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Old November 3rd, 2014, 04:18 PM
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Default Re: RRB Section Engineer Papers

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) conducts a written exam for recruitment of Senior Section Engineer (Civil, Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics, Communication, Maintenance, and Automobile ETC).

Exam Pattern:

General Intelligence & Reasoning
General Awareness
General Science
Technical Ability

Candidate has to select on subject from followings:

Civil Engineering
Mechanical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Electronics Engineering
Computers Engineering
Instrumentation & Measurement
Chemical Metallurgical Assistant
Environment & Pollution Control
Engineering Drawing / Graphics

RRB Section Engineer Paper 1
1. ‘Destination India’, conference on commerce and trade was organised at:
(a) Zurich (b) Bangalore (c) Singapore (d) Tokyo
2. According to a survey by Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry which of the
following countries tops the list on labour productivity:
(a) India (b) Luxembourg (c) Belgium (d) France
3. India’s first Asset Reconstruction Company’s road map was prepared by
a) SBI (b) IDBI (c) ICICI (d) HDFC
4. Which of the following country is the new member of International Coffee Organisation?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Kenya (d) Vietnam
5. Who among the following headed the Indo-UK Round Table conference held at London to
strengthen bilateral ties between the two countries?
(a) Swaraj Paul (b) Jaswant Singh(c) K.C. Pant (d) Yashwant Sinha
6. ‘Diva’ a specially ! ! designed women’s international credit card has been
launched by:
(a) Federal Bank (b) Standard Chartered Bank(c) Dresdner Bank (d) ABN-Amro Bank
7. Richard Grasso is the head of:
(a) NASDAQ(b) London Stock Exchange(c) New York Stock Exchange(d) Dubai Stock Exchange
8. ‘Indiva’ is the multipurpose vehicle, launched by____at the international
motorshow in Geneva.
(a) TELCO (b) BAJAJ and SIL (c) LML (d) HONDA
9. Match the following Company/organisation Chief Executive Officer
I. General Electricals A. Harvey PittII. Star Alliance B. S. DevarajahIII. Securities and C. Jeff
Immelt Exchange Commission D. Cheong Choong KongIV. Manufacturer’s Association of
Information Technology Code:I II III IV
(a) A B C D(b) B A C D(c) C D B A(d) D C A B
10. Nokia Corporation, the leading mobile phone makers is a___based company.
(a) USA (b) Japan (c) Philippines (d) Finland! !
11. ICENET is the network connecting the offices of the:
(a) Central Board of Excise and Customs(b) State Bank of India(c) Human Resource
Ministry(d) External Affairs Ministry
12. Geographical Information System Software known as ‘Gram Chitra’ was unveiled
(a) C-DAC (b) Media Labs Asia(c) Satyam Infoway (d) Honda
13. The Kofi Annan Institute for IT Excellence, has been set by India at____:
(a) Kenya (b) Guatemala (c) Ghana (d) Durban
14. India’s first Defence Intelligence Agency became operational in___2002.
(a) June (b) March (c) April (d) May
15. The first hydel project in Andaman and Nicobar islands has been commissioned by:
(a) NHPC (b) Dabhol Power Corporation(c) BHEL (d) NTPC
16. First Indian Laboratory (and India to be the 26th country) to be accredited by the
College of American Pathology is:
(a) Cipla lab (b) Speciality Ranbaxy Ltd(c) Zydu! ! s Cadila Ltd (d) Sun Pharma lab
17. Smart Kid Insurance policy has been launched for students by:
(a) Tata-AIG (b) SBI-Cardif(c) ICICI Prudential (d) LICI
18. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of Central Electricity
(a) J.L. Bajaj (b) H.L. Bajaj(c) Y.N. Prasad (d) J.L. Raina
19. Chilka Development Authority, the first organisation in the Asian subcontinent to receive
Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for the year 2002 is in:
(a) Kerala (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Uttaranchal
20. The chief architect of Ganga Action Plan, an environmentalist and recipient of various
awards died recently. Name him.
(a) Md. Bazzi (b) Arshad-uz-Zaman(c) Dr T.N. Khoshro (d) George Soros
21. CBE-2002 a NATO exercise by Canada, Greece, Hungary, Turkey, UK and US was launched
in____, for NATO peace programme.
(a) Georgia (b) Angola (c) Durban (d) Ireland
22. 2002 MN is the name of:
(a) Supercomputer (b) Asteroid(c) Spacecraft (d) Star
23. ‘Orange Prize’ is given in the field of:
(a) literature (b) sports (c) medicine (d) acting
24. In the global tea production, India accounts for____per cent of tea production.
(a) 27 (b) 26.7 (c) 24.3 (d) 27.7
25. USA has signed a legislation to protect the country from biological terrorist attack
(a) $ 4.6 billion (b) $ 6 billion(c) $ 7 billion (d) $ 8 billion
26. World day to combat desertification and drought is observed on:
(a) June 17 (b) June 20 (c) April 17 (d) July 20
27. Name the robot spacecraft, launched by NASA to observe frozen core of comets.
(a)! ! Contour (b) Odyssey (c) Dumar (d) Columbia
28. Blue Ocean, the World’s most powerful Supercomputer, is specifically designed for:
(a) NASA(b) US Naval Oceanographic office(c) US Federal Reserve Bank(d) US Intelligence
29. To review the disclosure and investor protection guidelines, a committee was
constituted by SEBI under:
(a) T.N. Chaturvedi (b) A.K. Basu(c) N.J. Reddy (d) Y.H. Malegam
30. First State to introduce a life insurance scheme covering 1.2 crore students and three
lakh teachers is:
(a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
31. Hrithik Roshan has turned down an offer to act in the Warner Brother’s film,____due
to unavailability of dates.
(a) Escape from Taliban(b) Hamlet(c) Three Wall(d) Hey Ram! Genocide in the land of
32. â€oeThe Shade of Swords” is a book written by:
(a) M.J. Akbar (b) Manil Suri(c) Urmila Lanba! ! (d) Vasant Potdar
33. India’s first Jan Shatabdi Express between Mumbai-Goa was commenced on:
(a) April 16, 2002 (b) April 20, 2002(c) June 20, 2002 (d) June 16, 2002
34. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of IIM Ahmedabad:
(a) Y.C. Deveshwar (b) N.R. Narayana Murthy(c) Sanjiv Gupta (d) M. Damodaran
35. Automobile Industry’s man of the year 2002 is:
(a) Carlos Ghoshn (Japan) (b) Dr Mark Faber(c) Dr Doom (d) Lious Haochuang
36. Who among the following has been named as the White Lightning in the cricket?
(a) Adam Parore (New Zealand)(b) Allan Donald (South Africa)(c) Ben Hollioake (Australia)
(d) Dion Nash (New Zealand)
37. Which Indian cricketer has bagged a deal with ESPN?
(a) Md Kaif (b) Yuvraj(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Anil Kumble
38. Who among the following is the official sponsors of the Indian team at the Asian Games
to be held ! ! in Busan, South Korea?
(a) Phillips (b) Sahara (c) LG (d) Samsung
39. ‘24 Brand Mantras’, is a book written by:
(a) Bimal Chowdhary (b) Shiv Khera(c) Arindam R. Chowdhary (d) Jagdeep Kapoor
40. Ist developing country in the world to make use of fire optics technology is:
(a) China (b) Japan (c) India (d) Vietnam
41. Defence Research and Development Organisation was formed in the year:
(a) 1980 (b) 1958 (c) 1956 (d) 1975
42. Who among the following has been appointed as the President of the flagship channel
Zee TV:
(a) Apurva Purohit (b) Pritish Nandi(c) Jitendra K. Singh (d) Raghu Rai
43. India’s first commercially manufactured sports car is:
(a) Reeva (b) Indigo (c) Sedan (d) Fibro
44. How many new railway zones have been notified by the Railway Ministry in July 2002:
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 5
45. Name the quarterly magazine, launched by The Time Grou! ! p.
(a) Bindia (b) b-drive(c) businessdrive.com (d) none of these
46. According to Economic Intelligence Unit, maximum amount of FDI is received by:
(a) India (b) China (c) South Korea (d) Brazil
47. European Union Summit was held in Slovenia at:
(a) Bled (b) Geory (c) Repti (d) Ottowom
48. Transport Research and Injury Prevention Programme was awarded the Stockholm award
and is unveiled by:
(a) IIT, Kanpur (b) IIT, Delhi(c) IIT, Kharagpur (d) IIT, Chennai
49. Alvaro Silva Calderon was appointed as the Secretary General of:
(a) OPEC (b) FIEO (c) NACO (d) AIMPLB
50. ASEAN was set up in the year:
(a) 1985 (b) 1975 (c) 1967 (d) 1958
1. (a)2. (b)3. (c)4. (d)5. (c)6. (b)7. (c)8. (a)9. (c)10. (d)11. (a)12. (b)13. (c)14. (c)15.
(a)16. (b)17. (a)18. (b)19. (b)20. (c)21. (a)22. (b)23. (a)24. (d)25. (a)26. (a)27. (a)28.
(b)29. (d)30. (a)31. (b)32. (a)33. (a)34. (b)35. (a)36. (b)37. (c)38. (d)39. (d)40. (c)41.
(c)42. (a)43. (a)44. (d)45. (b)46. (c)47. (a)48. (b)49. (a)50. (c)
RRB Section Engineer Paper 2
1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these
2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these
3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(B) 24.2
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these
4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(E) None of these
5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(E) None of these
6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(B) 1250
(D) 1550
(E) None of these
7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(B) 7269
(D) 7240
(E) None of these
(B) 9216
(D) 6814
(E) None of these
(B) 5.25
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these
10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(E)None of these
(E) None of these
12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(B) 9746
(D) 8024
(E) None of these
13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(E) None of these
14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(B) 1902
(D) 1964
(E) None of these
15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these
16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these
17. 1008÷36=?
(B) 32.5
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these
18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(B) 46.18
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these
19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(D) 475
(E) None of these
20. 83250÷?=74×25
(B) 45
(D) 55
(E) None of these
21. ?7744=?
(E)None of these
22.35%of ?=242
(E) None of these
23. 1256+4813+765=?
(B) 5876
(D) 6878
(E) None of these
24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2
(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these
25. 432+2170+35=?
(B) 475
(D) 469
(E) None of these
26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of
the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then
which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these
27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of
8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount
and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these
28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length
is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the
area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original
rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these
29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number
formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,
then what will be the original number?
(B) 48
(D) 93
(E) None of these
30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.
If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the
resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(E) None of these
31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.
What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs
were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12
each. What will be the percentage
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these
33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number
series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(B) 140
(D) 190
(E)None of these
34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the
following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(B) 76
(D) 84
(E)None of these
35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of
the smallest and the largest numbers?
(B) 148
(D) 198
(E) None of these
36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on
travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.
What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these
37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be
arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these
38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a
flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of
the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these
39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost
of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540,
then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(B) 39m
(E) None of these
40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order
of their values, which one will be fourth?
(E) 7/2
41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7
respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14
respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these
42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many
days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these
43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the
circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these
44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay
joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush
joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they
made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these
45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are
42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these
46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes
and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom
which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty
initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank
(leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these
47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these
48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25
persons, then how much would each person get?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these
49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are
drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these
50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what
will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
1 - D 2 - C 3 - B 4 - A 5 - D 6 - A 7 - E 8 - B 9 - E 10 - B 11 - C 12
- D 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B
16 - B 17 - A 18 - C 19 - E 20 - B 21 - A 22 - C 23 - E 24 - B 25 - A 26
- A 27 - B 28 - C 29 - C 30 - D 31 - B 32 - D 33 - A 34 - D 35 - C 36 -
A 37 - E 38 - A 39 - D 40 - B 41 - E 42 - C 43 - C
44 - A 45 - B 46 - A 47 - A 48 - B 49 - E 50 - D
RRB Section Engineer Paper 3
TEST II : NUMERICAL ABILITY ‐ This Test is to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with
numbers. Directions : In each of the following questions one number is missing. The place where the
number is missing is shown by a question mark (?). You have to find out which one of the answers
shown against 1, 2, 3 and 4 can replace the question mark. If none of these four can replace the
question mark, you will indicate (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Q.20. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of these
Q.21. 20 × 1 2 = ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of these
The correct answer for Q. 21 is 10. But none of the 1, 2, 3, or 4 shows this answer. Therefore your
answer is 5. Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.22. At 10 rupee each, how many rupee will 6 apples cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610
Q.23. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) None of these
Q.24. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen
(1) Rs.3/‐ (2) Rs.5/‐ (3) Rs.10/‐ (4) Rs.20/‐ (5) None of these
TEST III : CLERICAL APTITUDE ‐ There will be different types of items in this test. In the first type, in each
question a combination of name and address is given in the first column at the left followed by four such
combinations one each under the columns 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to find out the combination which is
exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of the column which contains that
combination is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is “5”. English Version 1 2 3
4 5
Q.25. S. R. BHAT S. R. BHAT S. R. BHATT S. R. BHAT S. R. BHAT None
36, Bora Street 63, Bora Street 36, Bora Street 36, Bora Street 36, Bora Street
Bombay–400096 Bombay–400096 Bombay–400096 Bombay–400069 Bombay–400096
Q.26. S. Narayanan S. Narayan S. Narayanan S. Narayanan S. Naraianan None
Amar Apt. 62 Amar Apt. 62 Amar Apt. 62 Amar Apt. 66 Amar Apt. 62
Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011
Q.27. Tewarson S. O. Tewarsons S. O. Tewarson S. O. Tewarson S. O. Tewarson S. O. None
B‐314 Mahanga B‐314 Mahanga B‐413 Mahanga B‐314 Mahanga B‐314 Mahanga
Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 834759
In the second type of questions, some items of family expenditure are given. The item in each questions
is to be classified into one of the following five. Heads of expenditure : (1) Education (2) Food (3) Health
(4) Travel (5) Miscellaneous. The number preceding the Head of expenditure 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5, as the
case may be, is the answer.
Sample Question :
Q.28. Purchase of Rice Since this item falls under the Head of expenditure “Food” the answer is “2”. In
the third type of questions, five words or names are given. You have to find out which word or name will
be in the middle after the words or names are rearranged in alphabetical order.
TEST IV : ENGLISH LANGUAGE ‐ This is a test to see how well you ‘know’ English. Your English language
ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms,
antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below.
Please remember, in the test there may be questions of several other types also.
Direction : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to
complete it meaningfully.
Q.30. He quickly glanced ………………………… the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2.
Q.31. The counsel urged the court to ……………………… down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare
Q.32. The local official ……………………… the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Directions : Read each sentence given below to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your
answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
Q.33. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’.
Q.34. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In this question, there is no error; Hence the right answer to this question is ‘5’. Now attempt the
following question.
Q.35. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Directions : In each of the following questions select from amongst the five alternatives, the word
nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man (4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture
Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most
opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.38. LIVELY (1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron
Q.39. INADVERTENT (1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentionalIn addition to the
above questions, there will be a passage in English for comprehension. You will be asked questions
based on the passage. There may be some other types of questions also. There will be a single
answersheet for all the objective tests.
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
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Old December 30th, 2014, 02:10 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Default Re: RRB Section Engineer Papers

Here I am providing the list of few questions of RRB Section Engineer exam which you are looking for .

Question1. The Railways gets the maximum income from
Good freight
Passenger Fares
None of theses

Question2. What is sound?

Question3. A plant can be disease resistant due to

RRB Section Engineer Exam

For more questions , here is the attachment...........................
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf RRB Section Engineer Exam.pdf (637.9 KB, 40 views)
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Last edited by Aakashd; August 4th, 2018 at 03:06 PM.
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Old January 29th, 2015, 06:29 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Nov 2011
Default Re: RRB Section Engineer Papers

Here I am providing the information regarding the RRB section engineer ECE exam question paper for your idea .

There are total 15 questions in the paper .

All are objective type questions .

Applicants has to choose one option amongst four choices .

RRB section engineer ECE exam question paper

Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Last edited by Aakashd; August 4th, 2018 at 03:06 PM.
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