Questions asked in Aptitude Test

Will you please tell me what kind of questions are asked in Aptitude Test and give me the name of book which is to be preferred for it?

Here I am providing you the sample questions which are asked in Aptitude Test

Which of the following is least like the others?

A. cube
B. sphere
C. pyramid
D. circle
Anwser:
D (because the circle is the only two-dimensional figure)

Question 2.
Consider a language which uses the following set of characters:

Small set: { a b c }

Large set: { A B C }

Punctuation set: { x y }

This language must follow the following rules:

1. A punctuation character must end all series.
2. A series can have up to but no more than 4 characters,including punctuation characters.

Does the following series follow all the rules of the language defined above?

axBy

A. Yes
B. No


Answer:
A (the series has only four characters and ends in a punctuation character)


Question 4.
Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can they type in 30 minutes?

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75


Answer:
E (30/5=6; 6*10=60; Susan will type 60 pages in 30 min. 30/10=3; 5*3=15; Mary will type 15 pages in 30 min. 60+15=75)



Question 5.
Consider the following series:
3, 4, 6, 9, 13, ____ What comes next?

A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 18
E. 19

Answer:
D (3+1=4; 4+2=6; 6+3=9; 9+4=13; 13+5=18)

Questions asked in Aptitude Test are based on these topics
Age
Area
Average
Banker's Discount
Boats and Streams
Calendar
Chain Rule
Clock
Decimal Fractions
H.C.F. and L.C.M.
Height and Distance
Logarithm
Mixtures and Alligations
Numbers
Partnerships
Percentage
Permutations and Combinations
Pipes and Cistern
Probability
Profit and Loss
Races and Games
Series - Odd Man Out
Series - Find Missing Number
Simple Interest
Compound Interest
Simplification
Square Root and Cube Root
Stocks and Shares
Surds and Indices
Time and Distance
Time and Work
Trains
Questions Posted By Users

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I want to start preparation for IBPS PO Exam. So I need question of Aptitude Test. So can any one provide some model question papers of Aptitude Test for IBPS PO Exam?

Here you want questions of Aptitude Test for IBPS PO Exam for Aptitude Test, so here I am giving following question papers:

IBPS PO Aptitude Test Model Question Paper

66. The average of four consecutive odd numbers is 36. What is the smallest of these numbers?
a) 31 b) 35 c) 43
d) 47 e) None of these
67. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.7850 at the rate of 14%
per annum in two years?
a) Rs.2351.86 b) Rs.2880.37 c) Rs.2518.22
d) Rs.2290.23 e) None of these
68. Mithilesh started a business by investing Rs.48000. After 7 months, Vidya joined him with a
capital of Rs.56000. At the end of the year of the total profit was Rs.5885. What is the
Vidya’s share of the profit?
a) Rs.3625 b) Rs.1650 c) Rs.1925
d) Rs.3960 e) None of these
69. Three-fourth of one number is equal to five-sixth of another number. What is the respective
ratio of the first number to the second number?
a) 12 : 11 b) 11 : 9 c) 9 : 10
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
70. Natasha decided to spend 45% of her salary on shopping. On completion of her shopping, she
realized that she had spent only Rs.11475, which was 60% of what she had decided to spent.
How much is Natasha’s salary?
a) Rs.29600 b) Rs.38800 c) Rs.42500
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
71. In how many different way can the letters of the word ‘RUDE’ be arranged?
a) 12 b) 48 c) 16
d) 24 e) None of these
72. The ages of Bhakti and Neil are in the ratio of 8 : 7 respectively. After 6 years, the ratio of
their ages will be 19 : 17. What is the difference in their ages?
a) 4 years b) 8 years c) 10 years
d) 12 years e) None of these
73. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 500% and the denominator is increased by
300%. The resultant fraction is 2-4/7. What was the original fraction?
a) 4/7 b) 12/7 c) 15/4
d) 6/5 e) None of these
IBPS PO Aptitude Sample Paper II
IBPS PO Aptitude Sample Paper I
1. Who does the author hold responsible for the shooting spree in schools and colleges?
A. Lack of love and emotion in the society in general.
B. Increased focus on self-gratification even when it comes at the cost of innocent lives.
C. Deteriorating social structure leading to break up of families resulting in lack of moral
development in children.
a) Only A b) Only C c) Only B and C
d) All of these e) None of these
2. Why does the author refer to the law of survival of the fittest as ridiculous?
a) This law is primitive and does not hold good for developed nations
b) The law is often used to justify the accumulation of wealth by a selected few
c) People from developing countries use it to rationalize their immigration to the Western
countries
d) It does not lead to any material profits and material wealth
e) None of these
3. Which of the following is a reason for poverty and hunger in underdeveloped countries?
A. Mindlessly chasing the Western way of living.
B. They have fallen prey to the idea of happiness through material comforts rather than love and
emotional bond.
C. They do not have marketing techniques as good as the Western countries.
a) Only B b) Only C c) Only A
d) Only B and C e) Not mentioned in the passage
4. Why do the ‘starry-eyed millions’ harbor a wish to become NRI?
A. They are driven towards higher profits and materialism.
B. They appreciate the Western way of life as it appears to them.
C. They have become emotionless and lost any attachment to the motherland.
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only A and B
d) Only C e) All A, B and C
5. Why does the author disregard the Western way of living even though an average citizen in
the West enjoys better living standards?
a) Many Indians want to ape their lifestyle, leading to a cultural dilution of their own
traditions
b) The West has failed to market their lifestyle in an appropriate way
c) According to him, the law of ‘survival of the fittest’ is now obsolete
d) It only looks forward to material comfort rather than happiness within
e) None of these
6. What does the author mean by ‘intercepting someone’s share of daily bread’?
a) Hindering the process of marketing in underdeveloped countries by the developed
countries
b) Denying material comfort to the Western World
c) Affecting the social life of those working towards material comforts only
d) Excess of wealth in Western World while people in poorer nations struggle for survival
e) None of these
7. What does the author mean by ‘shop window of the West’ when he suggests to look inside the
shop?
A. The sprawling supermarkets have been making profits out of inhuman activities.
B. To look closely at the existing societal structure rather than superficially appreciating the
delusive dazzle.
C. To study their marketing techniques closely.
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only A and B
d) Only B and C e) Only C
8. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is
a) To explain that consumerist societies have their own drawbacks, which are overlooked by
those who are blinded by its material glare
b) To explain how too many material comforts have improved the living standard of common
man in the West
c) That young children should not be given access to guns and other ammunitions
d) All NRIs are leading unmindful, second-class lives abroad
e) None of these
9. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?
a) Over-indulgence in accumulating material wealth has led to many problems on the social
and emotional fronts
b) people should visit the sermons more often since this is the only way to achieve peace and
happiness
c) For the sake of making profits, people have taken decisions which have proved to be
harmful to the society
d) There are plenty of material comforts in the Western countries
e) All are true
Directions (Q. 10-12) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
10. Shrewdly
a) Roughly b) Rightly c) Rudely
d) Courteously e) Astutely
11. Chase
a) Follow b) Capture c) Run
d) Catch e) Conquer
12. Elusive
a) Terrifying b) Unusual c) Unachievable
d) Haunting e) Displeasing
Directions (Q. 13-15) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
13. Dejected
a) Apologetic b) Anxious c) Accepted
d) Elated e) Enlightened
14. Unbridled
a) Enthusiastic b) Controlled c) Rebellious
d) Considerate e) Approved
15. Momentary
a) Sporadic b) Futuristic c) Brief
d) Homogenous e) Perpetual
Directions (Q. 16-25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part will be the answer. If
there is no error, mark (5) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
16. In emerging economies (1) / the private credit market (2) / remains highly segmented and thus
(3) / weaken power of monetary policy. (4) No error (5)
17. The recent election campaign (1) / has been one of (2) / the most noisiest campaigns (3) / in
the last decade. (4) No error (5)
18. Wholesome strategic planning (1) / was the focus as (2) / the firm manage through a difficult
period (3) / a couple of years ago. (4) No error (5)
19. In spite of the best governmental efforts, (1) / emission of green house gases (2) / and noxious
chemicals (3) / remain a cause of worry. (4) No error (5)
20. The rate of metabolism of (1) / a body is comparatively lowest when (2) / it is at rest and is
(3) / thus optimum for examination. (4) No error (5)
21. The opposition leader tried (1) / to bolster his position (2) / with the voters by pressing (3)
corruption charges against rivals. (4) No error (5)
22. The recently imposed dress code (1) / in the university has enraged (2) / the students who will
be going (3) / on strike since tomorrow. (4) No error (5)
23. Ever since he took over (1) / as the Chief Minister of the State (2) / rate for unemployment (3)
/ has drastically increased. (4) No error (5)
24. Although the brilliant writer (1) / an underlying (2) / pessimism prevails in (3) / all her novels.
(4) No error (5)
25. Changed social setting (1) / demands the schools to teach (2) / moral and social values (3) /
among with the academic skills. (4) No error (5)
Directions (Q. 26-30) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.
26. The grim job market has taken its toll on students, many of those had hoped for a much better
future.
a) much of whom
b) many of whom
c) several of those
d) many of which
e) No correction required
27. The relationship we have with our clients are the cornerstone of our future.
a) our client are
b) each clients is
c) our clients is
d) all clients are
e) No correction required
28. Many developed countries have been attempting to buy agricultural land in other countries
to meet their own demand.
a) has been attempting
b) have being attempting
c) are being attempting
d) have been attempted
e) No correction required
29. A nuclear testing fills the air with radioactive dust and left the area uninhabitable.
a) and leaves the
b) also leaves the
c) and leaving the
d) and making the
e) No correction required
30. Modern ideas of governance started back to the time when people began to question kings.
a) started when
b) set back to
c) start back to
d) date back to
e) No correction required
Reasoning Ability
31. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with 3rd, 7th, 8th and 10th letters of the word
‘COMPATIBILITY’, which of the following would be the last letter of that word? If no such
word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed,
give your answer as Y.
a) I b) B c) L
d) X e) Y
32. If in a certain code language ‘SIMILAR’ is written as ‘IZORNRH’, then how will
‘NATURAL’ be written in that language?
a) OZIFGZM b) OZIFGMZ c) OZIFZMG
d) OZIFMZG e) None of these
33. Sameer remembers that his brother’s birthday is after fifteenth but before 18th of February
whereas his sister Kanika remembers that her brother’s birthday is after 16th but before 19th of
February. On which day in February is Sameer’s brother’s birthday?
a) 15th Feb. b) 18th Feb. c) 17th Feb.
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
Directions (Q. 34-38) In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The
resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the
questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from
left to right.
Rules:
(i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a two digit odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If a two digit even number is followed by a two digit odd number which is a perfect
square, the even number is to be subtracted from the odd number.
(iii) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number, the first number is to be divided
by the second number.
(iv) If a prime number is followed by an even number, the two are to be added.
(v) If an even number is followed by another even number, the two are to be multiplied.
34. 23 15 12
X 24 49
If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
a) 24 b) 25 c) 28
d) 22 e) None of these
35. 37 12 21
38 81 14
What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows?
a) 23 b) 32 c) 13
d) 18 e) None of these
36. 16 8 32
132 11
If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
a) 192 b) 128 c) 132
d) 144 e) None of these
37. 345 23 X
45 17 81
If X is the resultant of the second row, what is the resultant of the first row?
a) 285 b) 33 c) 135
d) 34 e) None of these
38. 12 28 84
37 22 18
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
a) 77 b) 87 c) 84
d) 72 e) None of these
Directions (Q. 39-44) Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below
it.
I. ‘A + B’ means that ‘A is the father of B’.
II. ‘A – B’ means that ‘A is the wife of B’.
III. ‘A × B’ means that ‘A is the brother of B’.
IV. ‘A ÷ B’ means that ‘A is the daughter of B’.
39. If it is given ‘P ÷ R + S + Q’ then which of the following is true?
a) P is the daughter of Q
b) Q is the aunt of p
c) P is the aunt of Q
d) P is the mother of Q
e) None of these
40. If it is given ‘P – R + Q’ then which of the following statements is true?
a) P is the mother of Q
b) Q is the daughter of P
c) P is the aunt of Q
d) P is the sister of Q
e) None of these
41. If it is given ‘P × R ÷ Q’ then which of the following is true?
a) P is the uncle of Q
b) P is the father of Q
c) P is the brother of Q
d) P is the son of Q
e) None of these
42. If it is given ‘P × R – Q’ then which of the following is true?
a) P is the brother-in-law of Q
b) P is the brother of Q
c) P is the uncle of Q
d) P is the father of Q
e) None of these
43. If ‘P + R ÷ Q’ then which of the following is true?
a) P is the husband of Q
b) P is the brother of Q
c) P is the son of Q
d) P is the father of Q
e) None of these
44. If ‘P – R × Q’ then which of the following is true?
a) P is the sister of Q
b) Q is the son of P
c) Q is the husband of P
d) P is the sister in law of Q
e) None of these
45. A clock becomes 12 s fast in every 3 h. If it is made correct at 3 o’clock in the afternoon of
Sunday, then what time will it show at 10 o’clock Tuesday morning?
a) 2 min 52 s past 10
b) 2 min 54 s past 10
c) 2 min 50 s past 10
d) 2 min 48 s past 20
e) None of these
46. 2 days before yesterday was Friday, then what day of the week will be day after tomorrow?
a) Monday b) Sunday c) Saturday
d) Wednesday e) None of these
47. Shreya started from point P and walked 2 m towards West. She, then took a right turn and
walked 3 m before taking a left turn and walking 5 m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3 m
and stopped at a point Q. How far is point Q from point P?
a) 2 m b) 6 m c) 7 m
d) 8 m e) 12 m
Directions (Q. 48-51) Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table. Out of eight, four
persons are sitting at the corners of the table and the other four are sitting at the mid points of each
side of the table. Persons at the corners are facing the centre while the persons at the mid points of
side are facing outside. S is 3rd to the right of P.
P is facing the centre. Y is not sitting beside P or S. T is 3rd to the right of R. R is not sitting at
the mid-point of any side of the table. R is also not beside Y. There is only one person between P and
V. Q is not sitting beside V.
48. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from P,
then the position of how many persons remains the same (excluding P)?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) Four
49. Which of the following is true regarding Y?
a) T is not sitting beside Y
b) Y is sitting at the mid-point of a side
c) R is 2nd to the left of Y
d) P and V are beside Y
e) None of these
50. Who is 4th to the left of V?
a) Y b) R c) T
d) Q e) W
51. What is the position of Q in respect of R?
a) Immediate left
b) 2nd to the left
c) 3rd to the left
d) 3rd to the right
e) Immediate right
52. Four out of the following five are some how same and therefore they form a group. Which
one of the following does not come into this group?
a) Y b) W c) V
d) R e) P
53. Who is 3rd to the right of W?
a) R b) S c) Q
d) Y e) Can’t be determined
54. How many people are there between T and Q?
a) None b) 1 c) 2
d) 3 e) 4
Directions (Q. 55-60) For recruiting management trainees in an organization, the following criteria as
have been laid down.
The candidate must
(i) Be a first class graduate in Commerce with atleast 65% marks.
(ii) Have secured atleast 70% marks in SSC.
(iii) Be not more than 26 years and not less than 21 years of age as on 01st August 2007.
(iv) Have secured atleast 60% marks in selection test.
(v) Have secured atleast 50% marks in selection interview.
However, if a candidate fulfills all the above mentioned criteria except
(a) at (i) above but is an Economics graduate with atleast 70% marks, the case may be referred to
the GM of the organization.
(b) at (v) above but has secured atleast 40% marks in selection interview and atleast 70% marks
in selection test, the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the
following five decision bases on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above.
You are no to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases
are given to you as on 01st August 2007. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to
each questions as follows.
Give answer
(a) if the candidate is to be selected
(b) if the candidate is not to be selected
(c) if the case is to be referred to GM
(d) if the case is to be referred to President
(e) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action
55. Abhishek has passed degree examination in Commerce with Economics as one of the subjects
in first class with 68% marks in 2006 at the age of 22 years. His marks in SSC was 73%. He
has cleared the selection test with 64% marks and selection interview with 62% marks.
56. Sharad Bhatia has passed B.Com. in first class with 69% marks and SSC with 78% marks. He
joined a private organization as an officer in June 2005 immediately after completing 23 years
of age. He has scored 65% marks in selection test and 48% marks in selection interview.
57. PriyankaGhate has passed graduation in arts with specialization in Economics in first class
with 75% marks. Her date of birth is 08th July, 1985. She had scored 89% marks in SSC, 63%
in selection interview and 61% marks in selection test.
58. Rakesh has passed SSC with 85% marks and graduation in arts with specialization in
Economics with 72% marks. His date of birth is 12th June, 1985. He has scored 65% marks in
selection test as well as in interview.
59. SaritaDere is a post graduate in Commerce passed in first class with 62% marks. Her score in
SSC was 75%. She completed 23 years of age on 23rd December, 2006. She has scored 64%
marks in selection test and 55% marks in selection interview.
60. AshishGharpure is a Commerce graduate passed out in June 2006, at the age of 21 years with
72% marks and first class. Presently he is pursuing his post-graduation in Economics. He had
scored 82% marks in SSC. He has cleared the selection test with 67% marks and selection
interview with 56% marks.
Directions (Q. ____) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in a different
standard from standard II to standard VIII but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a
different subject, viz. English, Hindi, Civics, Biology, Chemistry, GK and Computer but not
necessarily in the same order. B studies in standard VII but he does not like Biology or Computer. C
likes English and does not study in standard V or standard III. E studies in standard VIII and likes
Hindi. The one who likes GK studies in standard II. D studies in standard IV. G likes Civics. A does
not study in standard II. The one who likes Computer studies in standard V.
61. D likes which of the following subjects?
a) GK b) Civics c) Computer
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
62. Which of the following combinations is/are true?
a) C-VI-English b) D-V-Biology c) A-IV-Chemistry
d) All are true e) None of these
63. G studies in which of the following standards?
a) IV b) II c) III
d) VI e) None of these
64. Which of the following subjects does A like?
a) Biology b) GK c) Computer
d) Chemistry e) None of these
65. Which of the following statements is/are false?
a) F studies in standard II
b) A likes Computer
c) The one who studies in standard VIII likes English
d) All are false
e) None of these

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