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Old November 15th, 2012, 10:17 AM
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Default MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

Hey guy’s I will give the MDS Entrance exam of AIPPG on next month so tell me How I get free question papers of it ?

We are providing you the AIPPG entrance question paper of MDU :

1. In a disease free tempromandibular joint, posterior end of the articular disc remains at:

1. 0 O' clock position.
2. 10 O' clock position.
3. 12- 12 O' clock position.
4. 2 O' clock position.

2. Which of the following teeth has maximum sensory receptors?

1. Maxillary permanent 1st molar.
2. Mandibular permanent 1st molar.
3. Mandibular permanent canine.
4. Maxillary permanent canine.

3. In a healthy gingival, the distance between gingival margin and free gingival groove is:

1. 0.1-0.5 mm.
2. 0.5-1 mm.
3. 0.5-1.5 mm.
4. 1 mm-2 mm.

4. Which of the following structures in not present on the internal surface of mandible?

1. Genial tubercle.
2. Mylohyoid ridge.
3. Lingula.
4. Mental foramen.

Ans: 4

5. Among all of the following formens in the base of skull which is the most posteriorty present:

1. Foramen spinosum.
2. Foramen rotundum.
3. Foramen Lacerum.
4. Foramen Ovale.

Ans: 1

6. Enamel etched by a tooth conditioner but not covered with a fissure sealant will:

1. Remineralize within a month.
2. Remineralize within 3 months.
3. Absorb stain and discolor the tooth.
4. Leave the tooth more susceptible to caries attack.

7. The strength of dental investment for gold alloy is dependent on the amount of:

1. Silica

2. Carbon
3. Copper
4. Gypsum

Ans: 4

8. In Erythema migrans, which papilla of tongua are absent:

1. Fungiform.
2. Foliate.
3. Filliform.
4. Circumvallate.
Ans: 3

9. Thistle-tube appearance of pulp chamber is a feature of:

1. Coronal dentin dysplasia.
2. Regional odontodysplasia.
3. Dentigenesis imperfecta.
4. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
Ans: 1

10. On clinical examination a 60 years old feamale had a turnor in the right Buccalmucosa. The size of the tumor was about 1 cm in diameter.There was no involvement of regional lymph nodes and also has no distant metastasis. The TNM stag of the tumor is:

1. T1 No Mo.
2. T1 N1 Mo.
3. T1 N2 Mo.
4. T2 No Mo.

Ans: 4

11. Which of the following is not a feature of torus mandibularies?

1. Common in Mongoloids.
2. Present on the lingual surface of mandible below the Mylohyoid line.
3. Usually Bilateral.
4. May of may not associatd with torus palatinus.
Ans: 2

12. The time gap between appearance of Koplik's spot and cutaneous rash in measles is:

1. 24 Hrs.
2. 3-4 days.
3. 2 weeks.
4. 10 Days.
Ans: 2

13. The drug that causes intrinsic staining of teeth due to calcium

chelation is:

1. Alizarin
2. Ampicillin.
3. Tetracycline.
4. Erythromycin.

Ans: 3

14. Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of

pricary herpetic gingivostomatitis?

1. Acyclovir.
2. Ziduvidine.
3. Kenalog in orabase.
4. All of the above.
Ans: 1

15. The occurrence of dental caries in a population at a given point of time may be termed as:

1. Incidence.
2. Point Prevalence.
3. Period Prevalence.
4. None of the above.
Ans: 1

16. The CPITN probe has a ball end of which diameter & marking at what level:

1. 0.5 mm diameter ball and marking at 3,5,8 and 11 mm.
2. 1.0 mm diameter ball and marking at 3.5, 5.5, 8.5 and 11 mm.
3. 0.5 mm diameter ball and marking at 3.5, 5.5, 8.5 and 11 mm
4. 1.0 mm diameter ball and marking at 3,5,8 and 11 mm.
Ans: 3

17. The WHo index for fluorisis is based on:

1. Dean's index
2. Mckay's index
3. Community Fluorosis index
4. Public Health fluorosis index

18. While planning for a clinical trial for finding out the effect of a particular mouthwash on human subjects, which kind of study design will be able to give best results:

1. Randomized controlled trial with double blind planning.
2. Clinical trial with single blind plan and crossover
3. Randomized controlled trial with no blinding and cross-over.
4. Randomized controlled trial with double blind plan and cross-over.

19. DMFT index is a:

1. Simple reversible index.
2. Cumulative irreversible index
3. Cumulative reversible index
4. Simple irreversible index
Ans: 2

20. Recommended average daily intake of fluoride from all sources

combined for adults and children is:

1. 2.o to 2.2 mg & 1.2 mg.
2. 1.2 to 2.0 mg & 1.2 mg.
3. 2.2 to 2.4 mg & 1.5 mg.
4. 2.6 to 2.8 mg & 1.4 mg.

21. Mineral trioxide aggregate used in apexification:

1. Forms an integral part of the root canal filling
2. Dissolves as the apical barrier formation progresses
3. Has not yielded good results
4. Is availabel in a paste from

22. Which of the following is the most recommended endodontic obturating material for deciduous teeth?

1. Kri paste.
2. ZOE
3. Ca(OH)2 paste
4. Maisto's paste

Ans: 2

23. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?

1. Neurosurgery.
2. Day care surgery.
3. Patients with coronary artery disease.
4. In neonates.

And: 2

24. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children?

1. Enflurane.
2. Isoflurane.
3. Sevoflurane.
4. Desflurane.
Ans: 3

25. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted except:

1. Caroted sinus massage
2. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV
3. Direct current cardioversion
4. Verapamil 5 mg IV
Ans: 4

26. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reducion of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfuncion could be all of the following except:

1. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
2. A tight cast or dressing
3. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
4. Tourniquet pressure

27. The first costochondral joint is a:

1. Fibrous joint
2. Synovial joint
3. Syndesmosis
4. Syncendrosis

28. Which of the following is the feature of Y chromosome?

1. Acrocentric
2. Telocentric
3. Submetacentric
4. Metacentric

29. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

1. AUG codon
2. UAA codon
3. UAG codon
4. UGA codon

Ans: 1

30. Which of the following is a membranebound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP?

1. Tyrosine kinase
2. Polymerase
3. ATP synthase
4. Adenlylate cyclase.

Ans: 4

31. A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other protiens in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration,is known as:

1. Cycline
2. Calmodulin
3. Collagen
4. Kinesin

32. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as:

1. DNA polymerase.
2. RNA polymerase
3. Reverse transcriptase.
4. Phosphokinase.

Ans: 3

33. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as:

1. Intron
2. Exon
3. Plasmid
4. TATA box
Ans: 1

34. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except:

1. It is devoid of perichondrium
2. It has a rich nerve supply
3. It is avascular
4. It lacks the capacity to regenerate

35. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except:

1. Lymph nodes
2. Spleen
3. Thymus
4. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes

Ans: 3

36. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to

all of the following features except:

1. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung.

2. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus.

3. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung.

4. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal


37. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow

obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his


1. Chylomicrons


3. LDL

4. HDL

Ans: 3

38. The transmembrane of a protein is likely ot have:

1. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.

2. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.

3. A disulphide loop

4. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids.

39. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except:

1. Mass spectroscopy

2. RIA


4. Sequencing of nucleic acid.

40. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of

Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum?

1.Inositol triphosphate

2. Parathyroid hormone

3. 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol.

4. Diacyl glycerol

41. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's

ability to handle oxidative stress?

1. Calcium

2. Iron

3. Potassium

4. Selenium

42. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of

other protenis?

1. Proteases

2. Proteosomes

3. Templates

4. Chaperones

Ans: 4

43. A highly ionized drug:

1. Is excereted mainly by the kidneys

2. Crosses the placental barrir easily

3. Is well absorbed from the intestine

4. Is highly protein bound

44. All of the following are used a proxy measures for incubation

period except:

1. Latent period

2. Period of communicability

3. Serial interval

4. Generation time

45. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that:

1. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age

followed by supplementation with additional foods.

2. Exclusive breast-feeding shoudl be continued till 4 months of age

followed by supplementation with additional foods.

3. Colostrum is the most suibable food for a new born baby but it is

best avoided in first 2 days.

4. The baby should be allowed to reast feed till one year of age.

46. The following statements about breast milk are true except:

1. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months.

2. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milks is 70%

3. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow's milk.

4. It provides about 65 K cals per 100 ml.

47. Multi purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the

recommendation of:

1. Srivastava Committee

2. Bhore Committee

3. Kartar Singh Committee

4. Mudaliar Committee

48. The usefulness of a 'screening test' in a community depends on its:

1. Sensitivity

2. Specificity

3. Reliability

4. Predictive value

Ans: 1

49. If the grading of malocclusion is classified as "mild", "moderate"

and "severe" the scale of measurement used is:

1. Interval

2. Nominal

3. Ordinal

4. Ratio

Ans: 3

50. If prevalence of dental carries is 10% the probability that three

people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:

1. 0.01

2. 0.03

3. 0.001

4. 0.003

51. A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their "Gutka" consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of:

1. Cross-sectional study

2. Retrospective cohort study

3. Concurrent cohort study

4. Case-control study

52. Hair and nails are usually preserved in poisoning from:

1. Arsenic
2. Phosphorous
3. Barbiturates
4. Carbon monoxide
Ans: 1

53. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism hollowing administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as:
1. Jod-Basedow effect
2. Wolff-Chaikoff effect
3. Thyrotoxicosis factitia
4. de Quervain's thyroiditis

54. A 39 year-old female presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:

1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. Corynebacterium sp.
3. Enterococcus sp.
4. Erysipelothirx rhusiopathiae.

55.In all the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism excepts.

1. Vibrio cholerae.
2. Shigella sp.
3. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
4. Stphylococcus aureus.

56. All of the following clinical features are associated wih Enteroviruses except.

1. Myocarditis.
2. Pleurodynia.
3. herpangina.
4. Hemorrhagic fever.

57. A post-operative patient developed septicemia and was emperical started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antidiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antiviotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

1. Vancomycin and Amikacin.
2. Cephelexin and Gentamicin.
3. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol.
4. Ciprofloxaccin and Piperacillin.

58. In some old feactures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the fractured bone enes with a catity in between containing clear fluid. This condition is called as :

1. Delayed union.
2. Slow union.
3. Nun union.
4- Pseudarthrosis.

59. A police reruit,somoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at posterior medialaspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Burger's disease.
2. Gout.
3. Lumbar canal stenosis.
4. Stress fracture.

60. In which of the following locations therer is collecrion of pus in the quinsy?

1. Peritonsillar space.
2. Parapharyngeal space.
3. Retropharyngeal space.
4. Within the tonsil.

Ans: 1

61. Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise from:

1. Mucous glands.
2. Sebaceous glands.
3. Taste buds.
4. Minor salivary glands.
Ans: 2

62. Which of the following statements best represents Bell's paralysis?

1. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis.
2. Combined paralysis of the facial, Trigeminal, and abducens nerves.
3. Idopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve.
4. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye.
Ans: 3

63. Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except:

1. Chronic renal failure.
2. Hypothyroidism.
3. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
4. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Ans: 1

64. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all


1. Osteopetrosis.
2. Adrenoleukodystrophy.
3. Hurler's syndrome.
4. Hemochromatosis.

Ans: 3

65. HBAIc level in blood explains:

1. Acute rise of sugar.
2. Long term status of blood sugar.
3. Hepatorenal syndrome.
4. Chronic pancreatitis.

66. To which of the following family of chemical mediators of

inflammation. the Lipoxins belong?

1. Kinin system.
2. Cytokines.
3. Chemokines.
4. Arachidonic acid metabolities.

67- The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is:

1. Laminin.
2. Fibronectin.
3. Collagen type 4.
4. Heparan sulphate.
Ans: 1

68. Which of the following is a procoagulation protein?

1. Thrombomodulin.
2. Protein C.
3. Protein S.
4. Thrombin.

69. Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?

1. C-myc.
2. P53.
3. bcl-2
4. bax.
Ans: 3

70. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is:
1. Tongue.
2. Floor of mouth.
3. Alveobuccal complex.
4. Lip.
Ans: 4

71. Persistent vomiting most likely causes:

1. Hyperkalaemia.
2. Acidic urine excetion.
3. Hypochloraemia.
4. Hyperventilation.

72. Ram Kumar, a 70 year old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years presents with a six months history of a large, fungating,\ soft papaillary lesions in the oral cavity.The lision has penetrated into the mandible. Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign appearing papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the subjacent tissues. the most likely diagnosis is:

1. Squamous cell papilloma.
2. Spuamous cell carcinoma.
3. Verrucous carcinoma.
4. Malignant mixed tumour.

Ans.: 1

73. All of the following anticancer agents cause bone marow depression


1. Chlorambucil

2. Caunorubicin.

3. Doxorubicin.

4. Flutamide.

74. Clinically significant drug interaction occures between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except:
1. Isoniazid.
2. Cyclosporine.
3. Levodopa.
4. Hydralazine.

75. In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drugs ethical clearance is not required?

1. PhaseI.
2. PhaseII.
3. PhaseIII.
4. PhaseIV.

76. Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

1. Zaicitabine.
2. Lamivudine.
3. Nevirapine.
4. Didanosine.

77. Which of the following antimicrobials has antipseudomonal action:

1. Cefpodoxime proxetil.
2. Ceforanide.
3. Cefotan.
4. Cefoperazone.
Ans: 4

78. Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:

1. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from gastro intestinal tract.
2. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration.
3. Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus.
4. Sulfonamides are of valus in treatment of infecrions due to Nocardia spcies.

79. Epoxy resin is not compatible with:

1. Polysulfide.
2. Polyether.
3. Addition silicone.
4. Condensation silicone.

80. Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of <50 mg/min.?

1. Ciprofloxacin.
2. Trovafloxacin.
3. Lomefloxacin.
4. Sparfloxacin.

81. Which of the following actions is ascribed to delta type of opioid


1. Supraspinal analgesis.
2. Respiratory depression.
3. Euphoria.
4. Reduced intestinal motility.

82. Which cement base has the highest elastic modulous:

1. Zinc phosphate.
2. Polymer-reinforced ZOE.
3. Zinc Polycarboxyate.
4. Glass-ionomer cement.

83. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:

1. Glycine.
2. Acetylcholine.
3. Aspartate.
4. Glutamate.

Ans: 2

84. The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because:

1. Vitamin Kantagonists are present in plasma.
2. Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen.
3. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions.
4. Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx.

Ans: 4

85. The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except:

1. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units.
2. Increasing the number of motor units acrivated.
3. Increasing the amplitude fo acrion potentials in the motor neurons.
4. Recruiting larger motor units.

Ans: 3

86. A 37 year old multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:

1. Iron deficiency.
2. Folic deficiency.
3. Malutrition.
4. Combined iron and folic acid deficiency.

87. Maximum permissible steeing expansionof high strength stone is:

1. 0.1%
2. 0.05%
3. 0.3%
4. 0.2%

88. The Non=REM (NREM) sleep is commonly associated with:

1. Frequent dreaming.
2. Frequent penile erections.
3. Increased blood pressure.
4. Night terrors.

89. Coefficient of thermal expansion curreltly available porcelain is:

1. 6x10-6/0C.
2. 8x10-6/0C.
3. 10x10-6/0C.
4. 14x10-6/0C.

90. Which of the following brain tumors does not spread via CSF?

1. Germ cell tumours.
2. Medulloblastoma.
3. CNS Lymphoma.
4. Craniopharyngoma.

91. Which of the following is the most penetration beam?

1. Blectron beam.
2. 8 MV photons.
3. 18 MV photons.
4. Proton beam.

92. Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels?

1. Ethanol.
2. Alphaxolone.
3. Zolpidem.
4. Buspirone.

93. Jai Pratap, a 20-year-old male presented with chronic constipation. headache and palpitations. On examination he had marfanoid habitus neuromas of tongue, medullated corneal nerve fibers and a nodule of 2x2 cm size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is a case of:

1. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
2. Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
3. Men IIa.
4. Men IIb.

94. The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is:

1. Retinopathy of prematurity.
2.Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy.
3. Retinitis pigmentosa.
4. Retinal detachment.

95. The movement at the following joing permits a person to look towards right or left:

1. Atlanto-occipital joint.
2. Atlanto-axiat joint.
3. C2-C4 joint.
4. C3-C4 joint.


96. Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing catgut suture?

1. Isopropyl alcohol.
2. Colloidal iodine.
3. Glutaraldehyde.
4. Hydrogenperoxide.

Ans. 1

97 Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatraemia?

1. Gastric fistula.
2. Excessive vomitting.
3. Excessive Sweating.
4. Prolonged Ryle's tube aspiration.

98. Which of the following is the earliest manifesttion of Cushing's syndrome?

1. Loss of Diurnal variation.
2. Increased ACTH.
3. Increased plasma Contisol.
4. Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol.

99. Thoracic extensionof cervical goiter is usually approached through.

1. Neck.
2. Chest.
3. Combined cervico-thoracic route.
4. Thoracoscopic.

100. The most common malignant tumor of adult males in India is:

1. Oropharyngeal carcinoma.
2. Gastric carcinoma.
3. Colo-rectal carcinoma.
4. Lung cancer.

Ans. 1

For more questions we are attaching a word file with it so you can get it easily.

The previous year question paper for NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Examination) Master of Dental Surgery (MDS) as I need it for preparation of the exam is as follows:

Subject wise weightage in NEET MDS (in numbers)

Subject Subject Wise Weightage in NEET- MDS
(In Numbers)

General Anatomy including embryology and histology 14

General human physiology and Biochemistry 14

Dental Anatomy, Embryology & Oral Histology 14

General Pathology and Microbiology 14

General and Dental Pharmacology and Therapeutics 14

Dental Materials 14

General Medicine 14

General Surgery 14

Oral Pathology and Oral Microbiology 15

Oral Medicine and Radiology 15

Pedodontics and Preventive Dentistry 14

Orthodontics & Dentofacial Orthopedics 14

Periodontology 14

Prosthodontics and Crown & Bridge 14

Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics 14

Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 14

Public Health Dentistry 14

Grand Total 240
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: doc MDU AIPPG entrance exam question paper.doc (166.0 KB, 1774 views)

Last edited by Aakashd; December 6th, 2019 at 12:01 PM.
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Old May 14th, 2013, 08:29 PM
Smile Re: MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

[QUOTE=Kesari;127091]We are providing you the AIPPG entrance question paper of MDU :

In a disease free tempromandibular joint, posterior end of the articular disc remains at:
1. 0 O' clock position.
2. 10 O' clock position.
3. 12- 12 O' clock position.
4. 2 O' clock position.

answer to this questn :- in physiologic position in disease free TMJ the posterior band lies 10 degree to 12'o clock position.
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Old February 17th, 2014, 04:06 PM
Default Re: MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

Please provide All India Institute of Medical Sciences MDS PG entrance exam question paper?
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Old July 2nd, 2014, 02:33 PM
nitu kumari..
Default Re: MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

Sir I need aipg mds emtrance exam paper 2014..plz
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Old January 20th, 2015, 07:41 PM
Junior Member
Join Date: Jan 2015
Default MDs

pls publish kerala MDS question 2015 wit key
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Old March 5th, 2015, 12:46 AM
Default Re: MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

I also searching 2014 aipg mds entrance exam paper.If anyone will find it, please share the link.
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Old May 9th, 2015, 11:50 PM
Oakley Pro M Frame
Default Re: MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

I envy your piece of work, regards for all the informative articles . I like this one here
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Old August 26th, 2019, 02:21 PM
Default Re: MDS Entrance Question Papers Free

Can you provide me the previous year question paper for NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Examination) Master of Dental Surgery (MDS) as I need it for preparation of the exam?
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