following can be used
for distinguishing an activated T
lymphocyte from a naive T cell ?
(A) Presence of T cell receptor
(B) Presence of co-receptor
(C) CD28
(D) IL-2 receptor
17. Paraquat inhibits photosynthesis by
blocking :
(A) PS I
(B) PS II
(C) ATPase
(D) Cyt bf
18. Which of the following is the donor
of new glucose molecules in glycogen
synthesis ?
(A) UDP glucose 1 phosphate
(B) UDP glucose 6 phosphate
(C) Glucose 1 phosphate
(D) UDP glucose
19. Protein denaturation does not
involve the breakage of :
(A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Peptide bonds
(C) Ionic bonds
(D) Disulphide bonds
20. The connecting link between HMP
shunt and lipid synthesis is ?
(A) Acetyl CoA
(B) NADPH
(C) Sedoheptulose 7-phosphate
(D) NADH
21. Cytochrome P450 is a member of
which family of oxidoreductases ?
(A) Catalase
(B) Hydroperoxidase
(C) Oxidase
(D) Oxygenase
22. A sigmoidal plot of substrate
concentration ([S]) versus reaction
velocity (V) indicates which of the
following ?
(A) Cooperative binding
(B) Competitive inhibition
(C) Michaelis-Menten kinetics
(D) Non-competitive inhibition
23. Which of the following proteins is
not absolutely required for growth
of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in a
medium containing glucose as the
sole source of carbon ?
(A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
dehydrogenase
24. Purine synthesis differs from
pyrimidine synthesis. Which of the
following is true ?
(A) Purine ring is synthesized on
pentose sugar
(B) Purine ring is synthesized and
then coupled to pentose sugar
(C) Pyrimidine ring is synthesized
on pentose
(D) Pyrimidine ring is derived from
purine ring
25. Which of the following statements
about species and speciation is
true ?
(A) Hybrids are always selected
against in nature
(B) Reproductive isolating
mechanisms are usually
selected against in nature
(C) A single species can evolve
through undergoing adaptive
radiation and produce a cluster
of species
(D) Species usually have only one
type of reproductive isolating
mechanism
26. A classical example of microevolutionary
process is :
(A) development of penicillin
resistant bacteria
(B) recurrence of pest
(C) appearance of six fingers in both
left and right hand and in some
human newborns
(D) occurrence of non-disjunction in
population of dividing cell
27. Which of the following statements
is most likely to be true about two
species ?
(A) They occupy different niches
(B) They can never hybridize
naturally
(C) Their chromosome number will
differ
(D) Their structural genes may
show 25-50% sequence
homology
28. A rare allele which is being selected
against :
(A) is found predominantly in
heterozygotes
(B) has selection co-efficient of 0.01
(C) can be said to be in linkage
disequilibrium
(D) is found to be a result of
bottleneck
29. A similar feature (at the molecular
level) occurring in different species
whose ancestral lineages differ from
each other is called :
(A) parallelism
(B) convergent evolution
(C) divergent evolution
(D) homology
30. Which of the following processes is
thought to underlie concerted
evolution ?
(A) Gene conversion
(B) Lateral gene transfer
(C) Programmed mutation
(D) Transposition
31. According to Stebbins :
(A) Dicotyledons evolved before
monocotyledons
(B) Dicotyledons evolved from
monocotyledons
(C) Monocotyledons and dicotyledons
evolved parallel
(D) Sporophyte evolution is
independent of gametophyte
32. For each molecule of ATP → ADP
+ Pi, the Na+/K+ ATPase moves
........................ across the plasma
membrane.
(A) 2K+ and 2Na+ ions
(B) 2K+ and 3Na+ ions
(C) 3K+ and 2Na+ ions
(D) 3K+ and 3Na+ ions
33. Signal transduction does not
involve :
(A) Interaction of a molecule with
cell surface receptor
(B) Phosphorylation of membrane
bound proteins
(C) Production of secondary
messengers
(D) Activation of nuclear membrane
proteins
34. Mutations that increase the yield of
a microbial product are most likely
to occur in :
(A) Biosynthetic genes
(B) Catabolic genes
(C) Plasmid-encoded genes
(D) Regulatory genes
35. Antimalarial drug primaquine
causes side effects in some people
leading to RBC lysis and jaundice.
This is due to a deficiency in the
enzyme :
(A) Glucose 6P dehydrogenase
(B) Fructose 6P dehydrogenase
(C) Aldolase
(D) Hexokinase
36. Intracellular concentration of the
following ions in a plant cell are :
(A) K+ > Ca2+ > Na+
(B) Ca2+ > K+ > Na+
(C) K+ > Na+ > Ca2+
(D) Na+ > K+ > Ca2+
37. Which of the following chloroplastic
proteins is rapidly turned over in the
presence of light ?
(A) Light harvesting chlorophyll
binding proteins
(B) Plastoquinone binding proteins
(C) Plastocyanin binding protein
(D) NADP reductase
38. Q10 is associated with one of the
following specific processes :
(A) Growth rate
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Oxygen affinity of haemoglobin
(D) Breathing rate
39. The aortic valve :
(A) Prevents mixing of auricular
and ventricular blood
(B) Prevents back flow of blood from
auricles to ventricles
(C) Prevents mixing of blood
between right and left auricles
(D) Prevents back flow of blood from
major arteries to ventricles
40. The centre of origin of maize is :
(A) Tropical America
(B) Brazil
(C) Peru
(D) Central Asia
41. Field gene banks are least useful
for :
(A) Ornamental species
(B) Plantation crops
(C) Forest trees
(D) Wild relatives of crops
42. Remote sensing followed by broad
scale sampling is used to assess :
(A) genetic diversity
(B) taxonomic diversity
(C) species diversity
(D) ecosystem diversity
43. DNA barcoding for species
identification involves the use of :
(A) VNTRs
(B) Cytochrome oxidase gene
(C) tRNA gene family
(D) Actin and vimentin
44. Classification based on overall
similarities and differences is :
(A) Phylogenetic classification
(B) Phenetic classification
(C) Natural classification
(D) Artificial classification
45. Susceptibility to extinction of Blue
Whale has been attributed to :
(A) small population size
(B) low reproductive rate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) habitat loss
46. Conservation of cultivated plants
has been mandated to the :
(A) National Bureau of Plant
Genetic Resources
(B) World Conservation Union
(C) Ministry of Environment and
Forests
(D) National facility for plant tissue
culture Repository
47. Mint oil is obtained from :
(A) Mentha spicata
(B) Mentha piperata
(C) Peperomia pallida
(D) Piper nigrum
48. The ability of a genotype to modify
its growth and development in
response to changes in environment
is known as :
(A) Allelopathy
(B) Phenotypic plasticity
(C) Adaptability
(D) Mutatability
49. In uncrowded, resource-rich
environment, natural selection
would favour organisms which are
able to achieve rapid population
growth. Such organisms are termed
as :
(A) k-strategists
(B) γ-strategists
(C) α-strategists
(D) β-strategists
50. The relative efficiency of scavenging
of nutrients by rainwater is
called :
(A) Deposition velocity
(B) Carbonation
(C) Weathering
(D) Wash-out ratio

1. When data is processed or converted to some meaningful form, it is called
(A) ALU
(B) CPU
(C) Information
(D) Exponentiation.
2. The programs that direct the computer in its own internal operations are called
(A) system hardware
(B) system program
(C) application program
(D) data bus.
3. The communication between the CPU and external module takes place via the
(A) address bus only
(B) data bus only
(C) address and data buses
(D) control bus only.
4. Disk and tape drives are commonly used as
(A) soft copy
(B) secondary storage devices
(C) primary storage devices
(D) operating system.
5. The program which translates high level language program into machine language
program is termed as
(A) compiler
(B) source program
(C) object program
(D) application program.
6. Lysosomes are known as 'suicidal bags' because of
(A) catalytic activity
(B) hydrolytic activity
(C) parasitic activity
(D) food vacuole.
7. Which one of the following is highly tolerant to salt stress ( salinity ) ?
(A) Allium cepa
(B) Beta vulgaris
(C) Zea mays
(D) Citrus lirnon.
8. In which of the following structures P-cells are found ?
(A) Vena cava
(B) SA node and AV node
(C) Bundle of His
(D) Ventricular myocardium.
9. The complement complex C3bBb is known as
(A) classical pathway C3 convertase
(B) classical pathway C5 convertase
(C) alternative pathway C3 convertase
(D) alternative pathway C5 convertase.
10. Which one of the following g value in a centrifugation is required for deposition of the
plasma membrane, fragments of the endoplasmic reticulum and large polyribosomes ?
(A) 300,000gx2h
(B) 600gxl0minutes
(C) 100,000 g x 60 minutes
(D) 15.000 g x 5 minutes
11. The only known nickel containing enzyme in higher plant is
(A) ATP sulfurylase
(B) Lipoxygenase
(C) Cytochrome P450
(D) Urease.
12. Which one of the following is not found in mitochondria1 matrix ?
(A) Single-stranded DNA
(B) Double-stranded DNA
(C) RNA
(D) Ribosome.
13. Distance between the neighbouring base pairs of DNA is
(A) 3.4 A
(B) 34 A
(C) 19.8 A
(D) 340 A.
14. Which of the following viruses is used for biocontrol of insect pests of plants ?
(A) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(B) Rice tungro virus
(C) Cucumber mosaic virus
(D) Nuclear polyhedrosis virus.
15. A marine fish maintains its osmoregulation by the way of
(A) excreting water
(B) excreting salts
(C) producing concentrated urine
(D) activating chloride cells.
16. In C, plants the enzyme responsible for primary fixation of CO, is
(A) RuBP carboxylase
(B) Deoxycarboxylase
(C) PEP carboxylase
(D) All of these.
17. Through which foramen CSF passes from lateral ventricles to the third ventricle ?
(A) Foramen of Monro
(B) Foramen of Luschka
(C) Foramen of Magendie
(D) Foramen Magnum.
18. When a heterozygous offspring is crossed with the homozygous recessive, the cross is
called
(A) reciprocal cross
(B) back cross
(C) test cross
(D) criss-cross.
19. Which one of the following species is the causative agent of Cutaneous leishmaniasis ?
(A) Leishmania donovani
(B) Leishmania chagasi
(C) Leishmania tropica
(D) Leishmania infanturn.
20. Matter and energy in the food chain run in parallel
(A) upto carnivore level
(B) upto herbivore level
(C) upto decomposer level
(D) upto nutrient pool level.
21. Kisspeptin-GPR54 axis is involved in the regulation of
(A) Thyroxine secretion
(B) ACTH secretion
(C) Puberty onset
(D) Insulin secretion.
22. Which one of the four useful dyes for fluorescent staining, emits green light ?
(A) Rhodamine
(B) Texas Red
(C) FDA
(D) Cy 3.
23. The overall shape of 2-DNA is
(A) short and wide
(B) short and narrow
(C) elongated and narrow
(Dl elongated and wide.
24. The mechanism by which plants are protected against bacterial disease is called
(A) amensalism
(B) parasitism
(C) commensalism
(D) antagonism.
25. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the regions of embryonic brain in
vertebrates ?
(A) Mesencephalon, Diencephalon, Rhombencephalon, Telencephalon
(B) Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencephalon, Telencephalon
(C) Telencephalon, Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencephalon
(D) Rhombencephalon, Telencephalon, Mesencephalon, Diencephalon.
26. Nitrates are converted into nitrogen by
(A) Dentrifying bacteria
(B) Nitrifying bacteria
(C) Ammonifying bacteria
(D) Nitrogen fixing bacteria.
27. Cholagogues are the substances that
(A) increase bile secretion
(B) cause contraction of gall bladder
(C) cause dilatation of colon
(D) increase intestinal secretion.
28. The mammary gland of primate is an example of
(A) simple tubular gland
(B) compound tubular gland
(C) simple tubuloalveolar gland
(D) compound alveolar gland.
29. Inflection point in a population growth curve is represented by,
(A) K
(B) K/2
(C) r
(Dl J.
1410-11 8
30. The first appearance of amphibians on earth was during the period
(A) Devonian
(B) Carboniferous
(C) Triassic
(D) Jurassic.
3 1. The resolution of electron microscope is higher than optical microscope because of
(A) larger aperture
(B) smaller wavelength of electrons
(C) greater wavelength of electrons
(D) smaller focal length of the lens.
32. Multiple forms of enzymes with the same catalytic activity but with different structures
are called
(A) Holoenzyme
(B) Isoenzyme
(C) Prosthetic groups
(D) Apoenzymes.
33. Spherical subunits of eukaryotic chromatin composed of a core particle consisting of an
octamer of histones and 146 nucleotide pairs are called
(A) Polysomes
(B) Centrosomes
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Nucleosomes.
34. The suppression of action of a gene by another non-alleomorphic gene is called
(A) Epistasis
(B) Hyperstasis
(C) Pseudo-dominance
(D) Hypostasis.
35. Which one of the following proteins is a major component of Cytoskeleton ?
(A) Tubulin
(B) Fibrin
(C) Osmotin
(D) Porin.
36. Which of the following pairs of antibodies can activate the complement ?
(A) IgA and IgD
(B) IgE and IgD
(C) IgG and IgE
(D) IgG and IgM.
37. Which is the naturally occurring auxin transport inhibitor ?
(A) 1 -N-naphthylphthalmic acid ( NPA )
(B) Quercetin ( flavonol )
(C) 2, 3, 5-Triiodobenzoic acid ( TIBA )
(D) 1 -Naphthoxyacetic acid ( 1 NOA ).
38. Which cells of the gastric gland secrete intrinsic factor ?
(A) Parietalcells
(B) Peptic cells
(C) Neck mucous cells
(D) Argentaffine cells.
39. The disease commonly called 'LOCK JAW' is caused by
(A) Bacillus pertusis
(B) Mycobacteriurn
(C) Clostridiurn tetani
(D) Treponerna pallidurn.
40. In congenital nephrotic syndrome, which one of the following proteins shows structural
abnormality due to mutation ?
(A) Nephrin
(B) Collagen-IV
(C) Fibronectin
(D) Fodrin.
[ P.T.O.
41. One of the conditions for biological magnification to occur in the food chain is that
(A) the pollutant in the environment is both persistent and lipophilic
(B) the pollutant is very high and degradable
(C) the level of phosphorous is reduced
(D) the level of chemical oxygen demand of water is reduced.
42. Which one of the following characterizes REM sleep ?
(A) desynchronized EEG and high amplitude EMG
(B) synchronized EEG and low amplitude EMG
(C) desynchronized EEG and low amplitude EMG
(D) synchronized EEG and high amplitude EMG.
43. The two strands in DNA helix are held together by
(A) Sulphide bonds
(B) Phosphate bonds
(C) Hydrogen bonds
(D) Van der Waal forces.
44. In human Myoclonic Epilepsy and Ragged-Red Fibre disease syndrome ( MERRF ) is
caused by
(A) a mutation in X chromosome gene
(B) a mutation in a mitochondria1 DNA gene
(C) trisomy 13
(D) trisomy 18.
45. Lesions in anterior hypothalamus cause
(A) Hypothermia
(B) Hyperthermia
(C) Homeothermia
(D) Horripilation.
46. Which one is correct for blood volume per kg of the body wt. in normal adult human ?
(A) 55 - 65 mllkg body wt.
(B) 75-85mllkgbodywt.
(C) 105-115ml/kgbodywt.
(D) 125-135mllkgbodywt.
47. The lakes which are deep, generally clear but deficient in nutrients and without much
biological activity are called
(A) Eutrophic lakes
(B) Oligotrophic lakes
(C) Dystrophic lakes
(D) Hypertrophic lakes.
48. This year ( 2010 ) is being observed as
(A) International year of Conservation of water
(B) International year of war against AIDS
(C) International year of Biodiversity
(D) International year of war against Global warming.
49. Under which phase of bacterial growth,bacteria increase in size but do not divide ?
(A) Log phase
(B) Lag phase
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Death phase.
50. Recently semisynthetic re-creation of life was achieved using the organism
(A) Physarum polycephalum
(B) Mycoplasma mycoides
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(D) Hemophilus influenza
January 31st, 2014 11:15 AM
Unregistered
Last Years Question Papers of SET Life Science

Can any one here provide me the Last Years Question Papers of SET Life Science???


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