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Old October 20th, 2011, 01:21 AM
Bushra Aiman
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Default AFMC Preliminary

What are the topics to be covered in AFMC Preliminary 2012 exams? Is there any separate book for AFMC Preliminary exam?
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Old February 21st, 2012, 06:02 PM
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Default Re: AFMC Preliminary 2012

For preparation of AFMC preliminary exam there is various book. You can discuss your topic through these books. Some books are:

Mtg General Knowledge for Competitive Exams

Mtg English for Competitive Examinations

Prakash Objective Zoology A Standard Book For PMT, CPMT, CBSE, BHU, AMU, AIIMS, AFMC, JEE (Orissa), BCECE, CEE, CET.
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Old March 2nd, 2014, 05:34 PM
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Default Re: AFMC Preliminary

Armed Forces Medical College is a well known medical colleges situated in PUne India .. it is offer admission in MBBS course through AIPMT examination organizes by CBSE .

Here I am giving you question paper for AIPMT examination in PDF file attached with it .
Q. 1. The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are
1. Axillary buds
2. Root buds
3. Flower buds
4. Shoot buds
Axillary buds developing at nodes/notch/eyes.
Answer: (1)
Q. 2. Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a
1. Hot spring
2. Sulphur rock
3. Cattle yard
4. Polluted stream
Methanogens are archaebacteria abundant in cattle yard, and paddy fields.
Answer: (3)
Q. 3. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
1. Angiosperms
2. Fungi
3. Insects
4. Birds
The largest phylum in animal kingdom is arthropoda, and the largest class is insecta with
7,50,000 species.
Answer: (3)
Q. 4. Archegoniophore is present in
1. Funaria
2. Marchantia
3. Chara
4. Adiantum
Stalk bearing archegonial cluster at tip in Marchantia thallus
Answer: (2)
Q. 5. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular
plants tend to be
1. Smaller and to have smaller sex organs
2. Smaller but to have larger sex organs
3. Larger but to have smaller sex organs
4. Larger and to haver larger sex organs
Gametophytes are reduced and few celled in all vascular plants.
Answer: (1)
Q. 6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
1. Pinus
2. Polytrichum
3. Adiantum
4. Marchantia
In gymnosperms and angiosperms gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte.
Answer: (1)
Q. 7. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is
1. Lysosome
2. Vacuole
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Plastid
Golgi complex performs glycosyl transferase activity for addition of glycans on lipids
and proteins.
Answer: (3)
Q. 8.Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
1. Ribosomes
2. Chloroplast
3. Mitochondria
4. Chromoplast
Ribosomes are site of peptide bond formation.
Answer: (1)
Q. 9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
1. Cell wall
2. Plasma membrane
3. Nucleus
4. Ribosomes
Lipoprotein cell membrane is found in both but ribosomes are of different kinds.
Answer: (2)
Q. 10. Mutations can be induced with
1. Gamma radiations
2. Infra Red radiations
3. I A A
4. Ethylene
Mutation can be induced with high energy radiations like UV rays, gamma rays, which
cause change in the structure of DNA.
Answer: (1) Q. 11. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the
genes of a crop is called
1. Genome
2. Herbarium
3. Germplasm
4. Gene library
Germplasm can be selected as seed or plantlets for their superior traits.
Answer: (3)
Q. 12. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
1. 23 sr RNA
2. 5 sr RNA
3. sn RNA
4. hn RNA
23 S rRNA is catalytic RNA.
Answer: (1)
Q. 13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
2. In tomato, fruit is a capsule
3. Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperms
4. Placentation in primose is basal
Tomato — Berry, Orchid seed — no endosperm formation, Primrose — Free central
Answer: (1)
Q. 14. The correct floral formula of chilli is
Chilli belongs to Solanaceae.
Answer: (3)
Q. 15. Nitrifying bacteria
1. Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
2. Oxidize ammonia to nitrates
3. Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
4. Convert proteins into ammonia
Step (1) — Nitrification by Nitrosomonas
Step (2) — Nitratification by Nitrocystis
Answer: (2)
Q. 16. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
1. Expression of nif gene
2. Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
3. Oxygen removal
4. Nodule differentiation
LHB is O2 scavanger.
Answer: (3)
Q. 17. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?
1. Sulphur
2. Phosphorus
3. Calcium
4. Potassium
Calcium is not remobilised, as it is a structural component in cell.
Answer: (3)
Q. 18. A drupe develops in
1. Tomato
2. Mango
3. Wheat
4. Pea
Tomato — Berry, Wheat — Caryopsis, Pea — Legume
Answer: (2)
Q. 19. Ground tissue includes
1. All tissues internal to endodermis
2. All tissues external to endodermis
3. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
4. Epidermis and cortex
Ground tissue system includes — cortex, endoderm, pericycle and pith.
Answer: (3)
Q. 20 . In land plants the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having
1. Chloroplasts
2. Cytoskeleton
3. Mitochondria
4. Endoplasmic reticulum
Guard cells are specialised chlorophyllous epidermal cells.
Answer: (1)
Q. 21. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of
1. Guava
2. Peach
3. Cucumber
4. Cotton
Ovary is half inferior in perigynous flowers.
Answer: (2)
Q. 22. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called
1. Phellem
2. Phelloderm
3. Phellogen
4. Periderm
Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called periderm.
Answer: (4)
Q. 23. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1. Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
2. Root pressure – Guttation
3. Puccinia – Smut
4. Root – Exarch protoxylem
Puccinia — rust fungi.
Answer: (3)
Q 24. Flowers are Zygomorphic in
1. Datura
2. Mustard
3. Gulmohur
4. Tomato
Datura, mustard and tomato have actinomorphic flowers.
Answer: (3)
Q. 25. CAM helps the plants in
1. Reproduction
2. Conserving water
3. Secondary growth
4. Disease resistance
These are succulent plants with water storing cells.
Answer: (2)
Q. 26. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
1. More than 80%
2. About 70%
3. About 60%
4. Less than 50%
Plants capture 2-10% of PAR.
Answer: (4)
Q. 27. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in
1. Pisum
2. Alnus
3. Cycas
4. Cicer
Anabaena cycadae is a BGA found in coralloid roots of Cycas
Answer: (3)
Q. 28. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
1. Brassica
2. Citrus
3. Gossypium
4. Triticum
Nucellus polyembryony is common in Citrus,mango and Opuntia.
Answer: (2)
Q. 29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
1. Zygote
2. Suspensor
3. Egg
4. Synergid
These are fingure like projections at micropylar end of synergids.
Answer: (4)
Q .30. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with
42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?
1. 21
2. 42
3. 63
4. 84
Aleurone is triploid and root tip is diploid.
Answer: (3)
Q .31. Wind pollination is common in
1. Orchids
2. Legumes
3. Lilies
4. Grasses
Wind pollination is common in grasses and gymnosperms.
Answer: (4)
Q .32. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
1. Cleistogamy
2. Geitonogamy
3. Xenogamy
4. Chasmogamy
Self pollination is favoured by cleistogamy.
Answer: (1)
Q .33. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
1. Standing state
2. Standing crop
3. Detritus
4. Humus
Standing state represent all non-living matter in an area at a given time.
Answer: (2)
Q .34. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy?
1. It took place in the night of December 2/3/1984
2. Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
3. Thousands of human beings died
4. Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
It was not a tragedy related to radioactivity
Answer: (4)
Q. 35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
1. Biological process
2. Physical process
3. Mechanical process
4. Chemical process
Secondary sewage treatment involves aerobic and anaerobic microbes.
Answer: (1)
Q. 36. Eutrophication is often seen in
1. Mountains
2. Deserts
3. Fresh water lakes
4. Ocean
It is process of enrichment of lakes by phosphates, nitrates etc.
Answer: (3)
Q. 37. Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in
1. Alpine forests
2. Temperate forests
3. Mangroves
4. Tropical rainforests
Lianas and epiphytes are more common in tropical rain forest.
Answer: (4)
Q. 38. Which one of the following expanded forms of the followings acronyms is
1. IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
2. IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
3. UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
4. EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
IPCC — Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change
Answer: (1)
Q. 39. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
1. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace
2. It begins on a bare rock
3. It occurs on a deforested site
4. It follows primary succession
Secondary biotic succession occurs in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests and
lands that have been flooded.
Answer: (3)
Q. 40. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
1. Mango
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Maize
Rice has more than 50,000 genetically different strains, while mango has 1000 varieties
in India.
Answer: (3)
Q. 41. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
1. Mycorrhiza
2. Agrobacterium
3. Rhizobium
4. Nostoc
Agrobacteriumis a gene transfer agent.
Answer: (2)
Q. 42. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of
microorganisms in human body?
1. Skin
2. Epithelium of Urogenial tract
3. Tears
4. Monocytes
Physiological barriers to the entry of micro-organisms in human body are tears in eyes,
saliva in mouth and HCl in stomach.
Answer: (3)
Q. 43. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
1. Anabaena
2. Glomus
3. Rhizobium
4. Frankia
Glomus is a endomycorrhiza for phosphorus absorption.
Answer: (2)
Q. 44. 'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against
rust pathogens is a variety of
1. Wheat
2. Chilli
3. Maize
4. Sugarcane
This variety is resistant against leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt.
Answer: (1)
Q. 45. Which of the followings is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria
on sewage?
1. Marsh gas
2. Laughing gas
3. Propane
4. Mustard gas
It is by the activity of methanogens.
Answer: (1)
Q. 46. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in
1. Gel electrophoresis
2. Spectrophotometry
3. Tissue culture
4. PCR
Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in gel electrophoresis.
Answer: (1)
Q. 47. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of
1. Pig
2. Fish
3. Mice
4. Cow
95% of the existing transgenic animals are mice.
Answer: (3)
Q. 48. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to
1. Degrade sewage
2. Produce methane
3. Obtain antibiotics
4. Purify enzymes
Continuous addition of sugar in fed 'batch' fermentation is done to purify enzymes.
Answer: (4)
Q. 49. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants
resistant to
1. Insects
2. Nematodes
3. Fungi
4. Viruses
RNAi i.e., RNA interference is used in the development of plants resistant to nematode
like Meloidegyne incognita.
Answer: (2)
Q. 50. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of
1. Bajra
2. Maize
3. Rice
4. Wheat
Jaya and Ratna are released throughout the rice growing belts of India.
Answer: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells
1. Amoeba proteus
2. Paramecium caudatum
3. Paramecium caudatum
4. Euglena viridis
E. coli is a prokaryotic bacterium.
Answer: (3)
Q. 52. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular
named taxonomic category?
1. Housefly - Musca, an order
2. Tiger - Tigris, the species
3. Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
4. Humans - Primata, the family
The zoological name of tiger is Panthera tigris in which Panthera is genus and tigris is
Answer: (2)
Q. 53. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its
class/phylum are correctly matched?
Genus name Two characters Class/ Phylum
(1) Aurelia (a) cnidoblasts
(b) Organ level of organization
(2) Ascaris (a) Body segmented
(b) Males and females distinct
(3) Salamandra (a) A tympanum represents ear
(b) Fertilization is external
(4) Pteropus (a) Skin possesses hair
(b) Oviparous
Salamandra is a tailed amphibian, has tymphanum which represents ear.
Answer: (3)
Q. 54. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one
characteristic feature without even a single exception?
1. Mammalia: give birth to young ones
2. Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
3. Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
All chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception
Answer: (4)
Q. 55. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
1. Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
2. Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end
3. Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
4. Female cockroach - Anal cerci
In class chondrichthyes males possess claspers on the pelvic fins.
Answer: (1)
Q. 56. The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions
(pH, temperature and substrate concentration)
What do the two axises(x and y) represent?
x-axis y-axis
1. Enzymatic activity Temeperature
2. Enzymatic activity pH
3. Temperature Enzyme Activity
4. Substrate concentration Enzymatic Activity
X-axis represent temperature and Y-axis represent enzyme activity. All enzymes act at an
optimum temperature, above and below this temperature the enzyme activity declines.
Answer: (3)
Q. 57. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in
1. Fallopian tubes and urethra
2. Eustachian tube and stomach lining
3. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
4. Bile duct and oesophagus
Ciliated columnar epithelium lines bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Answer: (3)
Q. 58. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis
1. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get alingned along equatorial plate
in metaphase
2. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
3. Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
4. Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
Chromatids show poleward movement in anaphase; golgi and ER disappears in late
Answer: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related function?
1. A: Lecithin - a component of cell membrane
2. B: Adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
3. A: Triglyceride - major source of energy
4. B: Uracil - a component of DNA
A is the formula of Lecithin. Lecithin is a phospholipid and is the component of the cell
membranes. B is the formula of adenine which is a nitrogenous base not a nucleotide.
Answer: (1)
Q. 60. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo
sapiens) from his ancestors?
1. Increasing brain capacity
2. Upright posture
3. Shortening of jaws
4. Binocular vision
The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from the
ancestors is increasing brain capacity.
Answer: (1)
Q. 61. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of
determining the sex in the given example?
1. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce make in Drosophila
2. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds
3. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
4. XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex
X/A ratio determines sex in Drosophila ; is heterogametic (ZW) in birds. In 'XO type'
the 'O' determines maleness.
Answer: (3)
Q. 62. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much
blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has
a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What
would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
1. Type A
2. Type B
3. Type AB
4. Type O
The person with blood group O is said to universal donor, because in this, there are no
antigens on the surface of RBC.
Answer: (4)
Q. 63. What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes
when viewed under electron microscope?
1. Base pairs
2. Genes
3. Nucleotides
4. Nucleosomes
Nucleosome consist of octameric histone core wrapped by dsDNA
Answer: (4)
Q. 64.
Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function
Source gland Hormone Function
Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth
Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates resorption of water in the distal
tubules in the nephron
Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
Vasopressin (ADH) is synthesised in hypothalamus but released into the blood
from posterior lobe of pituitary,so it is called as a hormone of posterior lobe. It
stimulates reabsorption of water in distal tubules in the nephron.
Answer: (3)
Q. 65. Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common
1. The food is ground by mandibles an gizzard
2. Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon
3. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin blood
4. Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
In cockroach the food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard. In insects there is no
oxygen transporting pigment and nitrogenous excretory product is uric acid.
Answer: (1)
Q. 66. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused the human blood even after its
uptake by the body tissues. This O2
5. Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues
6. Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
7. Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
8. Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Our tissues are able to utilise only 25% of O2 carried by arterial blood. Our
venous blood is still 75% saturated with O2. This O2 acts as a reserve during
muscular exercise.
Answer: (2)
Q. 67. Which one of the following enzymes carries on the initial step in the digestion of
milk in humans?
1. Trypsin
2. Pepsin
3. Rennin
4. Lipase
In humans milk protein digesting enzyme in stomach is pepsin. In calves it is rennin.
Rennin is also present in small amounts in human infants but not adults. Pepsin acts on
water soluble caseinogen (milk protein) to form solubles 'casein'. This combines with
calcium salts to form insoluble calcium paracaseinate, which gets readily digested
Answer: (2)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?
1. Loops of Henle
2. Peritubular capillaries
3. Convoluted tubules
4. Collecting ducts
In Bowman's capsule PCT and DCT are in renal cortex, whereas, loops of Henle are in
medullary pyramids.
Answer: (3)
Q. 69. One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that
1. It has a long dorsal tubular heart
2. Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
3. The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food
in the intestine
4. The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used
against the enemies
In earthworm, mid dorsal villi typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area
of the digested food in the intestine
Answer: (3)
Q. 70. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper
movement of
1. Tongue
2. Epiglottis
3. Diaphragm
4. Neck
If a person suddenly starts coughing while swallowing food, it is due to improper
movement of epiglottis. If the glottis is not properly closed some food can enter
respiratory tract.
Answer: (2)
Q. 71. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
1. Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
2. Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
3. Carry blood away from the heart to different organs
4. Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
Arteries are best defined as vessels which carry blood away from the heart to different
Answer: (3)
Q. 72. 'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
1. Pancreas
2. Brain
3. Heart
4. Kidney
'Bundle of His' is a part of conducting system of human heart.
Answer: (3)
Q. 73. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor
cells of the human eye, is a derivative of
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D
Vitamin A is the precursor of the purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods
(photoreceptor) cells of human eye.
Answer: (1)
Q. 74. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of
1. Fibrinogen
2. An albumin
3. Serum amylase
4. A globulin
Fibrinogen is a plasma protein involved in clotting of blood.
Answer: (1)
Q. 75. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal
membrane is
1. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
2. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
3. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
4. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane
is comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
Answer: (1)
Q. 76. Which one of following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a
human nephron?
1. Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal
2. Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the
Bowman's capsule
3. Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular
4. Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood
Podocytes are specialised squamous epithelial cells in the inner wall of Bowman's
capsule. They give rise to foot like processes which form filtration slits for the filtration
of blood into the Bowman's capsule.
Answer: (2)
Q. 77. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands
and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the
three blanks A, B and C
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans B Raises blood sugar level
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism
1. Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
2. Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
3. Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
4. Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
A. Ovary secretes oestrogen for maintenance of secondary sexual characters.
B. Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon which raises blood sugar level.
C. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes growth hormone. Its over secretion leads to
Answer: (2)
Q. 78. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes in found in
1. Insects and Amphibians
2. Reptiles and Birds
3. Birds and Annelids
4. Amphibians and Reptiles
Reptiles and birds are uricotelic.
Answer: (2)
Q. 79. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of
gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D
is correctly identified along with its function?
1. B: Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly
2. C: Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues
3. A: alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases
4. D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
A is the alveolar cavity which is the main site of exchange of respiratory gases.
Answer: (3)
Q. 80. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood
1. 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
2. 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
3. 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
4. 105/50 mmHg makes one very active
Hypertension occurs if the blood pressure is 190/110. This can harm the vital organs like
brain and kidneys.
Answer: (1)
Q. 81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function
1. During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH
is suppressed
2. When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
3. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release
4. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II
When someone drinks lot of water which is not required by his body, the osmolarity of
the blood will decrease. The decrease in osmolarity will inhibit the release of ADH. ADH
not released DCT becomes less permeable to water, and excess of water is eliminated.
Answer: (2)
Q. 82. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female
reproductive system of humans.Which one set of three parts out of I – VI have been
correctly identified?
1. Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube
2. (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae
3. (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
4. (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix
III is infundibulum
IV is fimbriae
V is cervix
Answer: (3)
Q. 83. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch
called scrotum. The purpose served is for
1. Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
2. Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
3. Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
4. Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
The tests in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity in scrotal sacs. This is
because the temperature of scrotal sacs is 2.5°C lesser than internal body temperature.
Answer: (2)
Q. 84. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception
in India, as at present?
1. IUDs' (Intra uterine devices)
2. Cervical caps
3. Tubectomy
4. Diaphragms
The most widely accepted method of contraception in India is IUDs.
Answer: (1)
Q. 85. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get
blocked, the gametes will not be transported from
1. Vagina to uterus
2. Testes to epididymis
3. Epididymis to vas deferens
4. Ovary to uterus
The path of transport of gametes is Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia
→ epididymis. So, if vasa efferentia are blocked the gametes from testes will not enter
Answer: (2)
Q. 86. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many
weeks of pregnancy?
1. Six weeks
2. Eight weeks
3. Twelve weeks
4. Eighteen weeks
MTPs are considered safe upto twelve weeks of pregnancy.
Answer: (3)
Q. 87. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?
1. The cuckoo (koel) lays its egg in crow's nest
2. The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
3. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
4. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair is a parasite
in true sense. Female mosquito is not considered as a parasite, though it needs human
blood for reproduction. Koel that lays in crow's nest is just a brood parasite.
Answer: (4)
Q. 88. What type of human population is represented by the following pyramid?
1. Expanding population
2. Vanishing population
3. Stable population
4. Declining population
It is an Urn shaped pyramid with least number of pre-reproductive individuals.
Answer: (4)
Q. 89. Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect,
whereas the remaining three are correct?
1. It is upright in shape
2. Its base is broad
3. It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
4. It is inverted in shape
It is never inverted.
Answer: (4)
Q. 90. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of
1. Aspergillus
2. Aspergillus
3. Clostridium
4. Trichoderma
Yeast species.
Answer: (2)
Q. 91. Consider the following four conditions (a - d) and select the correct pair of them
as adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions
(a) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(b) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(c) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
1. (a), (b)
2. (c), (d)
3. (a), (c)
4. (b), (d)
The adaptations in desert lizard are
(i) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(ii) bask in sun when temperature is low
Answer: (3)
Q. 92. Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of "Greenhouse
1. CO2 and N2O
2. CO2 and O3
3. CO2 and CO
4. CFCs and SO2
CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC are common green house gases.
Answer: (1)
Q. 93. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
1. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
2. Saliva of infected female Anophelesmosquito
3. Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
4. Spleen of infected humans
Sporozoites are the infective stage of malarial parasite. They present in the saliva of
infected female Anophelesmosquito.
Answer: (2)
Q. 94. When two unrelated individuals or lines are corssed, the performance of F1 hybrid
is often superior to both its parents. This phenomenon is called
1. Metamorphosis
2. Heterosis
3. Transformation
4. Spheing
Heterosis is equivalent to hybrid vigour.
Answer: (2)
Q. 95. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency
Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
3. MRI
4. Ultra sound
ELISA is a diagnostic test for AIDS.
Answer: (2)
Q. 96. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
1. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
2. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
3. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
4. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number
of these
Symptoms of AIDs appear when there is depletion of helper T-cells.
Answer: (4)
Q. 97. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on
the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5'
1. Palindromic sequence of base pairs
2. Replication completed
3. Deletion mutation
4. Start codon at the 5' end
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5'
is the palindromic sequence, recognised by EcoRI.
Answer: (1)
Q. 98. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
1. Molasses
2. Corn meal
3. Soya meal
4. Ground gram
Molasses are used commonly in distilleries for ethanol production
Answer: (1)
Q. 99. An organism used as biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is
1. Nostoc
2. Azotobacter
3. Azospirillum
4. Rhizobium
Soyabean is a legume associated symbiotically with Rhizobium.
Answer: (4)
Q. 100. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand
1. coli
2. colon
3. coelom
4. coenzyme
In EcoRI, 'co' stands for coli (species of bacteria, from where it is obtained)
Answer: (3)
Q. 1. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32
Number of atomic orbitals in an orbit
Answer : (3)
Q. 2. The electrode potentials for are +0.15
V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of .
(1) 0.150 V (2) 0.500 V
(3) 0.325 V (4) 0.650 V
Answer : (3)
Q. 3. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is
(1) 1.7700 (2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177 (4) 0.0344
Mole fraction of solute = 1/56.55 = 0.0177
Answer : (3)
Q. 4. By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the
temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.0
(3) 2.8 (4) 4.0
Answer : (1)
Q. 5. A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the
concentration of is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals
, what is the pH of this solution?
(1) 8.73 (2) 9.08
(3) 9.43 (4) 11.72
Answer : (3)
Q. 6. Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in
20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B
will be
(1) 25.00 u (2) 50.00 u
(3) 12.25 u (4) 6.50 u
Sol .
Answer : (3)
Q. 7. Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under
adiabatic condition?
For an ideal gas, for free expansion q = 0; RT = 0 & w = 0
Answer : (4)
Q. 8. For the reaction the equilibrium constant is K1. The
equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction What is K for the
reaction '
Answer : (4)
Q. 9. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following
relations is not related to adsorption process?
x/m = P × T is the incorrect relation
Answer : (1)
Q.10. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ at
27°C, the entropy change for the process would be
Answer : (1)
Q. 11. The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one
solvent and association in other solvent is respectively
(1) Greater than one and greater than one
(2) Less than one and greater than one
(3) Less than one and less than one
(4) Greater than one and less than one
Sol .
Answer : (4)
Q. 12. Standard electrode potential for couple is +0.15 V and that for the
couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to
make a cell. The cell potential will be
(1) +1.83 V (2) +1.19 V
(3) +0.89 V (4) +0.18 V
Answer : (3)
Q.13. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total
pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2)
in the mixture is
(1) 1 atm (2) 0.5 atm
(3) 0.8 atm (4) 0.9 atm
Answer : (2)
Q. 14. If the for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following
gives the correct relationships for the values of RG° and Keq?
Answer : (1)
Q. 15. The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86° cm -1 If 5.00 g Na2SO4
is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O,the freezing point is changed by –3.82°C. Calculate the van't
Hoff factor for Na2SO4
(1) 0.381 (2) 2.05
(3) 2.63 (4) 3.11
Answer : (3)
Q. 16. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The
relation between their wavelengths i.e. l1 and l2 will be
(1) λ1 = 1/2 λ2 (2) λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 2λ2 (4) λ1 = 4λ2
(3) λ1 = 2λ2
Answer : (3)
Q. 17. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, +0.5 V and –
3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Y > Z > X
(3) Y > X > Z (4) Z > X > Y
Z > X > Y; higher the reduction potential lesser the reducing power
Answer : (4)
Q. 18. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?
(1) Order of reaction is always whole number
(2) Order can be determined only experimentally
(3) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants
(4) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express
the rate of reaction
Answer : (1)
Q. 19. Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6 kJ. The dissociation
energy of H – H bond is
(1) +217.4 kJ (2) –434.8 kJ
(3) –869.6 kJ (4) +434.8 kJ
The dissociation energy of H – H bond is 869.6/2 = 434.8 KJ
Answer : (4)
Q. 20. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be
(1) ns → np(n -1)d → (n - 2)f (2) ns → n(n - 2)f → (n -1)d → np
(3) ns → (n -1)d → (n - 2)f → np (4) ns → (n - 2)f → np → (n -1)d
Answer : (2)
Q. 21. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?
(1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2
(3) CaBr2 (4) CaI2
CaI2 has lowest melting point
Answer : (4)
Q. 22. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?
(1) Ni and Fe (2) Ga and In
(3) Zr and Ti (4) Ag and Au
Sol .
Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method
Answer : (3)
Q. 23. The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is
(1) C -H < C - O < C - C < C = C
(2) C -H < C = C < C -O < C - C
(3) C -C < C = C < C - O < C -H
(4) C -O < C - H < C - C < C = C
Answer : (2)
Q. 24. Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to
the formation of
(1) CrSO4 (2) Cr2(SO4)3
(3) (4) Cr2(SO3)3
Answer : (2)
Q. 25. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +
2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?
(1) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (2) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(3) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (4) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
On the basis of electrode potentials, the correct order is Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
Answer : (2Q. 26. Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the
geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals
Answer: (1)
Q. 27. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent
in the pig iron?
(1) Phosphorus (2) Manganese
(3) Carbon (4) Silicon
Answer : (3)
Q. 28. Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base?
(1) OH- (2) H2O
(3) NH3 (4) BF3
BF3 is an electron deficient species.
Answer : (4)
Q. 29. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder
for bleaching action?
(1) CaCl2 (2) CaOCl2
(3) Ca(OCl)2 (4) CaO2Cl
Answer : (3)
Q. 30. The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 0
Answer : (2)
Q. 31. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of is shared?
(1) Three dimensional (2) Linear chain silicate
(3) Sheet silicate (4) Pyrosilicate
Answer : (4)
Q. 32. The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6 ] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the
examples of which type of isomerism?
(1) Geometrical isomerism (2) Linkage isomerism
(3) Ionization isomerism (4) Coordination isomerism
Co-ordination isomerism
Q. 33. The d-electron configurations of
respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
having minimum no. of unpaired electrons
Answer : (4)
Q. 34. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?
Answer : (3)
Q. 35. Which of the following has the minimum bond length?
Answer : (4)
Q. 36. The value of RH for the reaction
(1) High pressure and low temperature
(2) High temperature and high pressure
(3) Low pressure and low temperature
(4) High temperature and low pressure
R ng = –ve and RH = –ve
Answer : (1)
Q. 37. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?
(1) Nylon-66 (2) Terylene
(3) Backelite (4) Melamine
Terylene is a polyester polymer because it is formed by the monomer units terephthalic
acid and ethylene glycol
Answer : (2)
Q. 38. What is the product obtained in the following reaction
Answer : (2)
Q. 39. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product
Answer : (4)
Q. 40. In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave
55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
(1) 14.45 (2) 15.45
(3) 16.45 (4) 17.45
Answer : (3)
Q. 41. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent ?
Sol .
+R effect of OH > OCH3
Answer : (3)
Q. 42. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?
Answer : (4)
Q. 43. Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule
among the following which is linear?
(1) CH3 — CH2 — CH2— CH3 (2) CH3 —
(3) CH3 — C o C — CH3 (4) CH2= CH— CH2—
C o CH
Sol .
Answer: (3)
Q. 44. In the following reactions,
Sol .
Answer: (3)
Q. 45. The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By
doing so it.
(1) Increase the concentration of ions
(2) Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
(3) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(4) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
Sol .
Answer: (2)
Q. 46. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
(1) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene (2) 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
(3) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane (4) 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene
Answer : (2)
Q. 47. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the
(1) H2 and Pt as catalyst (2) Glycol with KOH
(3) Zn-Hg with HCl (4) LiAlH4
Sol .
Answer : (3)
Q. 48. Which one of the following is employed as Antithistamine?
(1) Omeprazole (2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Diphenyl hydramine (4) Norothindrone
Diphenyl hydramine is employed as Antihistamine
Answer : (3)
Q. 49. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?
(1) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups
(2) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose
(3) (+) Lactose is a b-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a
molecule of D(+) galactose
(4) (+) Lactose is reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
(+) lactose is a reducing sugar and it exhibit mutarotation
Answer : (4)
Q. 50. Which one of the following statement is no true?
(1) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant
(2) pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5
(3) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish
(4) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
Answer : (3)
Q.1. The dimensions of are:
Given expression is that of speed of light.
Answer: (4)
Q. 2. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis
passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is l0. Its moment of inertia
about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is
Answer : (3)
Q. 3. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10
ms2, the velocity with Which it hits the ground is
(1) 5.0 m/s (2) 10.0 m/s
(3) 20.0 m/s (4) 40.0 m/s
Answer : (3)
Q. 4. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button one
control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0ms-2. If g = 10
ms^(-2), the tension in the supporting cable is :
(1) 1200 N (2) 8600 N
(3) 9680 N (4) 11000 N
T = (M + m) (g + a) = (940 + 60) (10 + 1) = 11000 N
Answer (4)
Q. 5. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth's radius
before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest
(1) At the instant just after the body is projected
(2) At the highest position of the body
(3) At the instant just before the body hits the earth
(4) It remains constant all through
Just before hitting q is zero and both F, Vare maximum.
Answer (3)
Q. 6. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the
equation The torque on the wheel becomes zero at
(1) t = 2 s (2) t = 1 s
(3) t = 0.2 s (4) t = 0.25 s
Answer : (2)
Q. 7. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2
π s. The acceleration of the particle is
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 15 m/s2
(3) 25 m/s2 (4) 36 m/s2
Answer : (1)
Q.8. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with
the same velocity. The Impulse experienced by the body is
(1) Zero (2) MV
(3) 1.5 MV (4) 2 MV
Impulse = MV – (– MV) = 2 MV
Answer: (4)
Q.9 . A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and
farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points
respectively. Then the ratio v1/ v2
Answer (3)
Q.10. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency n and the nucleus
recoils. The recoil energy will be
Answer (3)
Q. 11. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
(1) Upon the system by a conservative force
(2) Upon the system by a non-conservative force
(3) By the system against a conservative force
(4) By the system against a non-conservative force
By definition
Answer : (3)
Q. 12. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity
becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
(3) 7 m/s2 (4) 7 m/s2
Answer : (1)
Q. 13. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10
m/s2 , the range of the missile is
(1) 20 m (2) 40 m
(3) 50 m (4) 60 m
Answer : (2)
Q. 14. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in
the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is
(1) 13 J (2) 18 J
(3) 21 J (4) 26 J
Work = Area under (F – d) graph
= 8 + 5 = 13 J
Answer : (1)
Q. 15. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is
doubled, then the outward electric flux will
(1) Be doubled (2) Increase four times
(3) Be reduced to half (4) Remain the same
Answer : (4)
Q. 16. Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –qare placed at the corners of a square of side
2L(see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and
+q, is:
Answer : (4)
Q. 17. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E (V/m) in the space
between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is
A(m)2 the energy (joules) stored in the condenser is
Answer : (1)
Q. 18. If power dissipated in the 9 W resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the
potential difference across the 2 ] resistor is
(1) 2 Volt (2) 4 Volt
(3) 8 Volt (4) 10 Volt
Sol :
Current in 9 ] is 2A, so that in 6] is 3A. Total current is 2 + 3 = 5A. Potential drop = 5 ×
2 = 10V
Answer: (4)
Q. 19. A current of 2 A flows through a 2 ] resistor when connected across a battery.
The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 ] resistor. The
internal resistance of the battery is
(1) 1 ] (2) 0.5 ]
(3) 1/3 ] (4) 1/4 ]
Sol :
Answer: (3)
Q. 20. The rate of increase of thermo e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature
of a thermocouple
(1) Is negative (2) Is positive
(3) Is zero (4) Depends upon the choice of the two
materials of the thermocouple
Sol :
Slope is zero at neutral temperature.
Answer: (3)
Q. 21. A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC
is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm
BC is , the force on the arm AC is
Answer : (3)
Q.22. The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass
decay of U235 per hour is
(1) 1 microgram (2) 10 microgram
(3) 20 microgram (4) 40 microgram
Answer : (4)
Q. 23. There are four light-weight-rod samples, A, B, C, D separately suspended by
threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations
are noted
(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true?
(1) A is of a non-magnetic material (2) B is of a
paramagnetic material
(3) C is of a diamagnetic material (4) D is of a ferromagnetic material
Diamagnetic will be feebly repelled. Paramagnetic will be feebly attracted.
Ferromagnetic will be strongly attracted.
Answer : (2)
Q. 24. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating
along the +z-axis, can be represented by
Answer : (2)
Q. 25. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same
direction in certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is
pointed along direction of fields, then the electron
(1) Will turn towards left of direction of motion
(2) Will turn towards right of direction of motion
(3) Speed will decrease
(4) Speed will increase
Bfield will not apply any force. E field will apply a force opposite to velocity of the
electron hence, speed will decrease.
Answer : (3)
Q. 26. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of
induced emf with time would be
Answer : (2)
Q.27. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200 √2 sin100t volts is connected to
capacitor of capacity 1 μF.The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is
(1) 20 mA (2) 10 mA
(3) 100 mA (4) 200 mA
Answer : (1)
Q. 28. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and inductor L in series. If R and the
inductive reactance are both equal to 3 ], the phase difference between the applied
voltage and the current in the circuit is
(1) Zero (2) π/6
(3) π/4 (4) π/2
Answer : (3)
Q. 29. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0° C, the resulting change in its entropy,
taking latent heat of ice to be 80 cal/°C is
(1) 293 cal/K (2) 273 cal/K
(3) 8 × 104 cal/K (4) 80 cal/K
Answer : (1)
Q. 30. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does –150 J of work against
its surrounding. This implies that
(1) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas
(2) 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
(3) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
(4) No heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
Answer : (2)
Q. 31. A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown.
Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph
correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time?
Sol .
Motion given here is SHM starting from rest.
Answer : (2)
Q. 32. Two waves are represented by the
equations where x is in meter and t in s.
The phase difference between them is
(1) 0.57 radian (2) 1.0 radian
(3) 1.25 radian (4) 1.57 radian
Answer : (2)
Q. 33. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents
(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (A)
(3) Only (D) does not represent SHM (4) Only (A) and (C)
Answer : (4)
Q. 34. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass.
The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air
(1) Decreases by a factor 20 (2) Decreases by a factor 10
(3) Increases by a factor 20 (4) Increases by a factor 10
Answer : (4)
Q. 35. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and
gamma rays is
(1) Infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(2) Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(3) Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(4) Microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
Fact based question
Answer : (2)
Q. 36. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that
of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of
hydrogen like ion is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
Answer : (1)
Q.37. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
(1) Brilliance of diamond
(2) Working of optical fibre
(3) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
(4) Mirage on hot summer days
Real & apparent depth are explained on the basis of refraction only. TIR not involved
Answer : (3)
Q. 38. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the
following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30
cm from the lens?
(1) Real, inverted, height = 1 cm (2) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
(3) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm (4) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
In general we have assumed ` = 1.5,
So, f = 20 cm and calculate v = 60 cm
Answer : (4)
Q. 39. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the
kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping
potential is
(1) 2.3 V (2) 1.8 V
(3) 1.3 V (4) 0.5 V
eV = KEmax
Answer : (4)
Q. 40. Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If
the voltage is increased to 100 km then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the
electrons would
(1) Increase by 4 times (2) Increase by 2 times
(3) Decrease by 2 times (4) Decrease by 4 times
Answer : (3)
Q. 41. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively.
Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
(1) 1: 5 (2) 1: 4
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1: 1
Sol :
Answer : (3)
Q. 42. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the
electron gun can be increased by
(1) Decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
(2) Increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
(3) Increasing the filament current
(4) Decreasing the filament current
Answer : (2)
Q. 43. The half life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y
which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1: 15 in a
sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be
(1) 100 years (2) 150 years
(3) 200 years (4) 250 years
After t second fractional amount of X left is ,
t = 4 × T1/2
t = 4 × 50
= 200 years
Answer : (3)
Q. 44. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain
(1) Frequency (2) Power
(3) Wavelength (4) Intensity
Concept of threshold frequency
Answer : (1)
Q. 45. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(1) Molecules break up at high temperature
(2) Nuclei break up at high temperature
(3) Atoms get ionised at high temperature
(4) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
Answer : (4)
Q. 46. A nucleus emits one a particle and two β-particles. The resulting nucleus is
α emission decreases mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. One β– emission
increases atomic number by one but leaves mass number unchanged.
Answer : (4)
Q.47. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a
change in the base current from 100 mA to 300 mA produces a change in the collector
current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is
(1) 25 (2) 50
(3) 75 (4) 100
Answer : (2)
Q.48. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(1) Its resistance is increased
(2) It becomes a p-type semiconductor
(3) The antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(4) There will be more free electrons than hole in the semiconductor
Addition of antimony will make it an N-type semiconductor
Answer : (4)
Q.49. In forward biasing of the p-n junction
(1) The positive terminal of the battery in connected to p-side and the depletion region
becomes thin
(2) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region
becomes thick
(3) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region
becomes thin
(4) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region
becomes thick
Answer : (1)
Q.50. Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively :
(1) (ii), (iv) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iii), (ii) and (i) (4) (iii), (ii) and (iv)
Answer : (1)
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