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Old June 8th, 2014, 03:23 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2012

Can you give me question paper for Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering examination in PDF file format ?

As per your requirement here I am sharing the previous year question paper of the Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering exam

1. The critical activity has
(a) maximum float (b) minimum float
(c) zero float (d) negative float
2. The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called
(a) resource levelling (b) resource smoothing
(c) updating (d) critical path scheduling
3. The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as
(a) crash time (b) normal time
(c) optimistic time (d) standard time
4. In which of the following directions the strength of timber is maximum ?
(a) Parallel to grains (b) 45° to grains
(c) Perpendicular to grains (d) Same in all directions
5. The type of bond in which every course contains both header and stretchers is called
(a) English Bond (b) Mixed Bond
(c) Russian Bond (d) Flemish Bond
6. Specific gravity of most of the stones is usually between
(a) 1 to 1.4 (b) 1.5 to 2
(c) 2.4 to 2.8 (d) 4 to 5
7. In PERT analysis the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow
(a) normal distribution curve (b) Poissonss distribution curve
(c) β distribution curve (d) binomial distribution curve
8. Refractory bricks resists
(a) high temperature (b) chemical action
(c) dampness (d) none of these
9. Soundness of cement is tested by
(a) Vicat apparatus (b) Le-Chatelier apparatus
(c) Compression testing machine (d) None of these
10. The property of material due to which it can be drawn into thin wires is known as
(a) Softness (b) Hardness
(c) Ductility (d) None of the above

For complete paper here is the PDF file
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering exam Question Paper.pdf (247.4 KB, 113 views)

Last edited by Aakashd; June 11th, 2019 at 12:15 PM.
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Old June 9th, 2014, 11:18 AM
Sashwat's Avatar
Super Moderator
Join Date: Jun 2011
Default Re: Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering Paper

Here I am giving you question paper for Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering examination in PDF file attached with it below :

Paper – I
1. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
(a) 3H/4above the base (b) 3H/4below the water surface
(c) 4H/3above the base (d) 4H/3below the water surface
2. The water surface slope
, in case of uniform flow in the channel, is equal to
(a) 0ü (b) 1
(c) 1000 (d) 
3. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10.30.
The Froude number at the beginning of the jump is
(a) 5.64 (b) 7.63
(c) 8.05 (d) 13.61
4. The critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy at that
section is
(a) 0.75 m (b) 1.00 m
(c) 1.50 m (d) 2.25 m
5. A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m3/s. The
Froude number of the flow is 0.80. The depth of flow in the channel is
(a) 4 m (b) 8 m
(c) 16 m (d) 20 m
6. If ‘D’ is the scour depth measured below the high flood level and ‘d’ is the depth of scour
below the original bed level, then the width of the launching apron at toe of the guide bank
will generally be
(a) 1.5 Dü (b) 1.5 d
(c) 2.0 D (d) 2.0 d
7. Flow in pipe is laminar if Reynold’s number is
(a) more than 2100 (b) more than 3000
(c) more than 4000 (d) less than 2000
8. According to continuity equation
(b) a1v1 = a2v2
(c) a1a2 = v1v2 (d) None of the above
9. Discharge ‘Q’ through a venturimeter is given by (symbols have their usual meanings)
(a) Cd a1 a2 2gh/ a1
2ü (b) Cd a1
2 2gh / a1a2
(c) Cd(a1–a2) 2gh/(a1+a2) (d) Cd a1a2 2gh/(a1+a2)
10. The concept of boundary layer was first introduced by
(a) Prandtl (b) Newton
(c) Reynold (d) Kutter
11. For open channels, Manning’s formula with usual notations is
(a) V =
R1/3 S1/2 ü (b) V =
R2/3 S1/2
(c) V =
R2/3 S1/3 (d) None of the above
12. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
(a) water pressure (b) wave pressure
(c) self weight of dam (d) uplift pressure
13. There will be no tension in dam if the resultant passes through the
(a) last third of the base (b) middle third of the base
(c) middle two third of the base (d) none of the above
14. The relation between duty ‘D’ in hect/m3/sec, delta ‘’ in m and base period ‘B’ in days is
(a) = 8.64 D/Bü (b) B = 8.64 /D
(c) D = 8.64 /B (d) = 8.64 B/D
15. According to Lacey, the scour depth is given by : (Q – discharge in m3/sec and f-Lacey’s
(a) 0.47 (Q/f)½ ü (b) 0.47 (Q/f)1/3
(c) 0.47 (Q/f)1/4 (d) 0.47 (Q/f)1/5
16. Lacey’s regime velocity is proportional to :
Where, R – Hydraulic mean radius in m
S – slope
(a) R1/2 S3/4 (b) R3/4 S1/2
(c) R3/4 S1/3 (d) R2/3 S1/2
17. To form still water pocket in front of canal head, following is constructed :
(a) Fish Ladder (b) Divide wall
(c) Dam (d) None of the above
18. When an irrigation canal passes over a river, the structure constructed is called
(a) cross drainage (b) Aqueduct
(c) Super passage (d) Level crossing
19. Garret diagram, for the design of irrigation channels, is based on
(a) Kennedy’s Theory (b) Lacey’s theory
(c) Kutter’s formula (d) Manning’s formula
20. For an open channel, Chezy’s formula is (symbol’s have their usual meanings)
(a) V = CRS ü (b) V = C RS
(c) V = CRS (d) V = C/ RS
21. According to Khosla’s theory, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) The critical hydraulic gradient for alluvial soil is nearly equal to 2.0
(b) The undermining of floor starts from intermediate point
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
22. Specific capacity of an open well is higher for which of the following soil type ?
(a) Clay (b) Fine sand
(c) Coarse sand (d) Rock
23. Discharge ‘Q’ over an ogee spillway is given by (where symbols have their usual
(a) Q = CLHü (b) Q = CLH3/2
(c) Q = CL3/2 H (d) Q = C LH
24. Energy loss in a hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is given by : (symbols have their
usual meanings)
(a) E =
(b) E =
2g v1+v2
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above
25. Due to rise in temperature, the viscosity and unit weight of the percolating fluid are
reduced to 70% and 90% respectively. Other things being constant, the change in the
coefficient of permeability will be
(a) 20%ü (b) 28.6%
(c) 63.0% (d) 77.8%
26. For laminar flow in a pipe carrying a given discharge, the height of surface roughness is
doubled. In such a case the Darcy-Weisback friction factor will
(a) remain unchanged (b) be halved
(c) be doubled (d) increase four hold
27. Which one of the following pressure units represents the least pressure ?
(a) Millibar (b) mm of Mercury
(c) N/mm2 (d) kgf/cm2
28. The correct sequence in the direction of the flow of water for installation of Hydropower
plant is
(a) Reservoir, surge tank, turbine, penstock
(b) Reservoir, penstock, surge tank, turbine
(c) Reservoir, penstock, turbine, surge tank
(d) Reservoir, surge tank, penstock, turbine
29. The yield of well depends upon
(a) permeability of soil (b) area of aquifer opening into the well
(c) actual flow velocity (d) All the above
30. A homogeneous earthen dam is 24 m high and has a free board of 4 m. the flow net drawn
for the dam indicated the number of potential drops as 12 and the number of flow channels
as 3. The coefficient of permeability of the dam is 3 10–6 m/s. The discharge per m
length of the dam will be
31. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge in an irrigation outlet to the rate of change of
discharge of the distributory is known as
(a) Sensitivity (b) Modular ratio
(c) Flexibility (d) Setting
32. At a certain point in the floor of the weir, the uplift pressure head due to seepage is 3.75 m.
If the relative density of the concrete is 2.5, the minimum thickness of the floor required at
this point to counter act the uplift pressure is
(a) 3.75 m (b) 2.5 m
(c) 1.5 m (d) 1.25 m
33. The total number of possible GVF profiles in open channel are
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 9 (d) 15
34. In the design of hydraulic structures in alluvial rivers, the equation used to calculate the
normal depth of scour ‘R’ for a discharge intensity ‘q’ per m width is
(a) R = 4.75 q1/2 (b) R = 1.35 (q/f)2/3
(c) R = 1.35 (q2/f)1/3 (d) R = 1.2 (q2/g)1/3
35. A cross drainage work is termed as a canal syphon if it carries the canal
(a) below the drainage and the canal FSL is more than the bed level of the drain
(b) above the drainage and the drainage HFL is above the bed level of the canal
(c) below the drainage and the canal FSL is below the bed level of the drain
(d) above the drainage and the drainage HFL is below the bed level of the canal
36. The characteristic feature of a barrage is
(a) the provision of a raised crest across the river for flow regulation
(b) the provision of a series of gates across the river for flow regulation
(c) the creation of storage reservoir on the u/s side
(d) none of the above
37. Provision of a filter and a rock toe in an earthen dam is done to
(a) prevent the piping action in the dam section
(b) collection and drain out the seepage water out of dam
(c) reduce the quantity of seepage
(d) none of the above
38. The discharge per unit draw down at a well is known as
(a) specific yield (b) specific capacity
(c) safe yield (d) specific storage
39. At the foot of a spillway, the jump rating curve is below the tail water curve at low flows
and above it at high flows. The suitable type of energy dissipater for this situation is
(a) a sky-jump bucket (b) a horizontal apron
(c) a sloping apron (d) a stilling pool
40. The cut-off in the earthen dams and the rockfill dams is provided to
(a) reduce the loss of stored water through seepage
SES-03 9 Series-B
(b) prevent sub-surface erosion by piping action
(c) increase the efficiency of grouting operation
(d) reduce the uplift pressure in the base of the dam
41. The adjustable proportional module is a
(a) Modular outlet (b) Semi-modular outlet
(c) Non-modular outlet (d) Open flume outlet
42. During the formation of hydraulic jump
(a) the specific energy and specific force remains constant
(b) the specific energy increases and specific force decreases
(c) the specific energy decreases and specific force increases
(d) the specific energy decreases and specific force remains constant
43. In a gravity dam, the factor of safety required for overturning of dam should be at least
(a) 1.0 (b) 2.0
(c) 4.0 (d) 1.5
44. Structure which is built to divert the river water to canal is called as
(a) headworks (b) weir
(c) dam (d) marginal bund
45. In a flow of fluid through pipes, the hydraulic gradient line is always placed
(a) above the total energy line (b) below the axis of the pipe
(c) sloping in nature along with flow (d) below the total energy line
46. The relationship between Manning’s coefficient ‘n’ and Chezy’s coefficient ‘C’ is given
by (where R is hydraulic mean depth)
(a) C = R2/3/nü (b) C = R1/6/n
(c) C = R1/3/n (d) C = R1/4/n
47. At Vena contracta, the area of the waterjet is minimum and the velocity of emerging water is
(a) minimum (b) average
(c) maximum (d) zero
48. If a pipe of dia. 30 cm running full with water with velocity 100 m/sec is changed by a
pipe of dia. 15 cm, then the velocity of water flowing through the pipe will be
(a) 50 m/sec (b) 25 m/sec
(c) 200 m/sec (d) 400 m/sec
49. In Lacey’s silt theory, the relation is developed in between
(a) discharge and pressure
(b) velocity, discharge, silt factor and flow velocity
(c) bottom slope, discharge and scour depth
(d) all the above are correct
50. For ware action in dams, the maximum height of the free board is generally taken as :
(Where hw is the height of wave)
(a) 0.5ü hw (b) 0.75ü hw
(c) 1.25ü hw (d) 1.50 hw
SES-03 11 Series-B
51. The changes that take place during the process of consolidation of a saturated clay would
(a) an increase in pore water pressure and an increase in effective pressure
(b) an increase in pore water pressure and a decrease in effective pressure
(c) a decrease in pore water pressure and a decrease in effective pressure
(d) a decrease in pore water pressure and an increase in effective pressure
52. The initial and final void ratios of a clay sample in a consolidation test are 1.0 and 0.5
respectively. If the initial thickness of the sample is 2.4 cm, then its final thickness will be
(a) 1.3 cm (b) 1.8 cm
(c) 1.9 cm (d) 2.2 cm
53. A soil sample is having a specific gravity 2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78. The water content
required to fully saturate the soil at that void ratio would be
(a) 10%ü (b) 30%
(c) 50% (d) 70%
54. A sand deposit has a porosity of 1/3 and its specific gravity is 2.5. The critical hydraulic
gradient to cause sand boiling in the stratum will be
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.25
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.75
55. Density index of soil is denoted by
emax – max. void ratio
emin – min. void ratio
e – natural void ratio
(a) (emax – e)/(emax – emin) (b) (e – emax)/(emax – emin)
(c) (emax + e)/(emax – emin) (d) (e + emax)/(emax – emin)
56. As per soil classification system, silty sand is denoted by the symbol
(a) SWü (b) SP
(c) SM (d) SC
57. The relationship between discharge velocity V and seepage velocity Vs is
(a) Vs = V/n ü (b) Vs = V/e
(c) Vs = Vn (d) Vs = Ve
58. According to Terzaghi, the net ultimate bearing capacity of clay is given by
where : Nq, Nr & Nc are bearing capacity factors, C – cohesion
(a) C.Nq (b) C.Nr
(c) C.Nc (d) 1.2 C.Nc
59. The relationship between void ratio and porosity n is
(a) n =
1 – e
(b) n =
1 + e
(c) n =
1 – e
(d) n =
1 + e
60. Which one of the following does not posses plasticity ?
(a) Bentonite (b) Kaolinite
(c) Rock powder (d) Fat clay
61. The uniformity coefficient of soil with usual notation is defined as
(a) D30/D40 (b) D40/D50
(c) D50/D60 (d) D60/D10
62. According to IS code, allowable settlement of raft foundation on sand is
(a) 25 mm to 40 mmü (b) 40 mm to 65 mm
(c) 75 mm to 100 mm (d) 100 mm to 120 mm
63. The toughness index of clayey soil is given by
(a) Plasticity index/Flow index (b) Liquid limit / Plastic limit
(c) Liquidity index / Plastic limit (d) Plastic limit / Liquidity index
64. The two criteria for the determination of allowable bearing capacity of a foundation are
(a) tensile failure and compressive failure (b) tensile failure and shear failure
(c) bond failure and shear failure (d) shear failure and settlement
65. In an undrained tri-axial test on a saturated clay, the Poisson’s ratio is
1 + 3
1 – 3
1 – 3
1 + 3
66. Capillary water in soils
(a) causes negative pore water pressure
(b) reduces effective pressure
(c) reduces bearing capacity
(d) all the above are true
67. A given soil sample has the following given size analysis :
< 2.00 mm – 80%
< 0.66 mm – 60%
< 0.075 mm – 30%
< 0.005 mm – 10%
< 0.002 mm – 2%
The soil is
(a) skip graded (b) uniformly graded
(c) well graded (d) average graded
68. The figure given below represents the contact pressure distribution on underneath as :
SES-03 15 Series-B
(a) rigid footing on saturated soil (b) rigid footing on sand
(c) flexible footing on saturated clay (d) flexible footing on sand
69. Sheep foot roller is mostly used for the compaction of which type of soils ?
(a) Clays (b) Sand
(c) Gravel (d) Silt
70. Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through a
(a) fill material (b) dense coarse sand
(c) over consolidated stiff clay (d) dense fine sand
71. For frictional granular soils, the active earth pressure coefficient is
1 + sin 
1 – sin 
1 – sin 
1 + sin 
1 + cos 
1 – cos 
1 – cos 
1 + cos 
72. If the consistency index of a soil sample is equal to unity, it is as
(a) liquid limit (b) plastic limit
(c) shrinkage limit (d) none of the above
73. As per the Indian soil classification system, ‘MI’ is the symbol for
(a) Inorganic silt of high plasticity (b) Inorganic silt of high compressibility
(c) Inorganic silt of medium plasticity (d) None of the above
74. Seepage pressure always acts
(a) in the direction opposite to flow (b) in the direction of flow
(c) in the direction perpendicular to flow (d) in all the direction
75. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) “Degrees of freedom of a rigid block foundation are 6.”
(b) “A foundation is considered as shallow if its depth exceeds the width.”
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
76. For fine grained cohesive soils, method used for drainage is
(a) Ditches and sumps (b) Shallow well system
(c) Deep well system (d) Electro osmosis
77. Un-confined compression test is generally applicable to
(a) Non-cohesive soil (b) Saturated clays
(c) Silt (d) Sandy soil
78. Greater skin friction
(a) retards the sinking of well (b) accelerates the sinking of well
SES-03 17 Series-B
(c) does not affect the sinking of well (d) none of the above
79. Coulomb’s equation for shear strength can be represented by (symbols have their usual
(a) c = s + tan (b) c = s – tan 
(c) s = + c tan (d) s = c – tan 
80. When consolidation of saturated soil sample occurs, the degree of saturation
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) may increase or decrease
81. A soil has a bulk density of 17.6 kN/m3 and water content 10%. If the void ratio remains
constant then the bulk density for water content of 20% will be
(a) 16.13 kN/m3 (b) 19.20 kN/m3
(c) 19.36 kN/m3 (d) 17.6 kN/m3
82. A soil sample has liquid limit as 45%, plastic limit as 25% and shrinkage limit as 14%.
For a natural water content of 30%, the liquidity index of the soil will be
(a) 75 % (b) 80 %
(c) 25 % (d) None of the above
83. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 300 kN/m2. The depth of foundation is 1 m and
unit weight of soil is 20 kN/m3. Choosing a factor of safety as 2.5, the net safe bearing
capacity is
(a) 110 kN/m2 (b) 112 kN/m2
(c) 80 kN/m2 (d) 100.5 kN/m2
84. The group efficiency of pile group :
(a) will be always less than 100%
(b) will be always greater than 100%
(c) may be less than or more than 100%
(d) will be more than 100% for pile group in cohesionless soil and less than 100% for
those in cohesive soils
85. Which one of the following tests can not be done without undisturbed sampling ?
(a) Shear strength of sand (b) Shear strength of clay
(c) Compaction parameters (d) Atterberg limits
86. The results of a consolidated drained triaxial shear test on a normally consolidated clay are
shown in Fig. (a). The angle of internal friction will be
SES-03 19 Series-B
Fig. (a)
(a) sin–1(1/3) (b) sin–1(1/2)
(c) sin–1(2/3) (d) sin–1(1/ 2)
87. Westergaard’s analysis for stress distribution beneath loaded areas is applicable to
(a) sandy soils (b) clayey soils
(c) stratified soils (d) silty soils
88. If the coefficient of permeability for the soil is 10–7 cm/sec, then the soil can be classified
(a) clay (b) silt
(c) sand (d) gravel
90. With respect to c – soil in an infinite slope, identify if the following two statements are
True or False :
I. The stable slope angle can be greater than .
II. The factor of safety of the slope does not depend on the height of soil in the slope.
(a) Both statements are false. (b) I is true but II is false.
(c) I is false but II is true. (d) Both statements are true.
91. Maximum bending moment in roof purlins is taken as
(a) WL/10 (b) WL/20
(c) WL/40 (d) WL/50
92. Minimum pitch of rivets shall not be less than
(a) 1.5 d (b) 2.0 d
(c) 2.5 d (d) 3.0 d
93. With respect to the effective span of a steel beam, the maximum deflection of the beam
should not be more than
SES-03 21 Series-B
(a) 1/100 (b) 1/250
(c) 1/325 (d) 1/500
94. For roof truss, the member which is used as transverse member between two adjacent
trusses is called as
(a) principal rafter (b) common rafter
(c) purlin (d) all the above are true
95. The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel column is by
(a) lacing (b) battening
(c) tie plate (d) perforated cover plate
96. The design of eccentrically loaded steel column needs revision if
f 'c
f 'b
< 1 (b)
f 'c

f 'b
< 1
f 'c

f 'b
> 1 (d)
f 'c
f 'b
> 1
97. Lug angles
(a) are used to reduce the length of the connection
(b) are unequal angles
(c) increases shear leg
(d) All the above
98. The slenderness ratio of lacing flats is limited to
(a) 350 (b) 250
(c) 180 (d) 145
99. Splices for compression members are designed as
(a) short column (b) long column
(c) intermediate column (d) none of the above
100. Minimum number of battens required in a battened column is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
101. Steel beam should be designed for
(a) flexural strength (b) stiffness
(c) bukling (d) All the above
102. The thickness of the base plate provided for a steel column is determined from
(a) flexural strength of plate
(b) shear strength of plate
(c) bearing strength of the concrete pedestal
(d) punching criteria
103. Poisson’s ratio of steel in the elastic range is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.30
(c) 0.40 (d) 0.50
104. Load on connection is not eccentric for
(a) lap joint (b) single cover butt joint
(c) double cover butt joint (d) none of the above
105. Which one of the following is the mode of failure in a fillet weld material ?
(a) Tension (b) Shear
(c) Bearing (d) Crushing
106. The diameter of rivet hole in tension members using rivet of diameter more than 24 mm
will be equal to
(a) rivet diameter + 3 mm (b) rivet diameter + 2 mm
(c) rivet diameter + 1.5 mm (d) rivet diameter
107. The thickness of the gusset plate for column base should not be less than
(a) 6 mm (b) 8 mm
(c) 12 mm (d) 16 mm
108. Which of the following is not a compression member ?
(a) Strut (b) Tie
(c) Rafter (d) Boom
109. Which one of the following will be preferred for a column ?
(a) ISLB (b) ISMB
(c) ISWB (d) ISHB
110. The structural advantage of using steel as a structural member is
(a) small weight to strength ratio (b) high speed of erection
(c) speed of dismantling (d) scrap value
111. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter of 18 mm is
driven. The net sectional area of plate is
(a) 18.00 cm2 (b) 28.20 cm2
(c) 28.05 cm2 (d) 32.42 cm2
112. The effective length of fillet weld is
(a) Total length – 2 throat size (b) Total length – 2 weld size
(c) 0.7 Total length (d) Total length – (weld size 2 )
113. In a diamond rivetting for a plate of width ‘b’ and rivet diameter ‘d’, the efficiency of the
joint is given by
(a) (b-d)/b (b) (b-2d)/b
(c) (b-d)/d (d) (b-2d)/d
114. The working stress for structural steel in tension is of the order of
(a) 15 N/mm2ü (b) 75 N/mm2ü
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File Type: pdf Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering Paper.pdf (308.7 KB, 108 views)
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Old October 20th, 2015, 10:32 AM
Default Re: Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering Paper

I am preparing for the Uthrakhand Combined Engineering Service Civil Engineering exam and I need the previous year Paper of it so can you please provide me this?
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