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Old May 29th, 2014, 11:58 AM
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Default Re: AIPMT exam previous year question papers

As you want to get the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. Which one, of the following statements about all the four
of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguinis correct.
(1) Spongilla has special collared cells called
choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
(2) All are bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining
three are poikilothermic
(4) Leech is a fresh water form while all others
Ans. (1)
2. Which one of the following statements about
human’sperm incorrect?
(1) Acrosome servesas a sensory structure leading
the sperm towards the ovum
(2) Acrosome serves no particular function.
(3) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure
used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting
in fertilisation
(4) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the
egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
Ans. (4)
3. The nerve centres which control the body temperature
and the urge for eating are contained in
(1) Cerebellum
(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pons
Ans. (3)
4. What is true about RBCs in humans ?
(1) They frarisport about 80 per cent oxygen
pnly and the rest; 20 per cent of it is transported
in dissolved state in blood plasma
(2) They do not carry CO2 at all
(3) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
(4) They do not carry CO2 at all They carry about
20-25 per cent of CO2 They transport 99.5
percent of O2
Ans. (3)
5. Which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms?
(1) Rhizopus nigriccans
(2) Retrovirus
(3) Baculovirus
(4) Salmonella typhimurium
Ans. (2)
6. Select the two corret statements out of the four
(a–d) given below about lac operon.
(1) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
repressor and inactivate it
(2) Inthe absence of lactose the repressor binds
with the operatorregion
(3) The z-gene codes for permease
(4) This was elucidated byFrancois Jacob and
Jacque Monod
Ans. (1)
7. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is
comparable to which part of the seed in other
monocotyledons ?
(1) Aleurone layer
(2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledons
(4) Endosperm
Ans. (3)
8. Ringworm in humans is caused by:
(1) Nematodes
(2) Viruses
(3) Bacteria
(4) Fungi
Ans. (4)
9. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower
of China rose (Hibiscus rosasinensis) is:
(1) Polyandrous (2) Polyadelphous
(3) Monadelphous (4) Diadelphous
Ans. (3)
10. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ
conservation ?
(1) Sacred groves
(2) National park
(3) Wildlife sanctuary
(4) Seed bank
Ans. (4)

11. Wind pollinated flowers are:
(1) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(2) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(3) small, brightly coloured, producing large number
of pollen grains
(4) small, producing large number of dry pollen
Ans. (4)
12. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
(1) Calotropis
(2) Bean
(3) Gulmohur
(4) Cassia
Ans. (2)
13. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores
and the decomposers is called:
(1) Standing crop
(2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity
Ans. (3)
14. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:
(1) DNA and testosterone
(2) ribose and potassium
(3) fructose and calcium
(4) glucose and calcium
Ans. (3)
15. The principal nitrogenouse excretory compound in humans
is synthesised:
(1) in liver and also eliminated by the same through
(2) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
(3) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(4) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
Ans. (2)
16. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Industrial melanism
(4) Connecting link
Ans. (1)
17. Which one of the following statements about morula in
humans is corect?
(1) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm
and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(2) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an
uncleaved zygote
(3) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplams as an
uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(4) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA
than in an uncleaved zygote
Ans. (3)
18. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:
(1) Manganese (2) Zinc
(3) Molybdenum (4) Copper
Ans. (3)
19. The two gases making highest relative contribution to
the greenhouse gases are:
(1) CFC5 and N2O (2)CO2 and N2O
(3) CO2 and CH4 (4) CH4 and N2O
Ans. (3)
20. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with
thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of:
(1) simple goitre (2) thyrotoxicosis
(3) toxic goitre (4) cretinism
Ans. (1)
21. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation
(1) Free Central (2) Axile
(3) Marginal (4) Basal
Ans. (4)
22. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from:
(1) Antipodal cells
(2) Diploid egg
(3) Synergids
(4) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
Ans. (4)
23. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Dictyosome
Ans. (3)
24. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of
blood vessels is:
(1) ciliated columnar epithelum
(2) squamous epithelium
(3) cuboidal epithelium
(4) columnar epithelium
Ans. (2)

25. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
of another flower of the same plant is called:
(1) Karyogamy (2) Autogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Gitnogamy
Ans. (4)
26. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum
(1) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that
of the ovum
(2) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation
(3) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes
entry into the Fallopian tube
(4) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a
Ans. (4)
27. Which one of the following is not used in organic
(1) Oscillatoria (2) Snail
(3) Glomus (4) Earthworm
Ans. (1)
28. Which two of the following changes (a-d) usually tend
to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high
altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(a) Increase in red blood cell size
(b) Increase in red blood cell production
(c) Increased breathing rate
(d) Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are:
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
Ans. (3)
29. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
(1) Minerals (2) Forest
(3) Coal (4) Petroleum
Ans. (2)
30. Slect the correct statement from the following :
(1) Biogas commonly called gobar gas, is pure
(2) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of
sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic
(3) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic
bacteria on animal waste
(4) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found
in rumen of cattle
Ans. (2)
31. The permissible use of the teachnique amniocentesis is
(1) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate
(2) detecting any genetic abnormality
(3) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(4) artificial insemination
Ans. (2)
32. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleus
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Mitochondrian
Ans. (1)
33. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution
(1) Cytokinins (2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellins (4) Phytochorme
Ans. (2)
34. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d) and
four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human
Respiratory Respiratory
capacities volumes
(a) Rsidual volume 2500 mL
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(c) Inspiratory reserve 1200 mL
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
Shich one of the following is the correct matchign of
two capacities and volumes?
(1) (d) 3500 mL (a) 1200 mL
(2) (a) 4500 mL (b) 3500 mL
(3) (b) 2500 mL (c) 4500 mL
(4) (c) 1200 mL (d) 2500 mL
Ans. (1)
35. The signals for parturition originate from:
(1) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(2) fully developed foetus only
(3) placenta only
(4) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
Ans. (4)
36. Select the correct statement from the ones given below
with respect to dihybrid cross
(1) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome
show similar recombinations as the tightly linked

(2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
show very few recombinations
(3) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
show higher recombinations
(4) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show
very few recombinations
Ans. (2)
37. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which:
(1) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(2) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA
(3) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA
(4) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for
binding of DNA ligase
Ans. (3)
38. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
(1) Cervix (2) Ampulla
(3) Isthmus (4) Infundibulum
Ans. (4)
39. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene
I. It has three alleles-AA, IB and i. Since there are three
different alleles, six different genotypes are possible.
How many phenotypes can occur?
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) Three (4) One
Ans. (1)
40. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative
expression of
(1) the dominant Bacilus in a culture
(2) a certain pesticide
(3) the density of bacteria in a medium
(4) a particular pollutant
Ans. (4)
41. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic
code, is its being:
(1) Universal (2) Specific
(3) Degenerate (4) Ambiguous
Ans. (4)
42. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype
can be determined by:
(1) Pedigree analysis (2) Back cross
(3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid cross
Ans. (3)
43. Which one of the following does not follow the central
dogma of molecular biology?
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) HIV
(3) Pea (4) Mucor
Ans. (2)
44. Consider the following four statements (a-d) regarding
kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient
may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible
for the graft rejection
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection
of the graft
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant
depends on specific interferons
The two correct statements are:
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
Ans. (2)
45. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice:
(1) is completely resistant to all insect pests and
diseases of paddy
(2) gives high yield but has no characterisitic aroma
(3) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth
(4) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
Ans. (4)
46. Heartwood differs from sapwood in:
(1) Having dead and non0conducting elements
(2) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens
(3) Presence of rays and fibres
(4) Absence of vessels and parenchyma
Ans. (1)
47. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences
in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by sonie
particular restriction enzyme?
(1) 5’-----GAATTC------3’
(2) 5’-----GACGTA------3’
(3) 5’-----CGTTCG------3’
(4) 5’-----GATATG------3’
Ans. (1)

48. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
molecule is called:
(1) Clone (2) Plasmid
(3) Vector (4) Probe
Ans. (4)
49. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of
hair on its head are usually observed during which month
of pregnancy>
(1) Sixth month (2) Third month
(3) Fourth month (4) Fifth month
Ans. (4)
50. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
(1) Zinc (2) Boron
(3) Molybdenum (4) Magnesium
Ans. (4)
51. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in
photosynthesis of:
(1) Angiosperm (2) Alga
(3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperm
Ans. (2)
52. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
(1) Archaea (2) Monera
(3) Protista (4) Fungi
Ans. (3)
53. Which one of the following symbols and its
representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
(1) = unaffected female
(2) = male affected
(3) = mating between relatives
(4) = unaffected male
Ans. (3)
54. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A
and B represent resectively?
(1) Late Anaphase - Prophase
(2) Prophase - Anaphase
(3) Mataphase - Telophae
(4) Telophase - Metaphase
Ans. (1)
55. Study the four statements (a-d) given below and select
the two Correct ones our of them :
(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding
on grain are ecologically similar in being
(b) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in main
taining species diversity of some inverte
(c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction
of prey species
(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine,
strychnine by the plants are metabolic dis
The two correct statements are :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
Ans. (2)
56. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation
of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What
do a, b and c represent respectively ?
External level
Internal level
(1) partial regulator conformer regulator
(2) regulator conformer partial regulator
(3) conformer regulator partial regulator
(4) regulator partial conformer regulator
Ans. (2)
57. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of :
(1) Brinjal (2) Cucumber
(3) Guava (4) Plum
Ans. (4)
58. Male and female gametophytes are independent and
free-living in :
(1) Pinus (2) sphagnum
(3) Mustard (4) Castor
Ans. (2)
59. Photoperiodism was first characterised in :
(1) Tomato (2) Cotton
(3) Tobacco (4) Potato
Ans. (3)

60. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion
of which one of the following ?
(1) Adrenaline
(2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Both Androstenedione and
Ans. (1)
61. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is
an example of :
(1) Thigmotropism (2) Thermotaxis
(3) Thigmotaxis (4) Thigmonasty
Ans. (1)
62. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for
producing :
(1) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat
milk for making ghee
(2) animals like bulls for farm work as they have
super power
(3) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vac
cine before use in humans
(4) transgenic models for studying new treatments
for certain cardiac diseases
Ans. (3)
63. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic
(1) Ctenophores (2) Corals
(3) Flat worms (4) Sponges
Ans. (3)
64. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly
acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two groups:
(1) Protists and mosses
(2) Liverworts and yeasts
(3) Eubacteria and archaea
(4) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
Ans. (3)
65. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3
plants due to :
(1) Presence of thin cuticle
(2) Lower rate of photorespiration
(3) Higher leaf area
(4) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in
the leaf cells
Ans. (2)
66. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms
are :
(1) Transfusion tissue (2) Tracheids
(3) Vessels (4) Fibres
Ans. (2)
67. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine
Devices (IUDs) :
(1) suppress sperm motility
(2) prevent ovulation
(3) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) increase phagocytosis of sperms
Ans. (1)
68. Sertoli cells are found in :
(1) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to
germ cells
(2) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
(3) ovaries and secrete progesterone
(4) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
Ans. (1)
69. Which one of the following structures between two
adjacent cells in an effective transport pathway ?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Plasmalemma
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Plastoquinones
Ans. (3)
70. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been
developed for :
(1) Enhancing mineral content
(2) Drought-resistance
(3) Insect-resistance
(4) Enhancing shelf life
Ans. (3)
71. Algae have cell wall made up of :
(1) Pectins cellulose and proteins
(2) Cellulose, cellulose and proteins
(3) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(4) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
Ans. (3)
72. Which one of the following is one of the characteristics
of a biological community ?
(1) Mortality
(2) Sex-ratio

(3) Stratification
(4) Natality
Ans. (3)
73. One example of animals having a single opening to
the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus
is :
(1) Ascidia (2) Fasciola
(3) Octopus (4) Asterias
Ans. (2)
74. Satellite DNA is useful tool in :
(1) Forensic science
(2) Genetic engineering
(3) Organ transplantation
(4) Sex determination
Ans. (1)
75. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is :
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
(3) Beijenickia (4) Rhodospirillum
Ans. (4)
76. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant
diseases in :
(1) Glomus
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Baculovirus
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis
Ans. (2)
77. Which one of the following cannot be explained on
the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance ?
(1) Alleles do not show any blending and both the
characters recover as such in F2 generation.
(2) Factors occur in pairs
(3) The discrete unit controlling a particular char
acter is called a factor
(4) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and
the other recessive
Ans. (1)
78. Virus envelope is known as :
(1) Nucleoprotein (2) Core
(3) Capsid (4) Virion
Ans. (3)
79. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional,
this will adversely affect :
(1) maturation of sperms
(2) smooth movement of food down the intestine
(3) production of somatostatin
(4) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
Ans. (2)
80. Which one of the following statements about certain
given animals is correct ?
(1) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(2) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
(3) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoe
(4) Molluses are acoelomates
Ans. (3)
81. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins
and proteins is called :
(1) Biomagnification (2) Micropropagation
(3) Somatic hybridisation
(4) Biofortification
Ans. (4)
82. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of :
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Typhoid
(3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
Ans. (2)
83. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is :
(1) Oscillatoria (2) Frankia
(3) Rhizobium (4) Azospirillum
Ans. (4)
84. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate
is oxidised without an external electron acceptor
is called :
(1) Aerobic respiration
(2) Photorespiration
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Fermentation
Ans. (4)
85. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to AIDS ?
(1) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per
cent with proper care and nutrition
(2) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper Tlymphocytes
thus reducing their numbers
(3) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food
together with an infected person
(4) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV in
Ans. (2)

86. Which one of the following statement in regard to the
excretion by the human kidneys is correct ?
(1) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is
reabsobed by the renal tubules
(2) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is imperme
able to electrolytes
(3) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is imperme
able to water
(4) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reab
sorbing HCO3

Ans. (1)
87. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are :
(1) High yield and production of toxic protein crys
tals which kill dipteran pests
(2) High yield and resistance to bollworms
(3) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(4) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle
Ans. (2)
88. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer
of which one of the following into the fallopian
tube ?
(1) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(2) Zygote only
(3) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(4) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Ans. (4)
89. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear
at :
(1) Late metaphase
(2) Early prophase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Early metaphase
Ans. (2)
90. The plasma membrane consists mainly of :
(1) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
(2) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
(3) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(4) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
Ans. (4)
91. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem?
(1) Phellogen
(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Intrafascicular cambium
(4) Interfascicular cambium
Ans. (2)
92. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in :
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Plasmodium
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Streptococcus
Ans. (4)
93. Infectious proteins are present in :
(1) Viroids
(2) Satellite viruses
(3) Gemini viruses
(4) Prions
Ans. (4)
94. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from :
(1) Vas deferens to epididymis
(2) Epididymis to urethra
(3) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(4) Rete testis to vas deferens
Ans. (4)
95. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid
valve of the human heart is partially non-functional,
what will be the immediate effect ?
(1) The blood will tend to flow back into the left
(2) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will
be reduced
(3) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed
(4) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
Ans. (2)
96. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of :
(1) Angina pectoris
(2) Gout
(3) Tetany
(4) Anaemia
Ans. (3)
97. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances
like :
(1) fatty acids and glycerol
(2) fructose and some amino acids
(3) amino acids and glucose
(4) glucose and fatty acids
Ans. (3)

98. Select the correct statement from the ones given below
(1) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and
heart rate
(2) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
stimulates recovery
(3) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them
tell the truth
(4) Morphine is often given to persons who have
undergone surgery as a pain killer
Ans. (4)
99. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for :
(1) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
(2) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(3) Addition of preservatives to the product
(4) Purification of the product
Ans. (2)
100.Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
matched ?
(1) Corpusluteum – Relaxin (secretion)
(2) Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(3) Glucagon – Beta cells (source)
(4) somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
Ans. (3)

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Old September 12th, 2014, 12:25 PM
Default Re: AIPMT exam previous year question papers

Rivelate Anne Hathaway riprese di The Intern a Manhattan, e che
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