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  #2  
Old January 28th, 2013, 03:54 PM
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Default Re: BHU MSC Entrance Exam Paper

I have M.Sc. Physics Entrance Exam Syllabus of Banaras Hindu University which I am sharing with you:

Nuclear structure and nuclear energy
Adiabatic changes
Eye optical instrument aberration and defect of vision
Wave motion
Newtons law of motion
Thermodynamics
Electric conduction and heating effect of current
Electromagnetism and magnetism
Expansion of solids, liquids and gases
Doppler effect
Atomic models and spectra
Rotatory motion of rigid bodies
Thermometry
Photometry
Solids
X-rays
Work power and Energy
Vibration of columns and strings
Diode and triode valves
Cathode rays and positive rays
Uniform circulation motion
Transmission of heat
Refraction through spherical surface
Superposition of waves (beats, interference and stationary waves)
Semi-conducting devices
Radio-activity
Photo-electric effect
Simple Harmonic Motion
Viscosity and Bernoulli’s principle
Wave nature of light
Electromagnetic induction
Alternating current
Motion in one, two and three dimension
Archimedes principle
Calorimetry
Refraction at plane surface
Matter waves
Chemical effect of current and thermo-electricity
Isothermal changes
Capacity and condenser
Gravitation
Universe
Reflection at plane and spherical surface
Simple circuits
Kinetic theory of gases
Electric field and potential
Elasticity surface tension
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  #3  
Old March 6th, 2013, 01:08 PM
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Default Re: BHU MSC Entrance Exam Paper

i want yo get msc entrance exam syllabus in chemistry
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  #4  
Old April 22nd, 2013, 10:20 AM
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sr send me last10 years paper of msc-physics entrnce xam of bhu in vaishaleeee696@gmail.com
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  #5  
Old May 28th, 2013, 11:14 AM
naveen tiwari
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sir please give me 10 year m.sc (physich) bhu entrance test paper on nctiwari99@gmail.com.
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  #6  
Old December 8th, 2013, 09:09 AM
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are plzzzzzz koi to 2013 bhu msc physics ke papers upload karo......
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  #7  
Old February 16th, 2014, 04:12 PM
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I am looking for the BHU MSC chemistry Entrance Exam Paper, can you provide me the same???
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  #8  
Old February 16th, 2014, 04:31 PM
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Default Re: BHU MSC Entrance Exam Paper

As you are looking for the BHU MSC chemistry Entrance Exam Paper, here I am uploading a pdf file having the same. there are objective type of the questions available. Following is the content of attachment:

3. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by
11) formaldehyde
13) benzaldehyde
12) acetaldehyde
(4) trimethylacetaldehyde

5. The wave mechanical model of atom depends on
(1) de Broglie equation (2) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(3) Schrodinger wave equation (4) All of the above

Benzene reacts with methyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AIC1 3 to give toluene.
This reaction is called
(1) alkylation of benzene (2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(3) methylation reaction (4) All of the above






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Old March 13th, 2014, 04:31 PM
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Here I am looking for the previous year M.Sc Botany Entrance Exam Question paper of Banaras Hindu University (BHU), can you please provide me the same??
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  #10  
Old March 13th, 2014, 04:35 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Default Re: BHU MSC Entrance Exam Paper

As you require the previous year M.Sc Botany Entrance Exam Question paper of Banaras Hindu University (BHU), so here I am sharing the same with you


1. DoIipore septum is a characteristic feature of
(1) Oomycetes (2) Zygomycetes (3) Ascomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
2. Which one is imperfect fungus?
(1) Alternaria (2) Clauiceps (3) Ustilago (4) Peziza
3. Red tide refers to bloom of algae that colour the water red. The alga{e) are members of
(1) Cyanophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(354)
(2) Dinopbyceae
(4) Bacillariophyceae
1 (P. T. D.)
12P/219/29
4. Which of the following include a prokaryotic and a eukaryotic alga, each wit
phycobiliproteins?
(1) Spirulina and Pyrocystis (2) Nostoc and Polysiphonia
(3) Anabaena and Vaucheria (4) Aulosira and Dunaliella
5. Durirtg the process of the formation of wine using yeast, which of the following is m
formed?
(I) CO, (2) Pyruvic acid (3) Ethanol (4) Acetyl coenzyme J
6. What will you suggest to a farmer to minimise his use of fertilizer?
(1) Use of Pseudomonas before crop
(3) Use of cyanobacteria with wheat
(2) Use of Cladophora v.,'ith rice
(4) Sesbania before crop
7. Point richness refers to the number of species in an area and is also known as
(1) alpha diversity (2) beta diversity
(3) gamma diversity (4) gamma richness
8. In which of the following, the xylem core is stellate?
(1) Haplostele (2) Actinostele (3) Siphonostele (4) Plectostele
9. In allopatric speciation, the initial barrier to gene flow is
(I) behavioural (2) geographical (3) physiological (4) genetic
10. How many molecules of oxygen are required during glycolysis of one molecule c
glucose in an aerobic eukaryote?
(I) 0 (2) I (3) 6 (4) 12
(354) 2
12P/219/29
11. Which of the following plant fixes carbon dioxide by crussulacean acid metabolism?
(1) Oak tree (2) Cactus (3) Gram (4) Red alga
12. Which one of the following incorporates first amino acid during translation process?
(I) GAU (2) UGA (3) AUG (4) UAG
13. Phenomenon of guttation was discovered by
( I) Bellings (2) J. C. Bose (3) Godlewoski (4) Bergerstein
14. An organism with AAAABB genotype is
(1) autopolyploid (2) allopolyploid
(3) double polyploid (4) autoallopolyploid
15. In a flowering plant with n == 10, a trisomic will have the following number of
chromosomes in its somata cells
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 21
16. Which of the following is not true for DNA structure?
(1) Total purines are equal to total pyrimidines
(2) Two strands are polymers of nucleosides
(3) Two strands are antipara1Iei
(4) All the above three statements are true
(4) 30
17. If adenine content of a DNA molecule is 20%, then what will be the percentage of
cytosine in it?
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 80 (4) Data insufficient
(354) 3 (P. T.O.)
12Pj219j29
18. F 2 phenotypic ratio for a dihybrid cross for quantitative trait is
(I) 9:3:3:1 (2) I: I : 1: I (3) 1:4:6:4:1
19. Father of Neurospora genetics is
(I) Dodge (2) Morgan (3) Galton
20. Which of the following is true of nucleosome?
(1) Concept propagated by Oudet
(4) 9:6:1
(4) Benzer
(2) HI histone is found in the core particle and is rich in arginine
(3) Nu body is formed of a histone molecule
(4) DNA around core particle is 146 bp long and forms two coils
21. Lowest permanent wilting coefficient is an attribute of
(2) clay soil ( 1) loam soil
(3) sand (4) loam and clay soils
22. Club shaped antheridia are present in
( I) Batrachospennum (2) Rhizopus
(3) Funaria (4) Pteris
23. The term ecosystem was coined by
( I) Forbes (2) Tensley (3) Warming (4) Odum
24. Syngenecious condition is characteristic• of
. ( 1) Tiliaceae (2) Malvaceae {3] Asteraceae (4) Orchidaceae
(354) 4
25. Endodermis is not found in stem of
(I) Psilotum
(3) Lycopodium serratum
26. Sperms of Azolla are
(1) straight uniciliate
(3) coiled uniciliate
27. The edible part of Pinus seed is
(1) pericarp
(3) diploid perisperm
28. Black rust of wheat is caused by
(I) Rhizopus (2) Yeast
(2) Lycopodium clavatum
(4) Rhynia
(2) straight multiciliate
(4) coiled multiciliate
(2) female gametophyte
(4) endosperm
(3) Penicillium (4) Puccinia
29. Eusporangiate mode of sporangium development is found in
12P/219/29
(1) Funaria (2) Marchantia (3) Rhynia (4) Lycopodium
30. Which species of Azalia is native to India?
(1) Azolla rubra (2) Azalla circinalis
(3) Azalla pinnata (4) Azolla microphylla
31. If the vegetation of a place is burnt, the one first to appear will be
(I) mosses (2) lichens (3) liverworts (4) grasses
(354) 5 (Po T.O.)
l2P/2l9/29
32. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the food chain?
(1) Fallen leaves ~ Bacteria -) Insect larva -)0 Birds
(2) Phytoplankton -) Zooplankton --+ Fish ---)0 Birds
(3) Grasses ---)0 Fox -4 Rabbit --+ Man
(4) Grasses ----t Chameleon ----)0 Insects ----) Birds
33. In big cities. air pollution is due to
(1) burning of fossil fuel
(3) sewage
(2) thermal power plants
(4) H 2S
34. A typical angiospermic embryo sac is usually
(1) 1 celled
35. Chlorophyll absorbs
(1) red light only
(2) 2 celled
(3) blue as well as red li~t
(3) 4 celled
(2) blue light only
(4) green light
36. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway during
(1) light reaction
(3) photosystem I
(2) dark reaction
(4) photo system II
37. In gymnosperms, pollination occurs exclusively by
(1) wind (2) insects (3) water
(354) 6
(4) 7 celled
(4) man
12P/219/29
38. Transfusion tissue is met within
(1) leaves of Cycas
(3) roots of monocots
(2) stems of Selaginella
(4) capsule of Funaria
39. Molecular scissor used in genetic engineering is
(1) DNA polymerase
(3) restriction endonuclease
(2) DNA ligase
(4) helicase
40. What does Bt stand for in popular crop of 8t Cotton?
(1) Biotechnology
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
41. PalmeUa stage occurs in
(I) Spirogym (2) Aspergillus
(2) Bacillus tomentosa
(4) Biotransgenic
(3) Ulothrix (4) Cystopus
42. The most common nitrogen f"oong algae in rice field is
(1) Oscillatoria
(3) Cylindrospermum
{2} Nostoc
(4) Aulosira
43. Carragenin, a jelly like substance is derived from marine algae known as
(1) kelp (2) flagellates
44. The fruiting body of Aspergillus is called
(354)
(1) cleistothecium
(3) apothecium
7
(3) Irish moss
(2) hypanthodium
(4) perithecium
(4) diatoms
(P,T,Q,)
12P/219/29
45. Late blight of potato is caused by
(1) Albugo candida
(3) Phytophthora infestans
46. Smut of maize is caused by
(1) Ustilago avenae
(3) Ustilago hordei
'47. Most of the seaweeds belong to class
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Dinophyceae
48. Sexual reproduction is absent among
(1) Phycomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(2) Fusarium monolifonnae
(4) Alternaria solani
(2) Ustilago maydis
(4) Ustilago nuda
{3} Phaeophyceae (4) Cyanophyceae
(2) Ascomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes
49. Mushrooms, puff balls, toadstools belong to the class
(1) Phycomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
50. Annulus in moss capsule separates
(1) operculum from columella
(3) operculum from theca
(354)
(2) Ascomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes
(2) theca from columella
(4) columella from apophysis
8
12P/219/29
51. The development of sporophytes from moss gametophytes without sexual fusion is
called
(I) apogamy (2) apospory (3) amphimixis (4) parthenogenesis
52. In which of the following groups would you place a plant which produces spores and
embryos but lacks seeds and vascular tissue?
(I) Fungi (2) Pteridophytes (3) Bryophytes (4) Gymnosperms
53. Meiosis does not take place in the formation of gametes from
(I) prothallus (2) protonema (3) sporangium
54. Which of the following does not have a central pith?
(1) Siphonostele (2) Dictyostele (3) Protostele
55. The Cycas is a gymnosperm because
(1) its xylem consists of tracheids
(2) it lacks ovary but has exposed ovules
(3) it forms seeds
(4) it bears• pollen grains
(4) promycelium
(4) Solenostele
56. Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms due to the absence of
(I) ovary (2) pollination (3) seeds (4) fertilization
57. Respiratory structure in bacteria is
(1) mitochondria (2) ribosomes (3) mesosomes (4) lysosomes
(354) 9 (P.T.O.)
12P/219/29
58. Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because
(1) they prepare their food without the help of light
(2) they do not like sunlight brightness
(3) due to absence of chlorophyll, they are incapable of manufacturing their own food
(4) they use other kinds of light for manufacturing their own food
59. A free-living bacterium capable of flxing atmospheric nitrogen is
(I) Staphylococcus (2) Streptococcus
(3) Azotobacter (4) Nitmsomonas
60. Conformational variation between B and Z forms of DNA is partially due to
(1) rotation of glycosidic bond (2) loss of hydrogen bonds
(3) lack of hydrophobic attraction (4) increase in humidity
61. Funana attaches to substratum through rhyzoids which •are
(1) green, branched, thread like structures
(2) unbranched structures
(3) branched with oblique septa
(4) branched with plane septa
62. Which plant has the largest sperm?
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus (3) Ephedra (4) Gnetum
63. The translocation of sugars in anglOsperms occurs in the form of
(I) glucose (2) fructose (3) sucrose. (4) lactose
(354) 10
l2P/2l9/29
64. What is the function of tapetum in a developing anther?
(1) To obtain food material from the microspores
(2) To digest the surplus microspores
(3) To provide food material to the developing microspores
(4) To give protection to the inner tissues
65. 8t toxin is coded by a gene named as
(I) cry (2) bty (3) tby (4) dty
66. Which among the following defines the section of the gene coding for unused pieces of
RNA?
(1) IntTon (2) Cistron (3) Exon (4) Transposon
67.. Cyclic phosphorylation involves
(I) PS 1 only (2) PS 11 only
(3) either PS r or PS II (4) both PS I and PS 11
68. Two largest families of angiosperms are
(1) Cucurbitaceae and Leguminosae (2) Leguminosae and Orchidaceae
(3) Orchidaceae and Poaceae (4) Poaceae and Cucurbitaceae
69. India has been identified as a megadiversity centre due to its significant species
diversity. How many countries are recognised as megadiversity centres in addition to
India?
(I) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 11
(354) 11 (P.T.D.)
12P/219/29
70. The number of neck canal cells in Marchantia is
(I) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10
71. Organisms belonging to different specles living ill a harmonious balance in an
ecosystem constitute a
(1) community (2) population (3) biosphere (4) biome
72. Which of the following equations shows the relationship between gross primary
productivity and net primary productivity?
(1) GPP 0 NPP-photosynthesis (2) GPP == NPP-plant respiration
(3) NPP = GPP~plant respiration (4) NPP = GPP-animal respiration
"
73. A group of organisms procuring their food in the same general way irrespective of their
size are said to belong to
(1) same pyramid (2) different food webs
(3) same biogeochemical cycle (4) same trophical level
74. It is more accurate to define the biosphere as a global ecosystem than as a global
community because the biosphere includes
(1) both abiotic and biotic components
(2) only biotic components
(3) only abiotic components
(4) environmental adaptations
75. Which of the following factors is most responsible for extinction of species in recent
times?
(I) Pollution (2) Loss of habitat (3) Overhunting (4) Climate change
(354) 12
76. The best method to check soil erosion is
(1) contour farming
(3) wind breaks
(2) gully reclamation
(4) vegetation soil cover
77. Characteristic feature of a physiologically dry soil is
(1) concentration of salts is high in soil water
(2) soil is full of stones
(3) there is _plenty of water in the soil
(4) light available to plants is insufficient
78. Tightly held water in a thin film by the soil particles is known as
(1) rain water (2) gravitational water
(3) hygroscopic water (4) capillary water
79. Edaphic factors are related to
(1) temperature (2) soil (3) man
80. Which is the most stable ecosystem?
(1) Mountain (2) Desert (3) Forest
81. Maximum carbon dioxide fixation occurs through
(1) phytoplankton
(3) fungi and bacteria
(354) 13
(2) zooplankton
(4) green plants
(4) animals
(4) Ocean
12P/219/29
(P.T.O.)
l2P/219/29
82. Excessive discharge of fertilizers into water bodies results in
(I) silt (2) eutrophication
(3) death of hydrophytes (4) growth of fish
83. Red rust of tea is caused by
(1) Prototheca (2) Cephaleuros (3) Chlorococum (4) Chlorochytrium
84. Which of the following is true about oligotrophic lakes?
(1) Rich in nutrients
(3) High productivity
(2) Poor in nutrients
(4) Have algal blooms
85. Which of the following is responsible for soil pollution?
(1) Crop rotation (2) Earthworms
(3) Organo-chlorines (4) Crop residues
86. Distinct air bladders can be seen in the alga
(1) Dictyota (2) Sargassum (3) Laminaria (4) Fucus
87. Group of nodal branches in Batrachospennum is known as
(I) globule (2) glomerule
(3) gonimoblast filaments (4) heterotrichous
88. Gongrosira stage is found in
(I) an alga (2) a fungus (3) a bryophyte (4) a pteridophyte
(354) 14
12P/219/29
89. Process of change from vegetative phase to reproductive phase in response to
photoperiod is known as
(1) photoperiodism (2) phototropism
(3) photophosphorylation (4) photosynthesis
90. The most abundant protein in the biosphere is
(1) myosm
(2) carbonic anhydrase
(3) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygense
(4) collagen
91. The man culprit in producing photochemical smog is
(1) S02 (2) N0 2 (3) CO (4) 0 3
92. Synthesis of histone proteins during cell cycle takes place in
(1) G, phase (2) S phase (3) G 2 phase (4) prophase
93. The evolution of any species can be considered a sum total of the specific adaptive
changes preserved by
(1) natural selection (2) isolation
(3) conservation (4) artificial selection
94. In a dihybrid cross with complimentary genes, the F 2 ratio will be
(1) 9:7 (2) 9:3:4 (3) 12:3:1 (4) 9:3:3:1
(354) 15 (P. T.O.)
12P/219/29
95. What is true for a fully turgid cell?
(I) OP ~O (2) TP ~O (3) OP~DPD
96. Okazaki fragments are short DNA fragments synthesised in
(1) 5'-3' direction in a leading strand
(2) 3'-5' direction in a leading strand
(3) 5'-3' direction in a lagging strand
(4) 3'_5' direction in a lagging strand
(4) DPD ~O
97. Krebs' cycle is called tricarboxylic acid cycle as it produces a tricarboxylic acid, namely
(1) a-ketoglutaric acid
(3) malic acid
(2) isocitric acid
(4) oxaloacetic acid
98. Euchromatin differs from heterochromatin in having
(1) ability to transcribe (2) dark staining
(3) more CG base pairs (4) densely packed chromatin
99. During transcription, the strand of DNA duplex which acts as template is also name~
as
(1) sense strand (2) coding strand
(3) antisense strand (4) positive strand
100. Two types of flagella are present in which fungal phylum?
(1) Oomycota (2) Basidiomycota
(3) Ascomycota (4) Myxomycota
(354) 16
12Pj219j29
101. Aloe, known for its medicinal properties, belongs to the family
(1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Euphorbiaceae (4) Liliaceae
102. Ammonia is first oxidised to nitrite and then nitrite to nitrate with the help of two
bacteria, which are respectively
(1) Nitrobacter, Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrobacter, Nitrococcu.s
(3) Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter (4) Nitrococcus, Nitrosomonas
103. Which one of the following nitrogen fixing microbes is anaerobic?
(1) AZotobacter (2) Anabaena (3) Beijemickia (4) Rhodospirillum
104. Photosystem I and photo system II are named like this on the basis of
(1) the sequence in which they function during the light reaction
(2) the sequence of their discovery
(3) the wavelength at which the pigments absorb
(4) the size of two light harvesting complexes
105. Calvin used radioactive carbon and discovered that the first CO2 fixation product was
(1) 2-carbon organic acid (2) 3-carbon organic acid
(3) 5-carbon organic acid (4) 6-carbon organic acid
106. To make one molecule of glucose, how many turns of the Calvin cycle are required?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
(354) 17 (P.T.O.)
12P/219/29
107. Which of the following characters of plants is considered primitive?
(1) Herbaceous
(3) Compound leaves
(2) Absence of endosperm
(4) Superior ovary
108. Replum is associated with the fruits of the family
(1) Malvaceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Asteraceae (4) Brassicaceae
109. Which one is not a feature of C4 plants?
(1) Optimum temperature 20-25 °C
(3) Have no photorespiration
(2) Have Kranz anatomy in leaves
(4) Chloroplasts have photosystem
110. During cyclic photophosphorylation, which one of the following does not happen?
(1) Electrons released from chlorophyll return back
(2) NADP is oxidised
(3) Photolysis of water does not occur
(4) Photophosphorylation takes place at two sites
Ill. Which one of the following mechanical means makes testa permeable to waterr
(1) Vernalization (2) Penetration (3) Stratification (4) Scarification
112. Coleoptile is a sheath like structure to cover
(1) radicle (2) scutellum (3) coleorrhiza (4) plumule
113. Commercially useful bast fibres are derived from
(I) pericycle (2) xylem (3) phloem (4) endodermis
(354) 18
12P/219/29
114. The stele having one leaf gap is
(1) eustele (2) solenoste1e (3) dictyostele (4) siphonoste1e
115. In Funaria moss, which of the following is gametophytic?
(I) Apophysis (2) Peristome (3) Operculum (4) Calyptra
116. In arithmetic growth, on plotting the length ofthe root against time, the curve obtained
IS
(1) sigmoid (2) linear (3) hyperbolic (4) parabolic
117. Which of the plant growth regulators was first isolated from human urine?
(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin (3) Ethylene (4) Auxin
118. Which of the following is known as 'potato family'?
(1) Fabaceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Cucurbitaceae
119. The chief role of nucleolus in a nucleus concerns with
(1) organisation of chromosome (2) DNA replication
(3) ribosome synthesis (4) transcription
.
120. The amount of DNA in a cell at prophase II stage would be
(I) one fourth the parent cell (2) half the parent cell
(3) equal to the parent cell (4) double to the parent cell
(354) 19 (Po T.O.)
12P/219/29
121. A single turn of Krebs' cycle yields
(I) I FADH 2• 4 NADH2 and I GTP
(3) I FADH 2• 2 NADH2 and 2 GTP
(2) I FADH 2. 3 NADH 2 and I GTP
(4) 2 FADH 2• 3 NADH2 and 2 GTP
122. Which hormone' promotes formation of female flowers in cucumbers, thus enhancing
their yield?
(I) Auxin (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinins (4) Ethylene
123. Which one is correct regarding inheritance of cob length in maize?
(11 Multiple allele inheritance (2) Qualitative inheritance
(3) Quantitative inheritance (4) Extranuclear inheritance
124. Mendel was lucky in formulating the laws of inheritance because he selected
(1) pea plant with short generation time as his experimental material
(2) one character at a time for his experiment
(3) different traits having genes on different chromosomes
(4) different traits each having two alternative forms
125. Experiments using heavy isotopes to confirm DNA as genetic material were carned out
by
(1) Watson and Crick (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Mesels(,m and Stahl (4) Griffith and Avery
126. The enzyme which transcribes 55 rRNA is
(354)
(I) RNA polymerase I
(3) RNA polymerase III
20
(2) RNA polymerase II
(4) RNA polymerase
12P/219/29
127. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of a restriction endonuclease?
(1) It cuts the DNA at specific sites
(2) It restricts the growth of some specific viruses in the bacteria
(3) It recognizes palindromic sequences
(4) It retains its activity for years at optimum temperature
128. Which gene is constituent gene in lac operon?
(1) . Regulator gene
(3) Promoter gene
(2) Operator gene
(4) Structural gene
129. The organisms which can tolerate wide temperature are called
(1) ectothermal (2) eurythermal (3) endothermal (4) stenothermal
130. Two bacteria which are very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(1) Nitrosomonas and Klebisellct (2) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(3) Escherichia and Rhizobium (4) Azotobacter and Diplococcus
131. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is
called
(1) stratification (2) food chain (3) succession (4) trophic levels
132. Biomagnification of which one of the following pollutants causes thinning of egg-shells
and their premature breaking, thus resulting in a decline of bird popUlation?
(1) Mercury (2) Cadmium (3) DDT (4) BHe
(354) 21 (P.T.D.)
I2P/2I9/29
133. The plant hormon6 produced by Rhizobium for nodulation is
II) IAA (2) NAA
134. Turpentine oil is obtained from
(1) Pinus girardiana
(3) Pinus longifolia
135. Gemma cups are found on
(1) male thallus of Marchantia
(2) female thallus of Marchantia
(3) protha11us of Dryopteris
(3) IBA
(2) Pinus roxburghii
(4) Pinus excela
(4) both female as well as male thallus of Marchantia
136. Citrus Canker is caused by a
(1) Bacterium (2) Mycoplasma (3) Protist
(4) 2-4D
(4) Fungus
137. Ribosomes of chloroplasts in mesophyll cells of leaves have two sub-units as
(I) 30S and 40S
(3) 40S and 50S
(2) 30S and 50S
(4) 40S and 60S
138. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
(1) fungus (2) bacterium (3) viroid
139. Protonema is first stage of development in
(1) algae (2) fungi (3) liverworts
[354) 22
(4) VIrus
(4) mosses
12P/219/29
140. In angiosperms, one of the male gametes fuses with egg cell and the other fuses with
(1) haploid primary nucleus (2) haploid secondary nucleus
(3) diploid secondary nudeus (4) tJ;'iploid secondary nucleus
141. Which is the correct combination?
(1) Monoadelphous in citrus (2) Diadelphous in pea
(3) Polyade1phous in China rose (4) Epipetalous in lily
142. Type of placentation in China rose is
(1) parietal (2) axile (3) marginal (4) basal
143. Which one of the following has the correct sequence of the increasing organisational
complexity?
(I) Population, community, species, ecosystem
(2) Population, species, community, ecosystem
(3) Species, population, community, ecosystem
(4) Species, community. population, ecosystem
144. The transient population between two adjacent ecotypes is called
(I) deme (2) hybrid (3) race
145. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to its
(1) function at its place of occurrence
(2) place of its occurrence
(3) competitive ability
(4) centre of origin
(354) 23
(4) cline
(Po T.O.)
12P/219/29
146. Eltonian Pyramid(s) that cannot be inverted is/are of
• (1) biomass (2) number
(3) energy (4) biomass as well as energy
147. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those
(1) present in maximum number
(2) that are most frequent
(3) which attain a large biomass
(4) which contribute to ecosystem properties
148. A tobacco plant heterozygous for recessive character for albinism was self-pollinated
and 1200 seeds were obtained. The numbers that retain parent genotype in these
seedlings would be
(I) 300 (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 1200
149. Sunken stomata and multiple epidermis are found in leaves of
(1) maize (2) Nenum (3) Nilumbium (4) Neem
150. Exposure of plants to high fluoride concentration results in necrosis or chlorosis which
j-s characteristic in
(1) leaf tip and leaf margins (2) stem tip only
(3) petiole but not lamina of the leaf (4) only midrib of lamina
***




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