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Old January 19th, 2013, 04:16 PM
sana singh
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Default LSAT Sample Questions of the Day

I want to do LSAT preparation so
I want to need LSAT Sample Questions so please provide me in the PDF format
And please give me the website also
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  #2  
Old January 20th, 2013, 05:14 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Default Re: LSAT Sample Questions of the Day

You want to know the sample question papers for LSAT preparation, so here I am providing you with the required information of the same:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. If the last digit of an acceptable product code is 1, it
must be true that the
(A) first digit is 2
(B) second digit is 0
(C) third digit is 3
(D) fourth digit is 4

2. Which one of the following must be true about any
acceptable product code?
(A) The digit 1 appears in some position before the
digit 2.
(B) The digit 1 appears in some position before the
digit 3.
(C) The digit 2 appears in some position before the
digit 3.
(D) The digit 3 appears in some position before the
digit 0.

3. If the third digit of an acceptable product code is not 0,
which one of the following must be true?
(A) The second digit of the product code is 2.
(B) The third digit of the product code is 3.
(C) The fourth digit of the product code is 0.
(D) The fifth digit of the product code is 3.

4. Any of the following pairs could be the third and
fourth digits, respectively, of an acceptable product
code, EXCEPT:
(A) 0, 1
(B) 3, 4
(C) 1, 0
(D) 3, 0
5. Which one of the following must be true about any
acceptable product code?
(A) There is exactly one digit between the digit 0
and the digit 1.
(B) There is exactly one digit between the digit 1
and the digit 2.
(C) There are at most two digits between the digit 1
and the digit 3.
(D) There are at most two digits between the digit 2
and the digit 4.

Questions 6–10
Exactly three films—Gambhir, Haseen, and Lehenga—are
shown during a film club’s festival held on Thursday, Friday,
and Saturday. Each film is shown at least once during the
festival but never more than once on a given day. On each day
at least one film is shown. Films are shown one at a time. The
following conditions apply:
On Thursday Haseen is shown, and no film is shown after
it on that day.
On Friday either Gambhir or Lehenga, but not both, is
shown, and no film is shown after it on that day.
On Saturday either Gambhir or Haseen, but not both, is
shown, and no film is shown after it on that day.
6. Which one of the following could be a complete and
accurate description of the order in which the films are
shown at the festival?
(A) Thursday: Lehenga, then Haseen; Friday:
Lehenga; Saturday: Haseen
(B) Thursday: Haseen; Friday: Gambhir, then
Lehenga; Saturday: Lehenga, then Gambhir
(C) Thursday: Haseen; Friday: Lehenga; Saturday:
Lehenga, then Gambhir
(D) Thursday: Gambhir, then Haseen, then Lehenga;
Friday: Lehenga; Saturday: Gambhir
7. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(A) Haseen is the last film shown on each day of the
festival.
(B) Lehenga is shown on each day of the festival.
(C) Gambhir is shown second on each day of the
festival.
(D) A different film is shown first on each day of the
festival.
8. If Lehenga is never shown again during the festival
once Gambhir is shown, then which one of the following
is the maximum number of film showings that could
occur during the festival?
(A) three
(B) four
(C) five
(D) six
9. If Gambhir is shown exactly three times, Haseen is
shown exactly twice, and Lehenga is shown exactly once,
then which one of the following must be true?
(A) All three films are shown on Thursday.
(B) Exactly two films are shown on Saturday.
(C) Haseen and Gambhir are both shown on Friday.
(D) Gambhir is the only film shown on Saturday.
10. If Lehenga is shown exactly three times, Haseen is
shown exactly twice, and Gambhir is shown exactly
once, then which one of the following is a complete and
accurate list of the films that could be the first film
shown on Thursday?
(A) Haseen
(B) Lehenga
(C) Gambhir, Haseen
(D) Gambhir, Lehenga

Questions 11–17
A cruise line is scheduling seven week-long voyages for the
ship Azad. Each voyage will occur in exactly one of the
first seven weeks of the season: weeks 1 through 7. Each
voyage will be to exactly one of four destinations:
Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Martinique, or Trinidad. Each
destination will be scheduled for at least one of the weeks. The
following conditions apply to Azad’s schedule:
Jamaica will not be its destination in week 4.
Trinidad will be its destination in week 7.
Azad will make exactly two voyages to Martinique,
and at least one voyage to Guadeloupe will occur in some
week between those two voyages.
Guadeloupe will be its destination in the week preceding
any voyage it makes to Jamaica.
No destination will be scheduled for consecutive weeks.
11. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule of
destinations for Azad, in order from week 1 through
week 7?
(A) Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Martinique, Trinidad,
Guadeloupe, Martinique, Trinidad
(B) Guadeloupe, Martinique, Trinidad, Martinique,
Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Trinidad
(C) Jamaica, Martinique, Guadeloupe, Martinique,
Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Trinidad
(D) Martinique, Trinidad, Guadeloupe, Jamaica,
Martinique, Guadeloupe, Trinidad
12. Which one of the following CANNOT be true about
Azad’s schedule of voyages?
(A) Azad makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 6.
(B) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 5.
(C) Azad makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 6.
(D) Azad makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 3.
13. If Azad makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 5,
which one of the following could be true?
(A) Azad makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 1.
(B) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 2.
(C) Azad makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 3.
(D) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 4.
14. If Azad makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 1
and a voyage to Jamaica in week 5, which one of the
following must be true?
(A) Azad makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 2.
(B) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 6.
(C) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 3.
(D) Azad makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 6.
15. If Azad makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 1
and to Trinidad in week 2, which one of the following
must be true?
(A) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 3.
(B) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 4.
(C) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 5.
(D) Azad makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 3.
16. If Azad makes a voyage to Martinique in week 3,
which one of the following could be an accurate list of
Azad’s destinations in week 4 and week 5,
respectively?
(A) Guadeloupe, Trinidad
(B) Jamaica, Guadeloupe
(C) Martinique, Trinidad
(D) Trinidad, Jamaica
17. Which one of the following must be true about
Azad’s schedule of voyages?
(A) Azad makes a voyage to Guadeloupe either in
week 1 or else in week 2.
(B) Azad makes a voyage to Martinique either in
week 2 or else in week 3.
(C) Azad makes at most two voyages to
Guadeloupe.
(D) Azad makes at most two voyages to Jamaica.

Questions 18–23
There are exactly three recycling centers in Ganga Nagar:
Center 1, Center 2, and Center 3. Exactly five kinds of
material are recycled at these recycling centers: glass,
newsprint, plastic, tin, and wood. Each recycling center
recycles at least two but no more than three of these kinds of
material. The following conditions must hold:
Any recycling center that recycles wood also recycles
newsprint.
Every kind of material that Center 2 recycles is also
recycled at Center 1.
Only one of the recycling centers recycles plastic, and that
recycling center does not recycle glass.
18. Which one of the following could be an accurate account
of all the kinds of material recycled at each recycling
center in Ganga Nagar?
(A) Center 1: newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 2:
newsprint, wood; Center 3: glass, tin, wood
(B) Center 1: glass, newsprint, tin; Center 2: glass,
newsprint, tin; Center 3: newsprint, plastic,
wood
(C) Center 1: glass, newsprint, wood; Center 2: glass,
newsprint, tin; Center 3: plastic, tin
(D) Center 1: glass, plastic, tin; Center 2: glass, tin;
Center 3: newsprint, wood
19. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate
list of the recycling centers in Ganga Nagar any one of
which could recycle plastic?
(A) Center 1 only
(B) Center 3 only
(C) Center 1, Center 2
(D) Center 1, Center 3
20. If Center 2 recycles three kinds of material, then which
one of the following kinds of material must Center 3
recycle?
(A) glass
(B) newsprint
(C) plastic
(D) tin
21. If each recycling center in Ganga Nagar recycles exactly
three kinds of material, then which one of the following
could be true?
(A) Only Center 2 recycles glass.
(B) Only Center 3 recycles newsprint.
(C) Only Center 1 recycles plastic.
(D) Only Center 3 recycles tin.
22. If Center 3 recycles glass, then which one of the
following kinds of material must Center 2 recycle?
(A) glass
(B) newsprint
(C) plastic
(D) tin
23. If Center 1 is the only recycling center that recycles
wood, then which one of the following could be a
complete and accurate list of the kinds of material that
one of the recycling centers recycles?
(A) plastic, tin
(B) newsprint, wood
(C) newsprint, tin
(D) glass, wood

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
SECTION II
Time—35 minutes
25 Questions
Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some
questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that
is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by
commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer,
blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. Economist: Every business strives to increase its
productivity, for this increases profits for the
owners and the likelihood that the business will
survive. But not all efforts to increase
productivity are beneficial to the business as a
whole. Often, attempts to increase productivity
decrease the number of employees, which clearly
harms the dismissed employees as well as the
sense of security of the retained employees.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the economist’s argument?
(A) If an action taken to secure the survival of a
business fails to enhance the welfare of the
business’s employees, that action cannot be
good for the business as a whole.
(B) Some measures taken by a business to increase
productivity fail to be beneficial to the business
as a whole.
(C) Only if the employees of a business are also its
owners will the interests of the employees and
owners coincide, enabling measures that will
be beneficial to the business as a whole.
(D) There is no business that does not make efforts
to increase its productivity.
(E) Decreasing the number of employees in a
business undermines the sense of security of
retained employees.
2. All Labrador retrievers bark a great deal. All Saint
Bernards bark infrequently. Each of Rani’s dogs is a
cross between a Labrador retriever and a Saint Bernard.
Therefore, Rani’s dogs are moderate barkers.
Which one of the following uses flawed reasoning that
most closely resembles the flawed reasoning used in
the argument above?
(A) All students who study diligently make good
grades. But some students who do not study
diligently also make good grades. Jyoti studies
somewhat diligently. Therefore, Jyoti makes
somewhat good grades.
(B) All type A chemicals are extremely toxic to
human beings. All type B chemicals are
nontoxic to human beings. This household
cleaner is a mixture of a type A chemical and
a type B chemical. Therefore, this household
cleaner is moderately toxic.
(C) All students at Hansa School live in Hari Nagar.
All students at Eashan School live in Vijay
Nagar. Members of the Prakash family attend
both Hansa and Eashan. Therefore, some
members of the Prakash family live in
Hari Nagar and some live in Vijay Nagar.
(D) All transcriptionists know shorthand. All
engineers know calculus. Bala has worked both
as a transcriptionist and as an engineer.
Therefore, Bala knows both shorthand and
calculus.
(E) All of Karuna’s dresses are very well made.
All of Chitra’s dresses are very badly made.
Half of the dresses in this closet are very well
made, and half of them are very badly made.
Therefore, half of the dresses in this closet are
Karuna’s and half of them are Chitra’s.

3. A century in certain ways is like a life, and as the end
of a century approaches, people behave toward that
century much as someone who is nearing the end of
life does toward that life. So just as people in their last
years spend much time looking back on the events of
their life, people at a century’s end _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) reminisce about their own lives
(B) fear that their own lives are about to end
(C) focus on what the next century will bring
(D) become very interested in the history of the
century just ending
(E) reflect on how certain unfortunate events of the
century could have been avoided
4. Consumer: The latest Chintan Report suggests that
Omkar prepackaged meals are virtually
devoid of nutritional value. But the Chintan
Report is commissioned by Dilip Foods,
Omkar’s largest corporate rival, and early
drafts of the report are submitted for approval to
Dilip Foods’ public relations department.
Because of the obvious bias of this report, it is
clear that Omkar’s prepackaged meals really
are nutritious.
The reasoning in the consumer’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) treats evidence that there is an apparent bias as
evidence that the Chintan Report’s claims are
false
(B) draws a conclusion based solely on an
unrepresentative sample of Omkar’s
products
(C) fails to take into account the possibility that
Omkar has just as much motivation to
create negative publicity for Dilip as Dilip
has to create negative publicity for Omkar
(D) fails to provide evidence that Dilip Foods’
prepackaged meals are not more nutritious than
Omkar’s are
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
Dilip Foods’ public relations department
would not approve a draft of a report that was
hostile to Dilip Foods’ products
5. Scientist: Earth’s average annual temperature has
increased by about 0.5 degrees Celsius over the
last century. This warming is primarily the result
of the buildup of minor gases in the atmosphere,
blocking the outward flow of heat from the
planet.
Which one of the following, if true, would count as
evidence against the scientist’s explanation of Earth’s
warming?
(A) Only some of the minor gases whose presence
in the atmosphere allegedly resulted in the
phenomenon described by the scientist were
produced by industrial pollution.
(B) Most of the warming occurred before 1940,
while most of the buildup of minor gases in
the atmosphere occurred after 1940.
(C) Over the last century, Earth received slightly
more solar radiation in certain years than it did
in others.
(D) Volcanic dust and other particles in the
atmosphere reflect much of the Sun’s radiation
back into space before it can reach Earth’s
surface.
(E) The accumulation of minor gases in the
atmosphere has been greater over the last
century than at any other time in Earth’s
history.
6. An undergraduate degree is necessary for appointment
to the executive board. Further, no one with a felony
conviction can be appointed to the board. Thus,
Manu, an accountant with both a bachelor’s and a
master’s degree, cannot be accepted for the position of
Executive Administrator, since he has a felony
conviction.
The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) Anyone with a master’s degree and without a
felony conviction is eligible for appointment to
the executive board.
(B) Only candidates eligible for appointment to the
executive board can be accepted for the
position of Executive Administrator.
(C) An undergraduate degree is not necessary for
acceptance for the position of Executive
Administrator.
(D) If Manu did not have a felony conviction, he
would be accepted for the position of
Executive Administrator.
(E) The felony charge on which Manu was
convicted is relevant to the duties of the
position of Executive Administrator.

7. Ethicist: The most advanced kind of moral motivation
is based solely on abstract principles. This form
of motivation is in contrast with calculated selfinterest
or the desire to adhere to societal norms
and conventions.
The actions of which one of the following individuals
exhibit the most advanced kind of moral motivation, as
described by the ethicist?
(A) Bobby contributed money to a local charity
during a charity drive at work because he
worried that not doing so would make him
look stingy.
(B) Walter contributed money to a local charity
during a charity drive at work because he
believed that doing so would improve his
employer’s opinion of him.
(C) Deepa’s employers engaged in an illegal but
profitable practice that caused serious damage
to the environment. Deepa did not report this
practice to the authorities, out of fear that her
employers would retaliate against her.
(D) Jayashree’s employers engaged in an illegal but
profitable practice that caused serious damage
to the environment. Jayashree reported this
practice to the authorities out of a belief that
protecting the environment is always more
important than monetary profit.
(E) Lalitha’s employers engaged in an illegal but
profitable practice that caused serious damage
to the environment. Lalitha reported this
practice to the authorities only because several
colleagues had been pressuring her to do so.
8. Proponents of the electric car maintain that when the
technical problems associated with its battery design
are solved, such cars will be widely used and, because
they are emission-free, will result in an abatement of
the environmental degradation caused by auto
emissions. But unless we dam more rivers, the
electricity to charge these batteries will come from
nuclear or coal-fired power plants. Each of these three
power sources produces considerable environmental
damage. Thus, the electric car _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) will have worse environmental consequences
than its proponents may believe
(B) will probably remain less popular than other
types of cars
(C) requires that purely technical problems be
solved before it can succeed
(D) will increase the total level of emissions rather
than reduce it
(E) will not produce a net reduction in
environmental degradation
9. Although video game sales have increased steadily over
the past 3 years, we can expect a reversal of this trend
in the very near future. Historically, over three quarters
of video games sold have been purchased by people
from 13 to 16 years of age, and the number of people
in this age group is expected to decline steadily over
the next 10 years.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the argument?
(A) Most people 17 years old or older have never
purchased a video game.
(B) Video game rentals have declined over the past
3 years.
(C) New technology will undoubtedly make entirely
new entertainment options available over the
next 10 years.
(D) The number of different types of video games
available is unlikely to decrease in the near
future.
(E) Most of the people who have purchased video
games over the past 3 years are over the age
of 16.
10. Double-blind techniques should be used whenever
possible in scientific experiments. They help prevent
the misinterpretations that often arise due to
expectations and opinions that scientists already hold,
and clearly scientists should be extremely diligent in
trying to avoid such misinterpretations.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the argument?
(A) Scientists’ objectivity may be impeded by
interpreting experimental evidence on the basis
of expectations and opinions that they already
hold.
(B) It is advisable for scientists to use double-blind
techniques in as high a proportion of their
experiments as they can.
(C) Scientists sometimes neglect to adequately
consider the risk of misinterpreting evidence on
the basis of prior expectations and opinions.
(D) Whenever possible, scientists should refrain
from interpreting evidence on the basis of
previously formed expectations and
convictions.
(E) Double-blind experimental techniques are often
an effective way of ensuring scientific
objectivity.

11. It is now a common complaint that the electronic
media have corroded the intellectual skills required and
fostered by the literary media. But several centuries
ago the complaint was that certain intellectual skills,
such as the powerful memory and extemporaneous
eloquence that were intrinsic to oral culture, were being
destroyed by the spread of literacy. So, what awaits us
is probably a mere alteration of the human mind rather
than its devolution.
The reference to the complaint of several centuries ago
that powerful memory and extemporaneous eloquence
were being destroyed plays which one of the following
roles in the argument?
(A) evidence supporting the claim that the
intellectual skills fostered by the literary media
are being destroyed by the electronic media
(B) an illustration of the general hypothesis being
advanced that intellectual abilities are
inseparable from the means by which people
communicate
(C) an example of a cultural change that did not
necessarily have a detrimental effect on the
human mind overall
(D) evidence that the claim that the intellectual
skills required and fostered by the literary
media are being lost is unwarranted
(E) possible evidence, mentioned and then
dismissed, that might be cited by supporters of
the hypothesis being criticized
12. Suppose I have promised to keep a confidence and
someone asks me a question that I cannot answer
truthfully without thereby breaking the promise.
Obviously, I cannot both keep and break the same
promise. Therefore, one cannot be obliged both to
answer all questions truthfully and to keep all
promises.
Which one of the following arguments is most similar
in its reasoning to the argument above?
(A) It is claimed that we have the unencumbered
right to say whatever we want. It is also
claimed that we have the obligation to be civil
to others. But civility requires that we not
always say what we want. So, it cannot be true
both that we have the unencumbered right to
say whatever we want and that we have the
duty to be civil.
(B) Some politicians could attain popularity with
voters only by making extravagant promises;
this, however, would deceive the people. So,
since the only way for some politicians to be
popular is to deceive, and any politician needs
to be popular, it follows that some politicians
must deceive.
(C) If we put a lot of effort into making this report
look good, the client might think we did so
because we believed our proposal would not
stand on its own merits. On the other hand, if
we do not try to make the report look good,
the client might think we are not serious about
her business. So, whatever we do, we risk her
criticism.
(D) If creditors have legitimate claims against a
business and the business has the resources to
pay those debts, then the business is obliged to
pay them. Also, if a business has obligations to
pay debts, then a court will force it to pay
them. But the courts did not force this business
to pay its debts, so either the creditors did not
have legitimate claims or the business did not
have sufficient resources.
(E) If we extend our business hours, we will either
have to hire new employees or have existing
employees work overtime. But both new
employees and additional overtime would
dramatically increase our labor costs. We
cannot afford to increase labor costs, so we
will have to keep our business hours as they
stand.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
13. Standard aluminum soft-drink cans do not vary in the
amount of aluminum that they contain. Fifty percent of
the aluminum contained in a certain group (M) of
standard aluminum soft-drink cans was recycled from
another group (L) of used, standard aluminum softdrink
cans. Since all the cans in L were recycled into
cans in M and since the amount of material other than
aluminum in an aluminum can is negligible, it follows
that M contains twice as many cans as L.
The conclusion of the argument follows logically if
which one of the following is assumed?
(A) The aluminum in the cans of M cannot be
recycled further.
(B) Recycled aluminum is of poorer quality than
unrecycled aluminum.
(C) All of the aluminum in an aluminum can is
recovered when the can is recycled.
(D) None of the soft-drink cans in group L had been
made from recycled aluminum.
(E) Aluminum soft-drink cans are more easily
recycled than are soft-drink cans made from
other materials.
14. A cup of raw milk, after being heated in a microwave
oven to 50 degrees Celsius, contains half its initial
concentration of a particular enzyme, lysozyme. If,
however, the milk reaches that temperature through
exposure to a conventional heat source of 50 degrees
Celsius, it will contain nearly all of its initial
concentration of the enzyme. Therefore, what destroys
the enzyme is not heat but microwaves, which generate
heat.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) Heating raw milk in a microwave oven to a
temperature of 100 degrees Celsius destroys
nearly all of the lysozyme initially present in
that milk.
(B) Enzymes in raw milk that are destroyed through
excessive heating can be replaced by adding
enzymes that have been extracted from other
sources.
(C) A liquid exposed to a conventional heat source
of exactly 50 degrees Celsius will reach that
temperature more slowly than it would if it
were exposed to a conventional heat source
hotter than 50 degrees Celsius.
(D) Milk that has been heated in a microwave oven
does not taste noticeably different from milk
that has been briefly heated by exposure to a
conventional heat source.
(E) Heating any liquid by microwave creates small
zones within it that are much hotter than the
overall temperature that the liquid will
ultimately reach.
15. A new government policy has been developed to avoid
many serious cases of influenza. This goal will be
accomplished by the annual vaccination of high-risk
individuals: everyone 65 and older as well as anyone
with a chronic disease that might cause them to
experience complications from the influenza virus.
Each year’s vaccination will protect only against the
strain of the influenza virus deemed most likely to be
prevalent that year, so every year it will be necessary
for all high-risk individuals to receive a vaccine for a
different strain of the virus.
Which one of the following is an assumption that
would allow the conclusion above to be properly drawn?
(A) The number of individuals in the high-risk
group for influenza will not significantly
change from year to year.
(B) The likelihood that a serious influenza epidemic
will occur varies from year to year.
(C) No vaccine for the influenza virus protects
against more than one strain of that virus.
(D) Each year the strain of influenza virus deemed
most likely to be prevalent will be one that had
not previously been deemed most likely to be
prevalent.
(E) Each year’s vaccine will have fewer side effects
than the vaccine of the previous year since the
technology for making vaccines will constantly
improve.

16. Tarun: Researchers at a local university claim that
61 percent of the information transferred during a
conversation is communicated through nonverbal
signals. But this claim, like all such
mathematically precise claims, is suspect, because
claims of such exactitude could never be
established by science.
Shilpa: While precision is unobtainable in many areas
of life, it is commonplace in others. Many
scientific disciplines obtain extremely precise
results, which should not be doubted merely
because of their precision.
The statements above provide the most support for
holding that Shilpa would disagree with Tarun about
which one of the following statements?
(A) Research might reveal that 61 percent of the
information taken in during a conversation is
communicated through nonverbal signals.
(B) It is possible to determine whether 61 percent of
the information taken in during a conversation
is communicated through nonverbal signals.
(C) The study of verbal and nonverbal
communication is an area where one cannot
expect great precision in one’s research results.
(D) Some sciences can yield mathematically precise
results that are not inherently suspect.
(E) If inherently suspect claims are usually false,
then the majority of claims made by scientists
are false as well.
17. Hospital executive: At a recent conference on nonprofit
management, several computer experts
maintained that the most significant threat faced
by large institutions such as universities and
hospitals is unauthorized access to confidential
data. In light of this testimony, we should make
the protection of our clients’ confidentiality our
highest priority.
The hospital executive’s argument is most vulnerable to
which one of the following objections?
(A) The argument confuses the causes of a problem
with the appropriate solutions to that problem.
(B) The argument relies on the testimony of experts
whose expertise is not shown to be sufficiently
broad to support their general claim.
(C) The argument assumes that a correlation
between two phenomena is evidence that one is
the cause of the other.
(D) The argument draws a general conclusion about
a group based on data about an
unrepresentative sample of that group.
(E) The argument infers that a property belonging to
large institutions belongs to all institutions.
18. Modern science is built on the process of posing
hypotheses and testing them against observations—in
essence, attempting to show that the hypotheses are
incorrect. Nothing brings more recognition than
overthrowing conventional wisdom. It is accordingly
unsurprising that some scientists are skeptical of the
widely accepted predictions of global warming. What is
instead remarkable is that with hundreds of researchers
striving to make breakthroughs in climatology, very
few find evidence that global warming is unlikely.
The information above provides the most support for
which one of the following statements?
(A) Most scientists who are reluctant to accept the
global warming hypothesis are not acting in
accordance with the accepted standards of
scientific debate.
(B) Most researchers in climatology have substantial
motive to find evidence that would discredit
the global warming hypothesis.
(C) There is evidence that conclusively shows that
the global warming hypothesis is true.
(D) Scientists who are skeptical about global
warming have not offered any alternative
hypotheses to explain climatological data.
(E) Research in global warming is primarily driven
by a desire for recognition in the scientific
community.
19. Historian: The Land Party achieved its only national
victory in Banestria in 1935. It received most of
its support that year in rural and semirural areas,
where the bulk of Banestria’s population lived at
the time. The economic woes of the years
surrounding that election hit agricultural and
small business interests the hardest, and the Land
Party specifically targeted those groups in 1935. I
conclude that the success of the Land Party that
year was due to the combination of the Land
Party’s specifically addressing the concerns of
these groups and the depth of the economic
problems people in these groups were facing.
Each of the following, if true, strengthens the
historian’s argument EXCEPT:
(A) In preceding elections the Land Party made no
attempt to address the interests of economically
distressed urban groups.
(B) Voters are more likely to vote for a political
party that focuses on their problems.
(C) The Land Party had most of its successes when there
was economic distress in the agricultural sector.
(D) No other major party in Banestria specifically
addressed the issues of people who lived in
semirural areas in 1935.
(E) The greater the degree of economic distress
someone is in, the more likely that person is
to vote.

20. Geetha: Munaf claims that the Aasa Nagar
Neighbors Association overwhelmingly opposes
the new water system, citing this as evidence of
citywide opposition. The association did pass a
resolution opposing the new water system, but
only 25 of 350 members voted, with 10 in favor
of the system. Furthermore, the 15 opposing
votes represent far less than 1 percent of
Aasa Nagar’s population. One should not assume
that so few votes represent the view of the
majority of Aasa Nagar’s residents.
Of the following, which one most accurately describes
Geetha’s strategy of argumentation?
(A) questioning a conclusion based on the results of
a vote, on the grounds that people with certain
views are more likely to vote
(B) questioning a claim supported by statistical data
by arguing that statistical data can be
manipulated to support whatever view the
interpreter wants to support
(C) attempting to refute an argument by showing
that, contrary to what has been claimed, the
truth of the premises does not guarantee the
truth of the conclusion
(D) criticizing a view on the grounds that the view
is based on evidence that is in principle
impossible to disconfirm
(E) attempting to cast doubt on a conclusion by
claiming that the statistical sample on which
the conclusion is based is too small to be
dependable
21. Driver: My friends say I will one day have an accident
because I drive my sports car recklessly. But I
have done some research, and apparently
minivans and larger sedans have very low
accident rates compared to sports cars. So trading
my sports car in for a minivan would lower my
risk of having an accident.
The reasoning in the driver’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that this
argument
(A) infers a cause from a mere correlation
(B) relies on a sample that is too narrow
(C) misinterprets evidence that a result is likely as
evidence that the result is certain
(D) mistakes a condition sufficient for bringing
about a result for a condition necessary for
doing so
(E) relies on a source that is probably not
well-informed
22. Editorialist: News media rarely cover local politics
thoroughly, and local political business is usually
conducted secretively. These factors each tend to
isolate local politicians from their electorates.
This has the effect of reducing the chance that
any particular act of resident participation will
elicit a positive official response, which in turn
discourages resident participation in local politics.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported
by the editorialist’s statements?
(A) Particular acts of resident participation would be
likely to elicit a positive response from local
politicians if those politicians were less isolated
from their electorate.
(B) Local political business should be conducted
less secretively because this would avoid
discouraging resident participation in local
politics.
(C) The most important factor influencing a
resident’s decision as to whether to participate
in local politics is the chance that the
participation will elicit a positive official
response.
(D) More-frequent thorough coverage of local
politics would reduce at least one source of
discouragement from resident participation in
local politics.
(E) If resident participation in local politics were
not discouraged, this would cause local
politicians to be less isolated from their
electorate.
23. Philosopher: An action is morally right if it would be
reasonably expected to increase the aggregate
well-being of the people affected by it. An action
is morally wrong if and only if it would be
reasonably expected to reduce the aggregate wellbeing
of the people affected by it. Thus, actions
that would be reasonably expected to leave
unchanged the aggregate well-being of the people
affected by them are also right.
The philosopher’s conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) Only wrong actions would be reasonably
expected to reduce the aggregate well-being of
the people affected by them.
(B) No action is both right and wrong.
(C) Any action that is not morally wrong is morally
right.
(D) There are actions that would be reasonably
expected to leave unchanged the aggregate
well-being of the people affected by them.
(E) Only right actions have good consequences.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

24. Car companies solicit consumer information on such
human factors as whether a seat is comfortable or
whether a set of controls is easy to use. However,
designer interaction with consumers is superior to
survey data; the data may tell the designer why a
feature on last year’s model was given a low rating,
but data will not explain how that feature needs to be
changed in order to receive a higher rating.
The reasoning above conforms most closely to which
one of the following propositions?
(A) Getting consumer input for design modifications
can contribute to successful product design.
(B) Car companies traditionally conduct extensive
postmarket surveys.
(C) Designers aim to create features that will appeal
to specific market niches.
(D) A car will have unappealing features if
consumers are not consulted during its design
stage.
(E) Consumer input affects external rather than
internal design components of cars.
25. During the nineteenth century, the French academy of
art was a major financial sponsor of painting and
sculpture in France; sponsorship by private individuals
had decreased dramatically by this time. Because the
academy discouraged innovation in the arts, there was
little innovation in nineteenth century French sculpture.
Yet nineteenth century French painting showed a
remarkable degree of innovation.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the difference between the amount of
innovation in French painting and the amount of
innovation in French sculpture during the nineteenth
century?
(A) In France in the nineteenth century, the French
academy gave more of its financial support to
painting than it did to sculpture.
(B) The French academy in the nineteenth century
financially supported a greater number of
sculptors than painters, but individual painters
received more support, on average, than
individual sculptors.
(C) Because stone was so much more expensive
than paint and canvas, far more unsponsored
paintings were produced than were
unsponsored sculptures in France during the
nineteenth century.
(D) Very few of the artists in France in the
nineteenth century who produced sculptures
also produced paintings.
(E) Although the academy was the primary sponsor
of sculpture and painting, the total amount of
financial support that French sculptors and
painters received from sponsors declined
during the nineteenth century.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

SECTION III
Time—35 minutes
25 Questions
Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some
questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that
is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by
commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer,
blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. Situation: Someone living in a cold climate buys a
winter coat that is stylish but not warm in order to
appear sophisticated.
Analysis: People are sometimes willing to sacrifice
sensual comfort or pleasure for the sake of
appearances.
The analysis provided for the situation above is most
appropriate for which one of the following situations?
(A) A person buys an automobile to commute to
work even though public transportation is
quick and reliable.
(B) A parent buys a car seat for a young child
because it is more colorful and more
comfortable for the child than the other car
seats on the market, though no safer.
(C) A couple buys a particular wine even though
their favorite wine is less expensive and better
tasting because they think it will impress their
dinner guests.
(D) A person sets her thermostat at a low
temperature during the winter because she is
concerned about the environmental damage
caused by using fossil fuels to heat her home.
2. After replacing his old gas water heater with a new,
pilotless, gas water heater that is rated as highly
efficient, Jairam’s gas bills increased.
Each of the following, if true, contributes to an
explanation of the increase mentioned above EXCEPT:
(A) The new water heater uses a smaller percentage
of the gas used by Jairam’s household than did
the old one.
(B) Shortly after the new water heater was installed,
Jairam’s uncle came to live with him, doubling
the size of the household.
(C) After having done his laundry at a laundromat,
Jairam bought and started using a gas dryer
when he replaced his water heater.
(D) Jairam’s utility company raised the rates for gas
consumption following installation of the new
water heater.
3. Champa: The artist Marc Quinn has displayed, behind a
glass plate, biologically replicated fragments of
Sir John Sulston’s DNA, calling it a “conceptual
portrait” of Sulston. But to be a portrait, something
must bear a recognizable resemblance to its
subject.
Anil: I disagree. Quinn’s conceptual portrait is a
maximally realistic portrait, for it holds actual
instructions according to which Sulston was
created.
The dialogue provides most support for the claim that
Champa and Anil disagree over whether the object
described by Quinn as a conceptual portrait of Sir John
Sulston
(A) should be considered to be art
(B) should be considered to be Quinn’s work
(C) bears a recognizable resemblance to Sulston
(D) is actually a portrait of Sulston



4. Many corporations have begun decorating their halls
with motivational posters in hopes of boosting their
employees’ motivation to work productively. However,
almost all employees at these corporations are already
motivated to work productively. So these corporations’
use of motivational posters is unlikely to achieve its
intended purpose.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) fails to consider whether corporations that do
not currently use motivational posters would
increase their employees’ motivation to work
productively if they began using the posters
(B) takes for granted that, with respect to their
employees’ motivation to work productively,
corporations that decorate their halls with
motivational posters are representative of
corporations in general
(C) fails to consider that even if motivational
posters do not have one particular beneficial
effect for corporations, they may have similar
effects that are equally beneficial
(D) fails to consider that even if employees are
already motivated to work productively,
motivational posters may increase that
motivation
5. Ahmed: An early entomologist observed ants carrying
particles to neighboring ant colonies and inferred
that the ants were bringing food to their
neighbors. Further research, however, revealed
that the ants were emptying their own colony’s
dumping site. Thus, the early entomologist was
wrong.
Ahmed’s conclusion follows logically if which one of
the following is assumed?
(A) Ant societies do not interact in all the same
ways that human societies interact.
(B) There is only weak evidence for the view that
ants have the capacity to make use of objects
as gifts.
(C) Ant dumping sites do not contain particles that
could be used as food.
(D) The ants to whom the particles were brought
never carried the particles into their own
colonies.
6. Jaya, who owns a car dealership, has donated cars
to driver education programs at area schools for over
five years. She found the statistics on car accidents to be
disturbing, and she wanted to do something to
encourage better driving in young drivers. Some
members of the community have shown their support for
this action by purchasing cars from Jaya’s
dealership.
Which one of the following propositions is best
illustrated by the passage?
(A) The only way to reduce traffic accidents is
through driver education programs.
(B) Altruistic actions sometimes have positive
consequences for those who perform them.
(C) Young drivers are the group most likely to
benefit from driver education programs.
(D) It is usually in one’s best interest to perform
actions that benefit others.

7. Amar: One can live a life of moderation by never
deviating from the middle course. But then one
loses the joy of spontaneity and misses the
opportunities that come to those who are
occasionally willing to take great chances, or to
go too far.
Madhuri: But one who, in the interests of moderation,
never risks going too far is actually failing to live
a life of moderation: one must be moderate even
in one’s moderation.
Amar and Madhuri disagree over
(A) whether it is desirable for people occasionally
to take great chances in life
(B) what a life of moderation requires of a person
(C) whether it is possible for a person to embrace
other virtues along with moderation
(D) how often a person ought to deviate from the
middle course in life

8. Advertisement: Fabric-Soft leaves clothes soft and
fluffy, and its fresh scent is a delight. We
conducted a test using over 100 consumers to
prove Fabric-Soft is best. Each consumer was
given one towel washed with Fabric-Soft and one
towel washed without it. Ninety-nine percent of
the consumers preferred the Fabric-Soft towel. So
Fabric-Soft is the most effective fabric softener
available.
The advertisement’s reasoning is most vulnerable to
criticism on the grounds that it fails to consider whether
(A) any of the consumers tested are allergic to
fabric softeners
(B) Fabric-Soft is more or less harmful to the
environment than other fabric softeners
(C) the consumers tested had the opportunity to
evaluate fabric softeners other than Fabric-Soft
(D) the consumers tested find the benefits of using
fabric softeners worth the expense

9. Naturalist: The recent claims that the Tasmanian tiger is
not extinct are false. The Tasmanian tiger’s
natural habitat was taken over by sheep farming
decades ago, resulting in the animal’s systematic
elimination from the area. Since then naturalists
working in the region have discovered no hard
evidence of its survival, such as carcasses or
tracks. In spite of alleged sightings of the animal,
the Tasmanian tiger no longer exists.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which
the naturalist’s argument depends?
(A) Sheep farming drove the last Tasmanian tigers
to starvation by chasing them from their
natural habitat.
(B) Some scavengers in Tasmania are capable of
destroying tiger carcasses without a trace.
(C) Every naturalist working in the Tasmanian
tiger’s natural habitat has looked systematically
for evidence of the tiger’s survival.
(D) The Tasmanian tiger did not move and adapt to
a different region in response to the loss of
habitat.

10. Advertisers have learned that people are more easily
encouraged to develop positive attitudes about things
toward which they originally have neutral or even
negative attitudes if those things are linked, with
pictorial help rather than exclusively through prose, to
things about which they already have positive attitudes.
Therefore, advertisers are likely to _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) use little if any written prose in their
advertisements
(B) try to encourage people to develop positive
attitudes about products that can be better
represented pictorially than in prose
(C) create advertisements containing pictures of
things most members of the target audience
like
(D) highlight the desirable features of the advertised
product by contrasting them pictorially with
undesirable features of a competing product

11. Feathers recently taken from seabirds stuffed and
preserved in the 1880s have been found to contain only
half as much mercury as feathers recently taken from
living birds of the same species. Since mercury that
accumulates in a seabird’s feathers as the feathers grow
is derived from fish eaten by the bird, these results
indicate that mercury levels in saltwater fish are higher
now than they were 100 years ago.
The argument depends on assuming that
(A) the proportion of a seabird’s diet consisting of
fish was not as high, on average, in the 1880s
as it is today
(B) the amount of mercury in a saltwater fish
depends on the amount of pollution in the
ocean habitat of the fish
(C) mercury derived from fish is essential for the
normal growth of a seabird’s feathers
(D) the process used to preserve birds in the 1880s
did not substantially decrease the amount of
mercury in the birds’ feathers
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

12. Novel X and Novel Y are both semiautobiographical
novels and contain many very similar themes and
situations, which might lead one to suspect plagiarism
on the part of one of the authors. However, it is more
likely that the similarity of themes and situations in the
two novels is merely coincidental, since both authors are
from very similar backgrounds and have led similar
lives.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion drawn in the argument?
(A) Novel X and Novel Y are both
semiautobiographical novels, and the two
novels contain many very similar themes and
situations.
(B) The fact that Novel X and Novel Y are both
semiautobiographical novels and contain many
very similar themes and situations might lead
one to suspect plagiarism on the part of one of
the authors.
(C) The author of Novel X and the author of
Novel Y are from very similar backgrounds
and have led very similar lives.
(D) It is less likely that one of the authors of
Novel X or Novel Y is guilty of plagiarism
than that the similarity of themes and
situations in the two novels is merely
coincidental.

13. Therapist: Cognitive psychotherapy focuses on
changing a patient’s conscious beliefs. Thus,
cognitive psychotherapy is likely to be more
effective at helping patients overcome
psychological problems than are forms of
psychotherapy that focus on changing
unconscious beliefs and desires, since only
conscious beliefs are under the patient’s direct
conscious control.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
strengthen the therapist’s argument?
(A) Psychological problems are frequently caused
by unconscious beliefs that could be changed
with the aid of psychotherapy.
(B) It is difficult for any form of psychotherapy to
be effective without focusing on mental states
that are under the patient’s direct conscious
control.
(C) Cognitive psychotherapy is the only form of
psychotherapy that focuses primarily on
changing the patient’s conscious beliefs.
(D) No form of psychotherapy that focuses on
changing the patient’s unconscious beliefs and
desires can be effective unless it also helps
change beliefs that are under the patient’s
direct conscious control.


For more information on sample question papers I am uploading a PDF file which is free to download:
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf LSAT Sample Papers.pdf (496.3 KB, 35 views)
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