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Old May 23rd, 2014, 05:16 PM
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Default Re: Test of English as a Foreign Language previous year question papers

As you want to get the previous year question papers of exam of Test of English as a Foreign Language so here is the information of the same for you:

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Read the following passage & answer the questions that follows:

Though the U.S. prides itself on being a leader in the world community, a recent report shows that it lags far behind other industrialized countries in meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens. The U.S.has a higher infant mortality rate, a higher proportion of low birthweight babies,a smaller proportion of babies immunized against childhood diseases and a much higher rate of adolescent pregnancies . theses findings , described as a “quiet crisis “ requiring immediate and far-reaching action , appeared in a report prepared by a task force of educators , doctors , politicians and business people . According to the report , a fourth of the nation’s 12 million infants and toddlers live in poverty . as many as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to develop intellectually , physically and socially . child immunization are too low , more children are born into poverty , more are in substandard care while their parents work and more being raised raised by single parents . when taken together these and other risk factors can lead to educations and health problems that are much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parenthood. Women with unplanned pregnancies are less likely to seek pre-natal care . in the U.S. 80% of teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned .The problems continue after birth where unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships often go hand in hand . Since 1950, the number of single parent families has nearly tripled . More then 25 percent of all births today are to unmarried mothers . As the number of single parent families grows and more women enter the work force , infants and toddlers are increasingly in the care of people other than their parents .
Most disturbingly , recent statistics show that American parent are increasingly neglecting or abusing their children , In only four years from 1987-1971 the number of children in foster care increased by over 50 percent. Babies under the age of one are the fastest growing category of children entering foster care . The crisis affects children under the age of three most severely , the report says.yet, it is this period- from infancy through preschool years- that sets the stage fir a child’s future.

Q: 1 The main focus of the passage is on the plight of
(a) orphaned children (b) teenage mothers
(c) low birth weight babies (d) unwed mothers
(e) None of these
Q-2 Children falling in which are group are most severely affected by the quiet crisis”? (a) Below 1 years (b) Below 3 years
(c) Between 2 & 3 years (d) Between 1& 3 years
(e) None of these
Q-3 Which of the following does not constitute the ‘quite crisis’ in the U.S. as per the task force report.?
(a) Lower proportion of new born babies with normal weight
(b) Higher incidence of adolescent girls becoming mothers
(c) Lower rate of babies surviving childhood diseases
(d) Larger proportion of babies who are deprived of immunization
(e) Increasing cases of teenage couples getting divorced
Q-4 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage ?
(a) The number of single-parent families today is approximately three times that four
(b) The number of children in the U.S.entering foster care has decreased after 1991.
decades ago .
(c) In the U.S. the number of infants living in poverty is about 3 million .
(d) Only 20 percent of all the pregnancies in the U.S. are planed
(e) About 6 million infants in the U.S. are likely to develop educational and health
problems .
Q-5 The number of children born to married mothers in the U.S. is approximately how many times the number of children born to unwed mothers ?
(a) 1.5 times (b) 2 times
(c) 3 times (d) 3.5 times
(e) Not mentioned in the passage
Q-6 Children born out of unplanned pregnancies are highly vulnerable because
(a) they are raised by single parents. (b) their parents are mostly poor .
(c) they are mostly malnourished. (d) they are less likely to receive prenatal care .
(e) their parents are emotionally immature.
(Q)-7 decide which of the following factor is/ are responsible for the physical, intellectual and social under-development of infants in the U.S.?
A. Illiteracy of parents B. Lack of parental care C. poverty
(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only C (d) Both A & C (e) Both B & C
(Q)-8 An increasing number of infants in the U.S. are in foster care on account of
(a) an increasing number of single parent families with the female member working
(b) an increasing number of women maintaining the status of unwed motherhood
and becoming economically independent.
(c) an increasing number of employed couples who are required to stay apart
(d) an increasing number of women getting divorced and abandoning their babies
(e) an increasing number of parents who lack awareness about baby-care
(Q)-9 The task force report seems to be based on the data pertaining to the period
(a) 1987-91 (b) 1950 onwards till data
(c) 1987 onwards till date (d) 1950-91
(e) 1991 onwards till date


Read the following passage & answer the questions that follows :

During World War II, an inventor submitted a scheme for building a giant airship armed with death rays to the British government . He had provided details of the engines, navigational system , etc. when question about the death-ray themselves he exclaimed , “ Oh, I thought the military had plenty of them available ,”
If a robot is defined, provisionally, as a machine made in the image of man, then it must be stated that like death – rays in 1940, robots in 1990 remain in the world of speculation not of established fact yet, just as the inventor took the existence of death – rays for granted and concentrated on putting them to use the popular imagination has been much more preoccupied by the question of what we should do when robots do arrive than with the business of actually making them , it is rather as if the Wright brothers first flight had been preceded by an extensive literature on air – traffic control .
The prevailing image on the robots as a walking talking mechanical man is firmly established in our consciousness. It is worth pondering how this nation –a hypothesis , took on so vivid a form . there are , it is true , machines in existence which we have , perhaps rather prematurely , categorized as robots . but long before even this primitive vanguard became a practical proposition the idea of the robots was enjoying a lively existence in human imagination . it seem to have been around even before it gained a name . other inventions had to take concrete

Q: 10 The author of the passage through the story of the inventor in Britain, desires to illustrate the point that.
(a) Scientists and inventors usually have a very fertile imagination.
(b) Adults & not only children can develop an absorbing in fantastic weapons.
(c) Speculation & hypothesisng are well-known & necessary aspect of inventions.
(d) People sometimes fail to distinguish between what is well-known but imaginary &
What is fact?
Q-11 The author compares the compares the hypothetical literature on air-traffic control with.
(a) People’s current preoccupation with how to deal with robots when we encounter them.
(b) The elaborate technical details that those working on robots must attend to.
(c) The regulation that will be necessary to protect robots from industrial espionage.
(d) The British inventor’s plan for the proposed airship.
Q-12 Though the walking taking man model of the robot is misleading, it persists in science fiction because.
(a) Science fiction by definition distorts reality
(b) The ability to talk gives them the potential to deal with metaphysical issue that science
fictions explore.
(c) Authors want the robot to be the symbol of all machine kind.
(d) The image is so strong that readers especially will feel lost if it is changed.

(d) The image is so strong that readers especially will feel lost if it is changed.

Q-13 According to the passage, Capek’s play RUR is of special interest because.
(a) It provided an account of Capek’s struggle to construct a mechanical man
(b) It transformed Capek who was an Engineer into a famous playwright.
(c) It showed that science & technology were quite advance in Czechoslovakia by about 1920.
(d) It gave the name ‘robot’ to the familiar motion of a mechanical man.
Q-14 In the realm of science fiction, mechanical men have been treated differently from other technological paraphernalia because.
(a) They could conveniently be used like the joker in the pack of cards.
(b) They could be characters in their own right and not only be props
(c) They could easily move from one setting in space or time to another.
(d) They could help answer metaphysical questions beyond the reach of human characters.
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as used in the
Passage.
Q-15 Paraphernalia
(a) Accessories (b) Group
(c) Details (d) Inputs
Q-16 Obscure
(a) Foolish (b) Inaudible
(c) negligibly . (d) Unimportant

Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning

Q-17 Extensive
(a) Enormous (b) Far-reaching
(c) Absolute (d) Meager


Read the following passage & answer the questions that follow:

The past decade has upset many preconceptions about development and this more than anything else makes it difficult to be overly definite about what the next decade has in store. But there are a few things that one can assert with some confidence. First education, health and productive employment are crucial both for growth and for equity. we have tended o assume that all of these are the consequences of rapid economic growth and the only growth can generate the resources required for these purposes . but increasingly , it appears that these are better seen as the causes rather than as consequences of development of development . Virtually every case of successful development involves a prior improvement in literacy, technical skills , health status and access to production work .
Second, technological competence is the most important resource endowment and it explains a far larger proportion of growth in output trade than more conventional actors like natural resources or capital accumulation. the competence required is not just in research , in fact technological dynamism in the factory and the farm is more important than the presence of a larger research establishment .
Third the environmental imperative can no longer be ignored today as an international issue; itb is second only to disarmament. Nationally, the developmental consequences of environmental neglect are increasingly obvious.
In the Indian context there are at least two further factors which reinforce the above propositions . the first is population growth . given the pace of expansion of the population and the workforce human resource development acquires an added urgency . population growth is also one , but not necessarily the most important factor which underlines environmental stress in rural and urban areas . the second factor is that as a larger country we cannot carve out an independent position in the global system without building up a substantial capacity for self-reliant growth . the acquisition of technical competence is crucial for this purpose .
Until now we have tended to treat human resource development , technology issues and environment as subsidiary to the main task of planning . the thrust has been on : quantitative expansion of infrastructure and production with a focus on production targets like tones of steel , KWh of electricity , etcetera capacity targets like number of schools and students , number of villages electrified , etcetera , - catching up with known technologies – fuller use of natural resources – maximum mobilization of financial resources .
Q: 18 According to the passage we have so far placed more emphasis on which of the following?
(a) Maximum utilization of available finances
(b) Following known technologies
(c) Increased number of basic facilities and meeting number targets
(d) Optimum use of available natural resources
Q-19 According to the author which of the following factors support and strengthen his point of view ?
(1) Necessity for carrying out growth on the basic of our own strength
(2) Increased emphasis on production and coverage targets .
(A) Only (1) and not (2) (B) Only (2) and not (1)
(C) Either (1) or (2) (D) Both (1) and (2)
Q-20 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage ?
(a) We will have bright future by only catching up known technologies
(b) Optimum self-reliance is the need of the day
(c) We have to now emphasise aspects of human resource development
(d) Technological competence has to be given due priority over more conventional
factors
Q-21 According to the author , which of the following cannot be view as cause of development?
(a) Impovement in literacy (b) Betterment in health services
(c) Increase in underemployment (d) Speedy economic growth
Q-22 What seems to be the purpose of the author in writing this passage ?
(a) To show how the policy markers have failed
(b) Review of the past with a view to evolve positive direction for future
(c) A review of world affairs with special emphasis on developed countries (d) To prove how his predictions have turned out to be correct
Q-23 According to the author at the national level with passage of time , the effects of which of the following are being felt ?
(a) Progressive degradation of technological competence in urban areas
(b) Emphasis on slow rate of disarmament as compared to other nations
(c) Expansion of workforce of high quality
(d) Lack of attention and action for protecting environment wealth
Q-24 According to the author , which of the following is a less important factor resulting in environment stress in rural and urban areas ?
(a) Continued environment neglect (b) Rapid economic growth
(c) Rate of growth of population (d) Availability of productive employment
Q-25 What seems to be the approach of the author regarding present status of research ?
(1) He desires that more research establishments should come up
(2) Application of new technologies in factories and field is more vital than setting
of research laboratories
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Neither (1) nor (2) (d) Both (1) and (2)

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Old January 10th, 2015, 10:07 AM
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Default Re: Test of English as a Foreign Language previous year question papers

Hi I want the question paper of TOEFL for English test of Foreign Language?
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Old January 10th, 2015, 10:10 AM
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Default Re: Test of English as a Foreign Language previous year question papers

Ok, as you want the question paper of TOEFL for English test of Foreign Language so here I am providing you.

TOEFL question paper
1. (A) They don’t enjoy swimming.
(B) They won’t go swimming in the lake today
(C) They don’t know how to swim
(D) They’ll swim in the lake tomorrow.
2. (A) The style of sweater she’s wearing is very common.
(B) The man saw Jill wearing the sweater.
(C) She wore sweater for the first time yesterday.
(D) She usually doesn’t borrow cloths from Jill.
3. (A) He went to see the dentist a week ago.
(B) The woman should cancel her appointment with the dentist.
(C) The woman’s toothache will go away by itself.
(D) The woman should have seen the dentist by now.
4. (A) She’s planning a trip to Antarctica.
(B) She thinks attending the lecture will be helpful to her.
(C) Her geography class is required to attend the lecture.
(D) She has already finished writing her report.
5
(A) The woman should join the chess club
(B) He’s not a very good chess player
(C) The woman needs a lot of time to play chess
(D) He’s willing to teach the woman how to play chess
6
(A) Ask Alice if the man can borrow the novel.
(B) Return the novel to Alice immediately.
(C) Help the man find his own copy of the novel
(D) Find out how much the novel costs.
7
(A) He has already tasted the chocolate pudding.
(B) Chocolate is his favorite flavor.
(C) He doesn’t want any chocolate pudding.
(D) There is no more chocolate pudding left.
8.
(A) See the movie at a theater close by.
(B) Wait until later to see the movie.
(C) Consider seeing an English version of the movie.
(D) Call the Pine Street Cinema to see what time the movie starts.
9.
(A) He doesn’t know how to find the student’s grade.
(B) He doesn’t know if Dr. Wilson has finished grading the midterm exams.
(C) He isn’t allowed to tell the student her grade.
(D) Dr. Wilson doesn’t want to be contracted while she’s away.
10
(A) She had to wait even longer than the man did to have her car inspected.
(B) The man should have had his car inspected sooner.
(C) The auto inspection center will be closed at the end of the month.
(D) The man doesn’t need to have his car inspected until next month.
11.
(A) He can act as a subject in the experiment.
(B) He thinks the woman’s experiment is difficult to understand.
(C) He’s busy working on this own experiment.
(D) He’s willing to help the woman run(?) the experiment.
12
(A) Look for the misplaced check.
(B) Ask the bookstore for a refund
(C) Borrow some cash from the woman
(D) Repair this desk
13
(A) He hadn’t heard that Karen had a new roommate.
(B) Karen wouldn’t give specific reasons for her feelings.
(C) He thinks that Karen shouldn’t be angry.
(D) Karen won’t be getting a new roommate after all.
14
(A) The woman didn’t submit the thesis proposal to him on time.
(B) He returned the thesis proposal to the woman a week ago.
(C) He hasn’t read the thesis proposal yet.
(D) The thesis proposal isn’t acceptable.
15
(A) It only cost $400.
(B) He bought it a year ago.
(C) It has broken down.
(D) It’s not as bad as his last car.
16
(A) Purchase some ingredients.
(B) Give the man a recipe.
(C) Write down the directions to the supermarket.
(D) Check to see if the stew is ready.
17
(A) He arrived at the theater later.
(B) He left his watch in the theater.
(C) The production seemed much shorter than it actually was
(D) He did not enjoy the production
18
(A) He can’t understand the instructions.
(B) He doesn’t have a computer
(C) He has a degree in computer science.
(D) He needs to take his computer to be repaired.
19
(A) Arrange by phone to have a bucket delivered.
(B) Deliver the papers herself.
(C) Take her recycling to the town office
(D) Return the bucket to the recycling department.
20
(A) She prefers her eggs fried.
(B) She never eats breakfast
(C) She gets an allergic reaction when eating eggs.
(D) She doesn’t eat a lot for breakfast.
21
(A) He doesn’t know anything about engineering.
(B) He wants the woman to postpone the talk
(C) He hasn’t finished preparing for his presentation
(D) He regularly gives talks to high school students.
22
(A) He told the woman to take seven courses this semester.
(B) He knew that the woman’s schedule would be too difficult for her.
(C) His current schedule is also very demanding.
(D) Taking so many classes will enable the woman to graduate early
23.
(A) He needs help repairing his truck
(B) He doesn’t want to use his truck for the field trip.
(C) The woman can use his truck if she agrees to drive.
(D) He doesn’t think all the telescopes will fit in this truck
24.
(A) Dr. Luby won't be taking students to New York this year.
(B) She doesn’t know where the man can buy theater tickets.
(C) Dr. Luby is performing in play on Broadway.
(D) She’s going on a theater trip with Dr. Luby.
25
(A) The woman’s source of information is reliable.
(B) He didn't enjoy taking history with Dr. Parker.
(C) He thought Dr. Parker’s tests were easy.
(D) Dr. Parker is no longer teaching history.
4
26
(A) The man doesn’t have air conditioning.
(B) The man’s air conditioner is broken.
(C) The man hasn’t been using his air conditioner.
(D) The summer has been unusually hot.
27
(A) He has decided how he’s going to spend the prize money.
(B) He doesn’t know how much his rent is going to increase.
(C) He ’s already planning to enter(?) next year’s essay contest.
(D) He has already paid his landlord for next year’s rent.
28
(A) He’ll probably postpone the test until after he talks about chapter 16 in class
(B) He usually tells the students ahead of time what will be on his tests
(C) He’ll probably talk about chapter 16 in class today.
(D) He might test the students on material not discussed in class
29
(A) He has been applying only for advertised jobs.
(B) He’s convinced that there’s a shortage of jobs.
(C) He doesn’t have time to read all the job ads.
(D) He’ll help the woman find a job.
30
(A) To make plans for the evening.
(B) To ask her about the assignment.
(C) To talk to her roommate.
(D) To give her some information.
31
(A) A class presentation they’re preparing.
(B) A television program the man is watching.
(C) Visiting a close friend of theirs.
(D) Studying for a test.
32
32
(A) He’s taking a break from studying.
(B) He has already finished studying.
(C) He was assigned to watch a program by his professor.
(D) He’s finding out some information for a friend
33
(A) He didn’t know that she was enrolled in a linear algebra course.
(B) He though she preferred to study alone.
(C) He thought she had made arrangements to study with Elizabeth.
(D) He had told her that he had done poorly on a recent test.
34
(A) He and Elizabeth argued recently.
5
(B) He heard Elizabeth did poorly on the last test.
(C) He doesn’t want to bother Elizabeth so late in the evening.
(D) He’d rather study in his own dormitory.
35
(A) A more economical diesel(?) fuel.
(B) Characteristics of a new type of fuel..
(C) Where a new energy source is located.
(D) How to develop alternative energy sources.
36
(A) He’s studying for a test
(B) He lost his notes.
(C) He missed the class.
(D) He’s doing research on alternative fuels.
37
(A) It will reduce the amount of pollutants in the air.
(B) It will increase the amount of unpleasant odors from vehicles.
(C) It will eventually destroy the ozone layer.
(D) It will reduce the cost of running large vehicles.
38
(A) It’s expensive to manufacture
(B) It hasn't been adequately tested.
(C) It damages car engines.
(D) It’s dangerous to transport.
39
(A) To help him explain the information to his roommate.
(B) To help him write a paper
(C) To prepare for a test.
(D) To tell her if the notes are accurate.
40
(A) The life and times of an important modern poet.
(B) How a poem’s images relate to its meaning.
(C) The musical quality of modern poetry.
(D) The poems of Gerthnde(?) Stein.
41
(A) She’s the most famous of the modern poets
(B) She didn’t publish any of her works in her lifetime.
(C) She was better known as a prose writer than as a poet.
(D) She began her career as a writer relatively late in her life.
42
(A) It reflects poetic techniques that were rejected by modern poets.
(B) It’s from a poem that the students have read.
(C) It’s the title of a poem by John Ashbery.
(D) It’s an example of a statement that is “empty but pleasing to hear.
43
(A) Read some poems out loudly (?)
(B) Research the life of Gertrude Stein.
(C) Compare the poems of Gertrude Stein to the poems of John Ashbery.
(D) Write a few lines of poetry.
44.
(A) Employment in the fishing and whaling industries.
(B) Nineteenth century sea captains.
(C) The economic importance of sailing ships
(D) The development of the steamship
45
(A) They were protected by a strong United States Navy.
(B) They were supported by a well-developed railroad system.
(C) Most crew members had experience on foreign ships.
(D) As part(?) owners of the ships, captains got some of the profits.
46
(A) They carried passengers, but not cargo
(B) They were large, but surprisingly fast.
(C) They were the first successful steam-powered ships
(D) They were more reliable than other ships of the 1860’s.
47
(A) It’s now taught with the aid of computers
(B) It isn’t considered as important today as it was in the past.
(C) Children today learn it earlier than children did in the past.
(D) A lot of time is spent teaching it.
48
(A) To indicate the emphasis teachers once placed on penmanship
(B) To criticize a technique used to motivate children.
(C) To illustrate the benefits of competition.
(D) To suggest that teachers be recognized for their efforts.
49
(A) How educators create a curriculum
(B) Why some parents object to the teaching of penmanship
(C) The standards for penmanship in state curricula
(D) The effects of rewarding good penmanship.
50
(A) The number of hours per week that must be spent teaching penmanship
(B) The level of penmanship a child is expected to have.
(C) The recommended method for teaching penmanship.
(D) The reason computers should be used to help in the teaching of penmanship.
1. From 1949 onward, the artist
Georgia O’Keeffe made New
Mexico ______.
(A) her permanent residence was
(B) where her permanent
residence
(C) permanent residence for her
(D) her permanent residence
2. Just as remote-controlled satellites
can be employed to explore outer
space, _______employed to
investigate the deep sea.
(A) can be robots
(B) robots can be
(C) can robots
(D) can robots that are
3. In ______ people, the areas of
the brain that control speech are
located in the left hemisphere.
(A) mostly of
(B) most
(C) almost the
(D) the most of
4. Stars shine because of _______
produced by the nuclear reactions
taking place within them.
(A) the amount of light and heat is
(B) which the amount of light
and heat
(C) the amount of light and heat
that it is
(D) the amount of light and heat
5. ________ is not clear to researchers.
(A) Why dinosaurs having
become extinct
(B) Why dinosaurs became extinct
(C) Did dinosaurs become extinct
(D) Dinosaurs became extinct
6. Although many people use the
word “milk” to refer cow’s milk,
_______ to milk from any animal,
including human milk and goat’s
milk.
(A) applying it also
(B) applies also
(C) it also applies
(D) but it also applies
7. The first transatlantic telephone
cable system was not established
_______ 1956.
(A) while
(B) until
(C) on
(D) when
8. _______ no two people think
exactly alike, there will always
be disagreement, but disagreement
should not always be avoided; it
can be healthy if handled
creatively.
(A) There are
(B) Why
(C) That
(D) Because
9. Drinking water ________ excessive
amounts of fluorides may leave
a stained or mottled effect on
the enamel of teeth.
(A) containing
(B) in which containing
(C) contains
(D) that contain
10. In the 1820’s physical education
became _______ of the curriculum
of Harvard and Yale Universities.
(A) to be part
(B) which was part
(C) was part
(D) part
11. Pewter, _______ for eating and
drinking utensils in colonial
America, is about ninety percent
tin, which copper or bismuth added
for hardness.
(A) was widely used
(B) widely used it
(C) widely used
(D) which widely used
12. A moth possesses two pairs of
wings _________as a single pair
and are covered with dustlike scales.
(A) function
(B) are functioning
(C) that function
(D) but functions
13. Soap operas, a type of television
drama series, are so called because
at first, they were ________.
(A) often which soap
manufacturers sponsored
(B) sponsored often soap
manufacturers
(C) often sponsored by soap
manufacturers
(D) soap manufacturers often
sponsored them
14. The Woolworth Building in New
York was the highest in America
when _______ in 1943 and was
famous for its use of Gothic
decorative detail.
(A) built
(B) it built
(C) was built
(D) built it
15. Humans, ________, interact through
communicative behavior by means
of signs or symbols used
conventionally.
(A) like other animals
(B) how other animals
(C) other animals that
(D) do other animals
16. More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton.
A B C D
17. Perhaps the most popular film in movie history, Star Wars was written and direction
A B C D
by George Lucas.
18. Some animal activities, such as mating, migration, and hibernate have a yearly
A B C D
cycle.
19. Geographers were once concerned largely with exploring areas unknown to them
A B
and from describing distinctive features of individual places.
C D
20. In his animated films, Walt Disney created animals that talk and act like people
A B C
while retaining its animal traits.
D
21. The first city in the United States that put into effect major plan for the clustering, of
A B C
government buildings was Washington, D.C.
D
22. In a microwave oven, radiation penetrates food and is then absorbed primarily by
A B
water molecules, caused heat to spread through the food.
C D
23. The cultures early of the genus Homo were generally distinguished by regular use of
A B
stone tools and by a hunting and gathering economy.
C D
24. Dolphins are sleek and powerful swimmers that found in all seas and unlike
A B
porpoises, have well defined, beaklike snouts and conical teeth.
C D
25. The velocity of a river is river is controlled by the slope, the depth, and the tough
A B C D
of the riverbed.
26. The phonograph record was the first successful medium for capturing, preservation
A B C
and reproducing sound.
D
27. Generally, the pattern of open space in urban areas has shaped by commercial
A B C
systems, governmental actions, and cultural traditions.
D
10
28. A liquid that might be a poor conductor when pure is often used to make solutions
A B C
that readily transmits electricity.
D
29. The initial discovery by humans almost 10,000 years ago that they could exploit
A
metallic mineral deposits was an important milestone in the
B C
development civilization.
D
30. In 1989 Tillic Fowler a Republican, because the first member of her party to
A
serving as president of the city council of Jacksonville, Florida.
B C D
31. General anesthesia, which is usually used for major surgery, involves a complete
A B
loss of consciousness and a relaxed of the muscles.
C D
32. After first establishment subsistence farms along the Atlantic seaboard, European
A B
settlers in North America developed a maritime and shipbuilding industry.
C D
33. The legs of a roadrunner are enough strong that it can run up to 24 kilometers per
A B C
hour to catch lizards and small rodents.
D
34. For the immune system of a newborn mammal to develop properly, the presence of
A B C
the thymus gland is essentially.
D
35. Physicians working in the field of public health are mainly concerned with the
A B
environmental causes of ill and how to eliminate them.
C D
36. By 1850, immigration from distance shores, as well as migration from the
A B
countryside, had caused New York City’s population to swell.
C D
37. By identifying similar words or structures in different languages, we find evidence
A
that those languages are related and may be derived from same ancestor.
B C D
38. Astronomers use photography and sighting telescopes to study the motions of all of
A B C
the bright stars and many of the faint one.
D
39. In the nineteenth century a number of Native American tribe, such as the
A B
Comanche, lived a nomadic existence hunting buffalo.
C D
40. The average elevation of West Virginia is about 1,500 foot above sea level.
A B C D
Questions 1-9
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The canopy, the upper level of the trees in the rain forest, holds a plethora of climbing
mammals of moderately large size, which may include monkeys, cats, civets, and
porcupines. Smaller species, including such rodents as mice and small squirrels, are
not as prevalent overall in high tropical canopies as they are in most habitats globally.
Small mammals, being warm blooded, suffer hardship in the exposed and turbulent
environment of the uppermost trees. Because a small body has more surface area per unit
of weight than a large one of similar shape, it gains or loses heat more swiftly. Thus, in the
trees, where shelter from heat and cold may be scarce and conditions may fluctuate, a small
mammal may have trouble maintaining its body temperature.
Small size makes it easy to scramble among twigs and branches in the canopy for
insects, flowers, or fruit, but small mammals are surpassed, in the competition for food,
by large ones that have their own tactics for browsing among food-rich twigs. The weight
of a gibbon (a small ape) hanging below a branch arches the terminal leaves down so that
fruit-bearing foliage drops toward the gibbon’s face. Walking or leaping species of a
similar or even larger size access the outer twigs either by snapping off and retrieving
the whole branch or by clutching stiff branches with the feet or tail and plucking food
with their hands.
Small climbing animals may reach twigs readily, but it is harder for them than for large
climbing animals to cross the wide gaps from one tree crown to the next that typify the
high canopy. A macaque or gibbon can hurl itself farther than a mouse can: it can achieve
a running start, and it can more effectively use a branch as a springboard, even bouncing
on a limb several times before jumping. The forward movement of a small animal is
seriously reduced by the air friction against the relatively large surface area of its body.
Finally, for the many small mammals the supplement their insect diet with fruits or seeds,
an inability to span open gaps between tree crowns may be problematic, since trees that
yield these foods can be sparse.
1. The passage answers which of the
following questions?
(A) How is the rain forest different
from other habitats?
(B) How does an animal’s body
size influence an animal’s
need for food?
(C) Why does rain forest provide
provide an unusual variety of
food for animals?
(D) Why do large animals tend to
dominate the upper canopy
of the rain forest?
2. Which of the following animals is
less common in the upper canopy
than in other environments?
(A) Monkeys
(B) Cats
(C) Porcupines
(D) Mice
3. The word “they” in line 4 refers to
(A) trees
(B) climbing mammals of
moderately large size
(C) smaller species
(D) high tropical canopies
4. According to paragraph 2, which of
the following is true about the small
mammals in the rain forest?
(A) They have body shapes that
are adapted to life in the
canopy.
(B) They prefer the temperature
and climate of the canopy to
that of other environments.
(C) They have difficulty with the
changing conditions in the
canopy.
(D) They use the trees of the
canopy for shelter from heat
and cold.
5. In discussing animal size in
paragraph 3, the author indicates
that
(A) small animals require
proportionately more food
than larger animals do.
(B) a large animal’s size is an
advantage in obtaining food
in the canopy.
(C) Small animals are often
attacked by larger animals
in the rain forest.
(D) Small animals and large
animals are equally adept at
obtaining food in the canopy.
6. The word “typify” in line 19 is
closest in meaning to
(A) resemble
(B) protect
(C) characterize
(D) divide
7. According to paragraph 4, what
makes jumping from one tree crown
to another difficult for small
mammals?
(A) Air friction against the body
surface.
(B) The thickness of the branches.
(C) The dense leaves of the tree
crown.
(D) The inability to use the front
feet as hands.
8. The word “supplement” in line 24 is
closest in meaning to
(A) control
(B) replace
(C) look for
(D) add to
9. Which of the following terms is
defined in the passage?
(A) canopy (line 1)
(B) warm blooded (line 5)
(C) terminal leaves (line 13)
(D) springboard (line 21)
Questions 10 – 19
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30
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contribution of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed
United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were
not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry
in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history
of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she
exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the
United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these
centuries,
women remained invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts
of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts,
were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical
in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of
history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged National,
regional, and local women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal
correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources
form the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the United States –
one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radeliffe College, and the other the
Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials
for later generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of
history, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men”. To
demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female
authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women
produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life
as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not
representative at all of the great mass of ordinary women. The lives of ordinary people
continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
10. What does the passage mainly discuss ?
(A) The role of literature in early
American histories.
(B) The place of American women in
written histories.
(C) The keen sense of history shown
By American women.
(D) The “great women” approach to
History used by American
historians.
11.The word “contemporary” in line 5
means that the history was
(A) informative
(B) written at that time
(C) thoughtful
(D) faultfinding
15
12. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet,
Warren, and Adams are mentioned
to show that
(A) a woman’s status was changed
by marriage.
(B) even the contributions of
outstanding women were
ignored.
(C) only three women were able to
get their writing published.
(D) poetry produced by women
was more readily accepted
than other writing by women.
13. The word “celebratory” in line 12
means that the writings referred
to were
(A) related to parties
(B) religious
(C) serious
(D) full of praise
14. The word “they” in line 12 refers to
(A) efforts
(B) authors
(C) counterparts
(D) sources
15. In the second paragraph, what
weakness in nineteenth-century
histories does the author point out?
(A) They put too much emphasis
on daily activities.
(B) They left out discussion of the
influence on money on politics
(C) The sources of the information
they were based on were not
necessarily accurate.
(D) They were printed on
poor quality paper.
16. On the basis of information in the
third paragraph, which of the
following, would most likely have
been collected by nineteenth-century
feminist organizations?
(A) Newspaper accounts of
presidential election results.
(B) Biographies of John Adams.
(C) Letters from a mother to a
daughter advising her how to
handle a family problem.
(D) Books about famous graduates
of the country’s first college.
17. What use was made of the
nineteenth-century women’s history
materials in the Schlesinger Library
and the Sophia Smith Collection?
(A) They were combined and
published in a multivolume
encyclopedia about women.
(B) They formed the basis of
college courses in the
nineteenth-century.
(C) They provided valuable
information for twentieth- century historical researchers.
(D) They were shared among
women’s colleges throughout
the United States.
18. In the last paragraph, the author
mentions all of the following as
possible roles of nineteenth-century
“great women” EXCEPT
(A) authors
(B) reformers
(C) activists for women’s rights
(D) politicicans
19. The word “representative” in line 29
is closest in meaning to
(A) typical
(B) satisfied
(C) supportive
(D) distinctive
Questions 20 – 29
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The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were
marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by
sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art
Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of
ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline,
although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of
the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried.
Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had
been generically termed “art glass”. Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and
relied for its effect upon carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style: among
the most celebrated was Emile Gallé(1846-1901). In the United States, Louis Comfort
Tiffany(1848-1933)was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety
of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized
today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915,
although its influence continued throughout the mid-1920’s. It was eventually to be
overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had present since
the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of architects and
designers. Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers alter the First
World War. The basic tenet of the movement – that function should determine form – was
not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: form should be simple,
surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new
design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the style and conventions of
the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau
types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast
stark outline, and complex textural surfaces.
20. What does paragraph 1 mainly
discuss?
(A) Design elements in the Art
Nouveau style
(B) The popularity of the Art
Nouveau style
(C) Production techniques for art
glass
(D) Color combinations typical of
the Art Nouveau style
21. The word “one” in line 4 refers to
(A) century
(B) development
(C) style
(D) coloration
22. Paragraph 1 mentions that Art
Nouveau glass was sometimes
similar to which aspect of ancient
burial glass?
(A) The distortion of the glass
(B) The appearance of the glass
(C) The shapes of the glass objects
(D) The size of the glass objects
23. What is the main purpose of
paragraph 2 ?
(A) To compare different Art
Nouveau styles
(B) To give examples of famous
Art Nouveau artists
(C) To explain why Art Nouveau
glass was so popular in the
United States
(D) To show the impact Art
Nouveau had on other
cultures around the world
24. The word “prized” in line14 is
closest in meaning to
(A) valued
(B) universal
(C) uncommon
(D) preserved
25. The word “overtaken” in line 19 is
closest in meaning to
(A) surpassed
(B) inclined
(C) expressed
(D) applied
26. What does the author mean by
stating that “function should
determine form” (line 22) ?
(A) A useful object should not
be attractive.
(B) The purpose of an object
should influence its form
(C) The design of an object
(D) The form of an object
should not include
decorative elements.
27. It can be inferred from the passage
that one reason. Functionalism
became popular was that it
(A) clearly distinguish
(B) appealed to people who liked
complex painted designs
(C) reflected a common desire to
break from the past
(D) was easily interpreted by the
general public
28. Paragraph 3 supports which of the
following statements about
Functionalism?
(A) Its design concept avoided
geometric shapes.
(B) It started on a small scale and
then spread gradually.
(C) It was a major force in the
decorative arts before the
First World War
(D) It was not attractive to
architects and designers
29. According to the passage, an object
made in the Art Nouveau style
would most likely include
(A) a flowered design
(B) bright colors
(C) modern symbols
(D) a textured surface
Questions 30 – 40
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During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal glaciers, traveling perhaps
only a couple of inches per day. However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers
move forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often progress along a glacier
like a great wave, proceeding from one section to another. Subglacial streams of meltwater
might act as a lubricant, allowing the glacier to flow rapidly toward the sea. The increasing
water pressure under the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the friction between
ice and rock, thus freeing the glacier, which rapidly slides downhill. Surge glaciers also
might be influenced by the climate, volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of these
glaciers exist in the same areas as normal glaciers, often almost side by side.
Some 800 years ago, Alaska’s Hubbard Glacier advanced toward the sea, retreated,
and advanced again 500 years later. Since 1895, this seventy-mile-long river of ice has
been flowing steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200 feet per
year. In June 1986, however, the glacier surged ahead as much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile,
a western tributary, called Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet per day. Hubbard’s
surge closed off Russell Fiord with a formidable ice dam, some 2,500 feet wide and up to
800 feet high, whose caged waters threatened the town of Yakutat to the south.
About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are heading toward the sea. If
enough surge glaciers reach the ocean and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves
could rise off the seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the
Southern Sea. With the continued rise in sea level, more ice would plunge into the ocean,
causing sea levels to rise even higher, which in turn would release more ice and set in motion
a vicious cycle. The additional sea ice floating toward the tropics would increase. Earth’s
albedo and lower global temperatures, perhaps enough to initiate a new ice age. This
situation appears to have occurred at the end of the last warm interglacial (the time between
glaciations), called the Sangamon, when sea ice cooled the ocean dramatically, spawning
the beginning of the Ice Age.
30. What is the main topic of the
passage?
(A) The classification of different
types of surge glaciers.
(B) The causes and consequences
of surge glaciers.
(C) The definition of a surge glacier.
(D) The history of a particular surge
Glacier.
31. The word “intervals” in line 2 is
closest in meaning to
(A) records
(B) speeds
(C) distances
(D) periods
32. The author compares the surging
motion of a surge glacier to the
movement of a
(A) fish
(B) wave
(C) machine
(D) boat
33. Which of the following does the
another mention as possible cause
of surging glaciers?
(A) The decline in sea levels.
(B) The occurrence of unusually
large ocean waves.
(C) The shifting Antarctic ice
shelves.
(D) The pressure of meltwater
Underneath the glacier.
34. The word “freeing” in line 7 is
closest in meaning to
(A) pushing
(B) releasing
(C) strengthening
(D) draining
35. According to the passage, the
Hubbard Glacier
(A) moves more often than the
Valerie Glacier.
(B) began movement toward the
sea in 1895
(C) is 800 feet wide.
(D) has moved as fast as 47 feet
per day.
36. Yahutat is the name of
(A) an Alaskan town
(B) the last ice age
(C) a surge glacier
(D) an Antarctic ice shelf
37. The word “plunge” in line 20 is
closest in meaning to
(A) drop
(B) extent
(C) melt
(D) drift
38. The term “vicious cycle” in line 22
refers to the
(A) movement pattern of surge
glaciers
(B) effect surge glaciers could have
on the temperature of tropical
areas
(C) effect that repeated rising sea
levels might have on
glacial ice
(D) constant threat surge glaciers
could pose to the Gulf of
Alaska
39.The author provides a definition for
which of the following terms?
(A) Tributary (line 14)
(B) Ice dam(line 15)
(C) Albedo (line 23)
(D) Interglacial (line 24)
40.Which of the following statements
is supported by the passage?
(A) The movement of surge
glaciers can be prevented.
(B) The next ice age could be
Cause by surge glaciers.
(C) Surge glaciers help to support
Antarctic ice shelves.
(D) Normal glaciers have little
effect on Earth’s climate.
Questions 41 – 50
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According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may
become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family
traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other
cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders,
although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually
chosen formally through election or recruitment .
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability,
decades of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category
of “natural leaders.” It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have
in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has
qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader,
research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by
different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion
of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things
done.” Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the
collective well-beings of a social group’s members. Expressive leaders are less concerned
with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group
members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members
expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide
support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group
members. They give others and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment
of the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship
to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is
subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to
resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the difference in these two roles
suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group
members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may
enjoy a more distant respect.
41.What does the passage mainly
discuss?
(A)The problems faced by leaders.
(B)How leadership differs in
Small and large groups.
(C)How social groups determine
who will lead them.
(D)The role of leaders in social
groups.
42.The passage mentions all of the
following ways by which people
can become leaders EXCEPT
(A) recruitment
(B) formal election process
(C) specific leadership training
(D) traditional cultural patterns
43.In mentioning “natural leaders” in
line 9, the author is making the
point that
(A)few people qualify as “natural
leaders”.
(B)there is no proof that “natural
leaders” exist.
(C)“natural leaders” are easily
accepted by the members
of a group.
(D)“natural leaders” share a
similar set of characteristics
44.Which of the following statements
about leadership can be inferred
from paragraph 2?
(A) A person who is an effective
leader of a particular group
may not be an effective
leader in another group
(B) Few people succeed in sharing
a leadership role with
another person
(C)A person can best learn how to be
an effective leader by studying
research on leadership.
(D)Most people desire to be leaders
but can produce little evidence
of their qualifications.
45.The passage indicates that
instrumental leaders generally
focus on
(A)ensuring harmonious
relationships.
(B)sharing responsibility with
group members.
(C)identifying new leaders.
(D)achieving a goal.
46.The word “collective” in line17 is
closest in meaning to
(A)necessary
(B)typical
(C)group
(D)particular
47.The word “them” in line 19 refers to
(A) expressive leaders
(B) goals of the group
(C) group members
(D) tension and conflict
48.A “secondary relationship” mentioned
in line 27 between a leader and
the members of a group could best
be characterized as
(A)distant
(B)enthusiastic
(C)unreliable
(D) personal
49.The word “resolve” in line 27 is
closest in meaning to
(E) avoid repeating
(F) talk about
(G) avoid thinking about
(H) find a solution for
50.Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the
discussion of leadership primarily
in terms of
(A) examples that illustrate a
problem
(B) cause and effect analysis
(C) narration of events
(D) comparison and contrast
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