MAT Exam Previous Years Question Papers

Can any one here please share the previous year question paper of Management Aptitude Test (MAT) Exam??

As per your request here I am sharing the previous year question paper of Management Aptitude Test (MAT) Exam

Samples questions and answers that appeared in MA Section:
Q1 There are 4 boys and 3 girls. What is the probability the boys and girls sit alternately?
Ans 1/35
Q2 Two trains are 2 kms apart. Speed of one train is 20m/s and the other train is running at 30 m/s .
Lengths of the trains are 200 and 300m. In how much time do the trains cross each other?
Ans 50 seconds
Q3 A& B are two players. They need to select one number from 1 to 25. If both the players select the
same numbers they will win the prize. What is the probability of not winning in a single trial?
Ans 24/25
Q4 Four different integers are in increasing AP such that one number is equal to sum of the squares
of the other three numbers.
Ans –1,0,1,2
Q5 A train runs first half of the distance at 40 km/hr and the remaining half at 60 km/hr. What is the
average speed for the entire journey?
Ans 48km/hr
Q6 In a company there were 75 % skilled employees and the remaining unskilled. 80% of the skilled
and 20% of the unskilled were permanent. If the temporary employees were 126 find the total
number of employees.
Ans 360
Q7 A person sells a horse at 12.5% loss. If he sells for 92.5 more, he will have a profit of 6%. What
is the CP?
Ans 500
Q8 One tap takes 15 min to fill, another tap takes 12 min to fill and the third tap can empty in 20
min. In how much time the tank would be full.
Ans 10 min
Q9 Three mixtures of water and milk are in the ratio 6:7, 5:9, 8:7. What would be the ratio if they
were mixed together?
Ans: None of the options were correct. The right answer would be data insufficient.
Q10. Two trains are separated by 200km. One leaves at 6:00 am from Delhi and reaches Merrut at
10:00 am. Another train leaves from Merrut at 8:00 am and reaches Delhi at 11:30 am. At what time
two trains meet each other?
Ans 8:56 am
Q11 If the height of the triangle decreases by 40% and the breadth increases by 40%. Then the
effect on the area is
Ans 16% decrease.
Q12
In how many ways can you go from one corner to the diagonally opposite corner if the movement is
through the shortest route..
Ans: 6
Q13 There are only two candidates. 10% of the voter did not vote. 60 votes were invalid. If elected
got 308 votes more than the opponent. The elected person got 47% of the total votes. How many
votes did each get.
Ans: Option 4 ( only one option is having a difference of 308 votes.)
Q14. If area of circle is equal to area of triangle is equal to area of square then which is having the
larger perimeter.
Ans: Triangle.
Q15. If log1227= a then find the value of log616
Ans. (4(3-a)) / (3+a)
Q16 A grandfather has 5 sons and daughters and 8 grandchildren.. They have to be arranged in
arrow such that the first 4 seats and last four seats are to be taken by grandchildren and the
grandfather would not sit adjacent to any of the grandchildren.
Ans. 4 * 8! * 5!
Q17 A parellopiped of length = 5cm, breadth = 3cm and height 4 cm. Cube of side 4 cm, cylinder of
radius 3 cm and length = 3cm and sphere of radius 3cm. Arrange them in descending order of
volume
Ans: Sphere>Cylinder>Cube>Parellopiped.
Q18 Which of the following statements is/are correct.
Ans: The correct Statements were
(1) 99/101 > 97/99 > 95/97 , (2) 992/1012 > 972/992 > 952/972
Q19. A farmer has a rectangular plot. He wants to do fencing along one of the side with the help of
the posts. Two posts being on two corners. He brings 5 post less than what he has initially plan
because of which the distance between two consecutive post became 8 m instead of 6 m.. What is
the length of the side and no of post?
Ans. 120 , 16
Q20: A circular ground of circumference of 88m. A strip of land 3m wide inside and along the
circumference is to be leveled. What is the expenditure if leveling cost is Rs. 7 per metre square.
Ans. 1650
Q21: Four horses are tethered at the four corners of a square of side 14cm such that two horses
along the same side can just reach each other. They were able to graze the area in 11 days. How
many days will they take in order to graze the left out area?
Ans. 3
Q22: Two clocks are synchronized at 12 midnights. One clock gains 2 min per hour and the other
clock loses 1min per hour. How many minutes apart its minute hand will be at 11.am
Ans. None of these.
Sample Questions and Answers in GK Section:
Ques1. Bull and bear refer to
Ans: Stock exchange
Ques2. Bhakra Nangal dam was built on river
Ans. Sutlej
Ques3. Tetanus is caused by
Ans. Bacteria
Ques4. De beers manufacture
Ans: Diamonds
Ques5. Commercial vehicles are not manufactured by which of the following
Ans: Birla Yamaha
Ques6. Wings of fire autobiography by
Ans: President A.P.J Abdul Kalam.
Ques7. Which is not a courier company.
Ans: Essar
Ques8. Software and Services Company.
Ans: NASSCOM
Ques9. Panchayti Raj started from which state in India.
Ans: Rajastan
Ques10. Duration of First five yr plan
Ans 1950-1951 to 1955-1956
Ques11.Which one of following is Banker’s Bank
Ans: Reserve Bank of India
Ques12.Economic growth is indicated by
Ans: GDP
Ques13. All India service is created by
Ans: Parliament.
Ques14. Procedure for removal of which two are same out of the following…
Ans. CEC and Judge of the supreme court.
Ques15. Arrange PMs of India in chronological order……
Ans: Morarjee Desai, Charan Singh, VP Singh, Chanderashekhar.
Ques16. Volkswagon is from which country?
Ans Germany
Ques17. First woman Prime minister in the world
Ans: Seremavo Bandarnaike
Ques18. Which is associated with football
Ans: Merdeka
Ques 19. Venue of XXI winter Olympics 2010
Ans: Canada
Ques 20. Crossed cheque can be Encashed …..
Ans: Through bank
Ques21. Standard charterd bank merged with……
Ans: ANZ Grindlay’s bank
Ques 22. Which disease is mentioned along with national policy with AIDS
Ans. Tuberculosis
Ques 23. National income in India compilation is done by…
Ans: CSO
Ques 24. Rajdhani Express runs between
Ans: Between Delhi and few state capitals
Ques 25. Maple leaf represents which one of the foolowing countr
Ans: Canada
Ques 26. PAN is required for……
Ans: D-Mat account
Ques27. Which one of following is not matched correctly….
Ans: Faraday-Diffussion of gases

__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

The MAT is sands for the Management Aptitude Test. this test is conducted on all India bases in the months of May, September and December by All India Management Aptitude Testing Service (AIMATS),New Delhi.

The MAT has been approved by the Government of India as a National Entrance Test for admission to MBA and similar programs.

This test is conducted to admission in the Post Graduate Diploma in Management (PGDM), Post Graduate Diploma in Information Technology & Management (PGDITM) and equivalent programs.


You are asking for the MAT Exam Previous Years Question Papers. Here I am uploading a file that contains the MAT Exam Previous Years Question Papers. You can download this from here. Here I am also providing you the some content of the file this is looks like as follows:

1. Which of the following correctly constitutes the three organs of the government?
(a) Executive, democracy and judiciary (b) Executive, legislature and judiciary
(c) Executive, bureaucracy and judiciary (d) Legislature, bureaucracy and democracy
2. Which of the following sources yields the maximum revenue to the Union Government?
(a) Income tax (b) Property tax (c) Excise duty (d) Customs duty
3. April 22 is observed every year as ___.
(a) Earth Day (b) World Environment Day
(c) World Health Day (d) World Haemophilia Day
4. Who is leading the LTTE delegation for the peace process with Sri Lanka?
(a) Vaiko (b) V. Prabhakaran (c) G. L. Peris (d) Anton Balasingham
5. Who was the first UN Secretary General?
(a) Trygve Lie (b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) U. Thant (d) Dr Boutros Boutros Ghali
6. The island of Perejil was recently in dispute between ___.
(a) Italy and Morocco (b) Spain and Morocco
(c) Ghana and Morocco (d) Spain and Ghana
7. NASDAQ is an acronym for
(a) The National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations.
(b) The National Association of Securities and Dealers Automatic Quotations.
(c) The National Association of Associated Securities and Dealers Quotations.
(d) The National Association of Securities Dealers and Accepted Quotations.
8. Which among the following countries does not have veto power in the UN Security Council?
(a) France (b) England (c) Germany (d) Russia
9. India is not the member of which of the following organizations?
(a) NAM (b) SAARC (c) ASEAN (d) Commonwealth
10. Where is the headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) situated?
(a) Vienna (b) New York (c) Abu Dhabi (d) Kuwait City
11. Deodhar Trophy, Rohinton Baria Trophy and Sheesh Mahal Trophy are associated with ___.
(a) football (b) cricket (c) hockey (d) badminton
12. Who is the winner of the Vyas Samman for the year 2002?
(a) Govinda Chandra Pandey (b) Ram Moorti Tripathi
(c) Dr Kailash Vajpayee (d) Kamleshwar
13. Which of the following represents the name of the mascot of the World Cup Cricket that took place in March
2003?
(a) Dazzler (b) Panda (c) Rhinto (d) Pincho
14. Uber Cup is associated with which of the following games.
(a) Hockey (b) Football (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton
15. With which of the following Articles of the Constitution would you associate the establishment of panchayats?
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 52 (d) Article 61
16. Approximately what percentage of the total GDP is contributed by the agriculture sector of India?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 30
17. Which of the following is a pharmaceutical company?
(a) TAG Heuer (b) Aventis (c) Cartier (d) Omega
18. ‘Kananaskis’ was the venue of the G-8 Summit that took place in 2002. This place is located in which of the
following countries?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) Canada (d) Australia
19. Which of the following represents the expansion of ‘T’ in C-DOT?
(a) Teleservices (b) Telecome
(c) Telecommunications (d) Telematics
20. Which among the following represents the number of member countries of the Commonwealth?
(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 54 (d) 62
21. ‘El Nino’ is a term you would associate with ___.
(a) astrology (b) meteorology (c) computers (d) psychology
22. Who among the following is the chief executive officer (CEO) of world’s largest software company Microsoft?
(a) Paul Allen (b) Bill Gates (c) John Sidgmore (d) Steve Balmer
23. Which of the following personalities would you associate with committee on taxes?
(a) Y. V. Reddy (b) Vijay Kelkar (c) N. K. Singh (d) M. S. Ahluwalia
24. Who is regarded as ‘The Father of Economics’?
(a) J. M. Keynes (b) J. K. Galbraith (c) Vernon Smith (d) Adam Smith
25. Who was appointed as the chairman of the 12th Finance Commission, recently?
(a) Dr Rakesh Mohan (b) Prof S. D. Tendulkar
(c) Dr C. Rangarajan (d) V. Kamesam
26. According to a recent report, the most competitive economy of the world is ___.
(a) Finland (b) USA (c) Singapore (d) Hong Kong
27. The disinvestment target of Government of India for 2002-03 is ___.
(a) Rs. 8,000 crore (b) Rs. 10,000 crore (c) Rs. 12,000 crore (d) Rs. 14,000 crore
28. The first person to walk in space is ___.
(a) Neil Armstrong (b) A. A. Leonov (c) Yuri Gagarin (d) Edwin Aldrin
29. By sex ratio we mean
(a) the number of females per 1,000 males.
(b) the number of males in the population per 1,000 female population.
(c) the number of married females in the population per 1,000 male population.
(d) the number of married males in the population per 1,000 female population.
30. Match the columns:
State Capital
(A) Uttaranchal 1. Ranchi
(B) Chhattisgarh 2. Dispur
(C) Jharkhand 3. Dehradun
(D) Assam 4. Raipur
(a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1 (d) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
31. Who among the following cannot be impeached?
(a) The President (b) The Vice President (c) The Chief Justice (d) The Governor
32. The number of members nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha is ___.
(a) two (b) eight (c) ten (d) twelve
33. Who among the following do not participate in the election for the President?
(a) The elected members of the Lok Sabha
(b) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states
(d) The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and state legislatures
34. Which of the following representative bodies cannot be dissolved?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly (d) State Legislative Council
35. Which of the following is the true index of economic growth?
(a) An increase in the per capita income at constant prices.
(b) An increase in the national income at current prices.
(c) An increase in the gross domestic product at constant prices.
(d) An increase in the gross domestic product at current prices.
36. World Human Rights Day is observed every year on ___.
(a) December 1 (b) December 8 (c) December 10 (d) December 16
37. What effect does an indirect tax have on a commodity?
(a) Increases its price (b) Reduces its price
(c) Increases its production (d) Keeps the price constant
38. The largest read daily in India is ___.
(a) The Times of India (b) The Hindustan Times
(c) Amar Ujala (d) Dainik Bhaskar
39. Which constitutional amendment is called the ‘Mini Constitution’?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 43rd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 45th Amendment
40. Which organization celebrated 150 years of its establishment in 2002?
(a) Post and Telegraph (b) Indian Railways
(c) Airport Authority of India (d) VSNL
Direction for questions 41 to 45: Read the passage, and answer the questions following
Not only mathematics is dependent on us and our thoughts, but in another sense, we and the whole universe of
existing things are dependent on mathematics. The apprehension of this purely ideal character is indispensable if we
are to understand rightly the place of mathematics as one among the arts. It was formerly supposed that pure reason
could decide in some respects as to the nature of the actual world: geometry, at least, was thought to deal with the
space in which we live. But we now know that pure mathematics can never pronounce upon the questions of actual
existence: the world of reason, in a sense, controls the world of facts, but it is not at any point creative of fact, and in
the application of its results to the world in time and space, its certainty and precision are lost among approximations
and working hypotheses. The objects considered by mathematicians have, in the past, been mainly of a kind suggested
by phenomena; but from such restrictions, the abstract imagination should be wholly free. A reciprocal liberty must
be accorded; reason cannot dictate to the world of facts, but the fact cannot restrict reason’s privilege of dealing with
whatever objects its love of beauty may cause to seem worthy of consideration. Here, as elsewhere, we build up our
ideals out of the fragments to be found in the world; and in the end, it is hard to say whether the result is a creation
or a discovery.
41. With which of the following would the author agree?
I. Mankind relies on mathematics for its very existence.
II. Geometry was believed to deal with space in which we live.
III. The world of reason has no control over the world of fact.
(a) Only I (b) I and III (c) Only III (d) I and II
42. What does ‘indispensable’ mean?
(a) Cannot be cured (b) Cannot be curtailed (c) Cannot be evaded (d) Cannot bear it
43. When the results of pure mathematics are applied to the universe of existing things,
(a) its findings no longer have complete certainty and preciseness.
(b) mathematics ceases to be a science.
(c) the abstract imagination of the mathematicians is free of restrictions.
(d) the nature of the actual world stands revealed.
44. According to Russell, ‘a reciprocal liberty’ must be obtained between
(a) mathematics and applied science.
(b) reason and facts.
(c) mathematical objects and objects created by abstract imagination.
(d) the study of pure mathematics and an application of its results.
45. The end-product of mathematics
(a) is a statement of what was previously unknown.
(b) is a creation of what did not exist earlier.
(c) is a discovery of previously unknown object.
(d) could possibly be either a creation or a discovery.
Direction for questions 46 to 50: Read the passage, and answer the questions following it.
One of the greatest public speaking failures of my career took place last summer at Valparaiso University, Indiana
where I addressed a convention of editors of college newspapers. I said many screamingly funny things but the
applause was dismal at the end. During the evening, I asked one of my hosts in what way I had offended the audience.
He replied that they had hoped I would moralize. They had hired me as a moralist.
So now when I speak to students, I do moralize. I tell them not to take more than they need, not to be greedy. I tell them
not to kill, even in self-defence. I tell them not to pollute water or the atmosphere.
I tell them not to raid the public treasury. I tell them not to commit war crimes or to help others to commit war crimes.
These morals go over very well. They are of course echoes of what the young say to themselves.
MAT Test Papers Page .. 5 ..
I had a friend from Schenectady visited me recently, and he asked me this, “Why are fewer and fewer young Americans
going into science each year?” I hold him that the young were impressed by the war crimes trials at Nuremberg. They
were afraid that careers in science could all too easily lead to the commission of war crimes. They don’t want to work
on the development of new weapons. They don’t want to make discoveries which will lead to improved weapons.
They don’t want to work for corporations that pollute water or atmosphere or raid the public treasury. So they go into
other fields. They become physicists who are so virtuous that they don’t go into physics at all.
At the University of Michigan, at Ann Arbor, the students have been raising hell about the university doing secret
government work. I go to talk with some of the students about the protests that had been made against the recruiters
of Dow Chemicals, manufacturers of napalm among other things.
I offered the opinion that an attack on a Dow recruiter was about as significant as an attack on the doorman or theatre
usher. I didn’t think the recruiter stood for anything.
I called attention to the fact that during the Dow protest at Harvard a couple of years back, the actual inventor of
napalm was able to circulate through the crowd of protestors unmolested. I didn’t find the fact that he was unmolested
reprehensible. I saw it as a moral curiosity. Though I did not mean to suggest to the students at Ann Arbor that the
inventor of napalm should have been given one hell of a time.
46. In this address at Valparaiso University, the author
(a) became the greatest public speaker of the summer.
(b) made the audience laugh a lot by screaming in a funny way.
(c) was dismayed by the audience at the end.
(d) felt that he did make a significant impression on the audience.
47. Moralists are
(a) young people who speak to themselves about water and atmospheric pollution.
(b) not fond of jokes made of sacrosanct things.
(c) opposed to taking up science as a career.
(d) concerned about hiring working to raid the public treasury.
48. The author’s perception is that young people
(a) like to hear lectures on morals.
(b) were so impressed by the Nuremberg trials that they gave up physics.
(c) would have been scientists but for the pollution created by science.
(d) do not like to kill even in self-defence.
49. The author regarded the inventor of napalm as
(a) morally reprehensible.
(b) someone who should have been attacked but was not.
(c) a person who was attacked by Harvard students.
(d) a moral curiosity.
50. It is implied from the author’s comments that the present-day students
(a) do not care much for scientific discoveries.
(b) prefer to be told what is right or wrong.
(c) lack a sense of discipline.
(d) lack a sense of humour.
Direction for questions 51 to 53: In the following questions, select the answer choice that provides the best meaning
of the word given.
51. ELICIT
(a) to act illegally (b) to deceive (c) to draw forth (d) to entreat
MAT Test Papers Page .. 6 ..
52. CULMINATE
(a) to slander (b) to reach a final effect (c) to overwhelm (d) to heap together
53. APPERTAIN
(a) to comprehend (b) to procure (c) to belong (d) to find out
Direction for questions 54 to 58: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate choices.
54. For almost seven years, Mrs Jacob ___ unable to move her head.
(a) was (b) looks (c) had been (d) is
55. Biofeedback training is based on the ___ that we can gain control on our bodily functions.
(a) understanding (b) aspect (c) feeling (d) premise
56. The sharp cracking of a twig mixed with a bird’s ___ made a great impact on him.
(a) cry (b) shriek (c) squawk (d) scream
57. It is possible to listen to ___ as well as to sound, just as it is possible to see both light and shadow.
(a) music (b) silence (c) instrument (d) voice
58. He prefers swimming ___ any other sport.
(a) than (b) over (c) to (d) against
Direction for questions 59 to 63: From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one
in the question.
59. wealth : poverty
(a) part : whole (b) good : excellent (c) prodigal : chary (d) wicked : sinful
60. misfortune : catastrophe
(a) miniature : big (b) limited : infinite (c) knowledge : learning (d) generosity : parsimony
61. molecule : atoms
(a) family : sisters (b) light : bulb (c) tissue : cells (d) body : limb
62. limp : walk
(a) flap : fly (b) run : race (c) stutter : talk (d) chew : digest
63. riddle : solve
(a) mirage : illusion (b) joke : amuse (c) tangle : unravel (d) target : aim
Direction for questions 64 to 68: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph, Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among
the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
64. A. It is turning off the tap.
B. And with no consensus of the exit policy, the government is damned if it supports loss-making units and
damned if it doesn’t.
C. The private sector did the same in the past because securing legal sanction for closure was virtually
impossible.
D. After years of funding the losses of public sector companies, the government is doing the unthinkable.
(a) DACB (b) CADB (c) DCAB (d) BDAC
MAT Test Papers Page .. 7 ..
65. A. Trade protocols were signed, the dollar as the medium of exchange was ignored, trade was denominated
in rupees and the exchange rate between the two countries was to be fixed outside the ambit of free
markets.
B. A young India, some years after independence fashioning her foreign policy of non-alignment, found it
prudent to stay close to the former Soviet Union.
C. Once upon a time there was a superpower named Soviet Union that attracted apprehension of the global
aspirations of the other superpower, the US.
D. One way of doing this was to evolve a bilateral relations in trade that could be called upon to provide a
buffer against the arm-twisting by the US.
(a) CBAD (b) BADC (c) BCAD (d) CBDA
66. A. I had heard that sort of thing before.
B. He said that his generation was the first to believe that it had no future.
C. A young American made earthling stopped by my house the other day to talk about some book of mine
he had read.
D. He was the son of a Boston man who had died an alcoholic vagrant.
(a) CDBA (b) ABCD (c) CBAD (d) ABDC
67. A. In 1995, that ratio has gone up to 60 per cent, an average annual growth of 8-10 per cent.
B. Fifty years ago, India’s roads carried 11 per cent of the goods traffic that moved.
C. Indian roads have emerged as a very important mode of transport.
D. That sounds good, but at the same time, the number of vehicles registered has gone up by 121 times in the
same period.
(a) ABCD (b) CDAB (c) CBAD (d) CABD
68. A. Siasat competes with Rehnuma and Munsif, both of are aggressive players.
B. As many as 25 per cent of the 0.3 million NRIs in the Gulf are estimated to be from Andhra Pradesh and
mostly Hyderabad.
C. The Urdu daily scenario of Hyderabad is very competitive.
D. For Siasat, an interesting outgrowth is its international presence.
(a) ABCD (b) CBDA (c) CADB (d) BCDA
Direction for questions 69 to 73: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath
each sentence four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among
the four options.
69. He considers me as a fool.
(a) I as a fool (b) me for a fool (c) I for a fool (d) me a fool
70. The accountant has all ready given the balance sheet.
(a) already given (b) already give (c) already make (d) allready given
71. Jack may be a better player to me.
(a) a better player than me (b) a better player than I
(c) the better player to me (d) the better player than I
72. He not only was competent but also intelligent.
(a) Not only he was competent (b) He was not only competent
(c) Not only was he competent (d) He was competent not only
73. There have been heavy rainfall yesterday.
(a) have been strong rainfall (b) has been strong rainfall
(c) has been heavy rainfall (d) was been heavy rainfall
MAT Test Papers Page .. 8 ..
Direction for questions 74 to 77: Choose the alternative that gives the closest meaning for the underlined expression.
74. Our plans were all set, and then she came along to upset the apple cart.
(a) to make apple pie (b) to bring a basket of apples
(c) to spoil our plans (d) to be clumsy
75. I still insist that Ryan is not as black as he is painted.
(a) not so tamed (b) not a good artist
(c) not pessimistic (d) not as bad as he is said to be
76. He chewed over the bizarre incident and decided to inform his uncle.
(a) slept over (b) overate (c) dreamed over (d) consider at length
77. His friends advised him to be fair and square in his dealings.
(a) careful (b) considerate (c) polite (d) upright
Direction for questions 78 to 80: Mark the alternative that has the opposite meaning of the word given in the
question.
78. audit
(a) check (b) bother (c) study (d) overlook
79. authenticate
(a) real (b) genuine (c) confirm (d) tenacious
80. avid
(a) eager (b) passive (c) interested (d) energetic
Requirement Supply
81. What was the percentage increase in the supply of power from the start to the end of the given period?
(a) 144 (b) 112 (c) 128 (d) None of these
82. The cumulative difference between the requirement and supply of power (kWh in billions) within a decade of
1974-75 to 1983-84 is
(a) 119 (b) 131 (c) 149 (d) 151
83. What is the ratio of the availability of supply in 1976-77 to the requirement in 1983-84?
(a) 0.57 (b) 0.63 (c) 0.51 (d) 0.36
84. The difference between the percentage increase of supply from 1976-77 to 1980-81 and the percentage increase
in requirement from 1980-81 to 1984-85 is
(a) 12% (b) 19% (c) 16% (d) None of these
85. How many years have registered a minimum of 10% increase in the requirement of power compared to the
previous year?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
Direction for questions 86 to 90: Answer the questions based on the following information provided in the tabular
form, given below. A survey was conducted for monthly per capita consumer expenditure of different food and nonfood
items (in per cent).
1983 1978 1973 1983 1978 1973
Cereal 36.3 37.4 46.0 22.9 24.4 27.2
Milk 7.5 7.7 7.3 9.2 9.5 9.3
Oil 4.0 3.6 3.5 4.8 4.6 4.8
Meat 3.0 2.7 2.5 3.6 3.5 3.3
Vegetable 4.7 3.8 3.6 5.0 4.4 4.4
Fruit 1.4 1.1 1.1 2.1 2.0 2.0
Sugar 2.8 2.6 3.8 2.5 2.6 3.6
Other foods 5.8 5.5 5.2 9.0 9.0 9.9
Food total 65.6 64.3 72.9 59.1 60.0 64.5
Intoxicants 3.0 2.9 3.1 2.4 2.4 2.8
Fuel 7.0 6.0 5.6 6.9 6.4 5.6
Clothing 8.6 8.7 7.0 7.6 7.0 5.3
Footwear 1.0 0.7 0.5 1.1 0.6 0.4
Durables 2.3 7.0 2.2 2.3 8.9 2.2
Mis cellaneous 12.5 10.3 8.7 20.5 14.6 19.2
86. The percentage of per capita expenditure on food registered what percentage decrease between 1973 and 1983
(for urban consumers)?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 10.5 (d) 8
87. If the total per capita expenditure in an urban household in 1973 was Rs. 531, approximately, how much of it
was spent on sugar?
(a) Rs. 16.80 (b) Rs. 18.30 (c) Rs. 19.10 (d) Rs. 21.00
88. If the total per capita expenditure in 1978 in the rural areas was Rs. 580, how much of it was spent on clothing?
(a) Rs. 48.20 (b) Rs. 50.50 (c) Rs. 51.70 (d) Rs. 54.75
89. In 1983, if the rural and urban per capita expenditures were Rs. 665 and Rs. 765, respectively, what was the
difference between their per capita expenditures on food items?
(a) Rs. 16 (b) Rs. 19 (c) Rs. 21 (d) Rs. 25
90. In 1973, in the rural areas, the per capita expenditure on oil formed what per cent of the per capita expenditure
on vegetables?
(a) 97.2 (b) 99.4 (c) 102.5 (d) None of these

Q1 There are 4 boys and 3 girls. What is the probability the boys and girls sit alternately?
Ans 1/35
Q2 Two trains are 2 kms apart. Speed of one train is 20m/s and the other train is running at 30 m/s .
Lengths of the trains are 200 and 300m. In how much time do the trains cross each other?
Ans 50 seconds
Q3 A& B are two players. They need to select one number from 1 to 25. If both the players select the
same numbers they will win the prize. What is the probability of not winning in a single trial?
Ans 24/25
Q4 Four different integers are in increasing AP such that one number is equal to sum of the squares
of the other three numbers.
Ans –1,0,1,2
Q5 A train runs first half of the distance at 40 km/hr and the remaining half at 60 km/hr. What is the
average speed for the entire journey?
Ans 48km/hr
Q6 In a company there were 75 % skilled employees and the remaining unskilled. 80% of the skilled
and 20% of the unskilled were permanent. If the temporary employees were 126 find the total
number of employees.
Ans 360
Q7 A person sells a horse at 12.5% loss. If he sells for 92.5 more, he will have a profit of 6%. What
is the CP?
Ans 500
Q8 One tap takes 15 min to fill, another tap takes 12 min to fill and the third tap can empty in 20
min. In how much time the tank would be full.
Ans 10 min
Q9 Three mixtures of water and milk are in the ratio 6:7, 5:9, 8:7. What would be the ratio if they
were mixed together?
Ans: None of the options were correct. The right answer would be data insufficient.
Q10. Two trains are separated by 200km. One leaves at 6:00 am from Delhi and reaches Merrut at
10:00 am. Another train leaves from Merrut at 8:00 am and reaches Delhi at 11:30 am. At what time
two trains meet each other?
Ans 8:56 am
Q11 If the height of the triangle decreases by 40% and the breadth increases by 40%. Then the
effect on the area is
Ans 16% decrease.
Q12
In how many ways can you go from one corner to the diagonally opposite corner if the movement is
through the shortest route..
Ans: 6
Q13 There are only two candidates. 10% of the voter did not vote. 60 votes were invalid. If elected
got 308 votes more than the opponent. The elected person got 47% of the total votes. How many
votes did each get.
Ans: Option 4 ( only one option is having a difference of 308 votes.)
Q14. If area of circle is equal to area of triangle is equal to area of square then which is having the
larger perimeter.
Ans: Triangle.
Q15. If log1227= a then find the value of log616
Ans. (4(3-a)) / (3+a)
Q16 A grandfather has 5 sons and daughters and 8 grandchildren.. They have to be arranged in
arrow such that the first 4 seats and last four seats are to be taken by grandchildren and the
grandfather would not sit adjacent to any of the grandchildren.
Ans. 4 * 8! * 5!
Q17 A parellopiped of length = 5cm, breadth = 3cm and height 4 cm. Cube of side 4 cm, cylinder of
radius 3 cm and length = 3cm and sphere of radius 3cm. Arrange them in descending order of
volume
Ans: Sphere>Cylinder>Cube>Parellopiped.
Q18 Which of the following statements is/are correct.
Ans: The correct Statements were
(1) 99/101 > 97/99 > 95/97 , (2) 992/1012 > 972/992 > 952/972
Q19. A farmer has a rectangular plot. He wants to do fencing along one of the side with the help of
the posts. Two posts being on two corners. He brings 5 post less than what he has initially plan
because of which the distance between two consecutive post became 8 m instead of 6 m.. What is
the length of the side and no of post?
Ans. 120 , 16
Q20: A circular ground of circumference of 88m. A strip of land 3m wide inside and along the
circumference is to be leveled. What is the expenditure if leveling cost is Rs. 7 per metre square.
Ans. 1650
Q21: Four horses are tethered at the four corners of a square of side 14cm such that two horses
along the same side can just reach each other. They were able to graze the area in 11 days. How
many days will they take in order to graze the left out area?
Ans. 3
Q22: Two clocks are synchronized at 12 midnights. One clock gains 2 min per hour and the other
clock loses 1min per hour. How many minutes apart its minute hand will be at 11.am
Ans. None of these.
Sample Questions and Answers in GK Section:
Ques1. Bull and bear refer to
Ans: Stock exchange
Ques2. Bhakra Nangal dam was built on river
Ans. Sutlej
Ques3. Tetanus is caused by
Ans. Bacteria
Ques4. De beers manufacture
Ans: Diamonds
Ques5. Commercial vehicles are not manufactured by which of the following
Ans: Birla Yamaha
Ques6. Wings of fire autobiography by
Ans: President A.P.J Abdul Kalam.
Ques7. Which is not a courier company.
Ans: Essar
Ques8. Software and Services Company.
Ans: NASSCOM
Ques9. Panchayti Raj started from which state in India.
Ans: Rajastan
Ques10. Duration of First five yr plan
Ans 1950-1951 to 1955-1956
Ques11.Which one of following is Banker’s Bank
Ans: Reserve Bank of India
Ques12.Economic growth is indicated by
Ans: GDP
Ques13. All India service is created by
Ans: Parliament.
Ques14. Procedure for removal of which two are same out of the following…
Ans. CEC and Judge of the supreme court.
Ques15. Arrange PMs of India in chronological order……
Ans: Morarjee Desai, Charan Singh, VP Singh, Chanderashekhar.
Ques16. Volkswagon is from which country?
Ans Germany
Ques17. First woman Prime minister in the world
Ans: Seremavo Bandarnaike
Ques18. Which is associated with football
Ans: Merdeka
Ques 19. Venue of XXI winter Olympics 2010
Ans: Canada
Ques 20. Crossed cheque can be Encashed …..
Ans: Through bank
Ques21. Standard charterd bank merged with……
Ans: ANZ Grindlay’s bank
Ques 22. Which disease is mentioned along with national policy with AIDS
Ans. Tuberculosis
Ques 23. National income in India compilation is done by…
Ans: CSO
Ques 24. Rajdhani Express runs between
Ans: Between Delhi and few state capitals
Ques 25. Maple leaf represents which one of the foolowing countr
Ans: Canada
Ques 26. PAN is required for……
Ans: D-Mat account
Ques27. Which one of following is not matched correctly….
Ans: Faraday-Diffussion of gases

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Answered By StudyChaCha Member