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Old May 21st, 2014, 11:22 AM
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Default Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers

Will you please give me the Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers?
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  #2  
Old May 21st, 2014, 06:19 PM
Nilesh
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Default Re: Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers

As you want to get the Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

1. According to Constitution (Seventy-third) Amendment Act, 1992, in the event of dissolution
of Panchayati Raj institutions election for the new body should be compulsorily held
within
(A) 2 months (B) 4 months
(C) 6 months (D) 8 months

2. Article 144 of the Constitution mandates that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the
territory of India shall act in aid of the
(A) President (B) Supreme Court
(C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament

3. Is there a presumption in favour of the constitutionality of statutes ?
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Depends (D) Not in all cases

4. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(A) 45 years (B) 30 years
(C) 35 years (D) 21 years

5. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations ?
(A) Third Schedule (B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Seventh Schedule (D) Ninth Schedule

6. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign
immunity will not apply to a proceedings for award of compensation for violation of
fundamental rights
(A) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab (B) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
(C) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar (D) Nilabeti Behara v. State of Orissa

7. The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to the non-reserved class
transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to family
belonging to the reserved class does not become eligible to benefit or reservation either
under Article 5(4) or Article 16(4) of the Constitution in
(A) Indra Sawhney v. UOI
(B) Km. Madhuri Patel v. Addl Commissioner, Tribal Development
(C) Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University
(D) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pander Barde.

8. The UPSC has to serve only
(A) Selected States (B) Union Territories
(C) Entire Nation (D) Depends on President’s Will

9. Under Article 11 of the Constitution the Parliament passed the Citizenship (Amendment)
Act, 2003 which provides the overseas citizenship to the People of Indian Origin in
(A) 12 specified countries (B) 16 specified countries
(C) 18 specified countries (D) 20 specified countries

10. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The Constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
(B) The Constitution is individual centric or individual oriented
(C) The Constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual
(D) The Constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual
interest with permanant interest of the community.

11. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be witness against himself
(A) Both A and R are true (B) Both A and R are false
(C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true

12. A telephonic conversation of the accused with his friend was secretly tapped by the police.
Can this lay basis for raising the issue that :
(A) It infringes the fundamental right against testimonial compulsion under Article 20 (3) of the
Constitution
(B) It infringes the fundamental right to privacy under Article 19 of the Constitution
(C) It infringes the fundamental right guaranteed in Article 21 relating to personal liberty
(D) There is no constitutional bar to the prosecution of such accused.

13. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352
(A) The Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in
the State List
(B) The power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the
Constitution is suspended
(C) A law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with the prior
permission of the President
(D) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures.

14. The Speaker is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha :
(A) He is a master of the House and not its servant
(B) He can exercise all and every powers of the House
(C) He is not above party politics
(D) He occupies a position of an umpire and must see that all sections of the House are given
proper opportunity to participate in the proceedings of the House

15. The term ‘law’ includes every branch of law. Yet there is difference between Constitutional
law made in exercise of sovereign powers and the other laws made in exercise of normal
legislative power. Hence amendment is not covered within the definition of ‘law’ provided
in Article 13(2) and (3) of the Constitution of India. This was observed by Supreme Court
in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. UOI (B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

16. Which is the most highlighted Constitution (Amendment) Bill of recent times ?
(A) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Bill (B) Constitution (101st Amendment) Bill
(C) Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill (D) Constitution (73rd Amendment) Bill

17. During the emergency proclaimed under Article 352, the President of India has a power
to suspend the fundamental rights enshrined in Part-III of the Constitution. The rights
contained in which of the following Articles could not be suspended even during
emergency ?
(A) 20 and 21 (B) 19 and 20
(C) 21 and 22 (D) 19, 20 and 21

18. In which Indian case it has been quoted that “A man’s liberty of movement is regarded so
highly by the law of England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the
surest grounds” :
(A) Maneka Gandhi case
(B) Joginder Kumar case
(C) Amarawati case
(D) Parkash Singh case

19. For the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the definition of
‘State’. Which of the following is not a State ?
(A) ONGC (B) Industrial and Finance Corporation
(C) NCERT (D) Kerala Legislative Assembly

20. In relation to affiliation of educational institutions with a University, the Supreme Court
has pointed out that :
(A) Grant of affiliation is purely a discretionary power of the State
(B) Affiliation being a Fundamental Right cannot be denied
(C) If an institution fulfils the condition of affiliation, the same must be given and there cannot be
any discrimination
(D) If policy of the Government does not permit affiliation, the same may be refused

21. Who amongst the following was appointed as the first Chairperson of Unique Identification
Authority of India ?
(A) Ratan Tata (B) Azim Premji
(C) Nandan Nilekani (D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

22. Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom Behind Bars’ ?
(A) Nelson Mandela (B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Sonia Gandhi

23. Who among the following was awarded by the title of ‘Living Legend of Law’ by the
International Bar Association in 1995 in recognition of outstanding service to the legal
profession internationally and for commitment to the Rule of Law ?
(A) Justice H.R. Khanna (B) Justice Krishna Iyer
(C) Justice M.N. Venkatachalayya (D) Justice Anand

24. In 1980, an inmate of the Tihar Jail managed to send a scribbled piece of paper to Justice
Krishna Iyer of the Supreme Court narrating physical torture of the prisoners. The judge
got it converted into a petition :
(A) Charles Shobhraj vs. Delhi Admin. (B) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Admin.
(C) Keshavananda Bharati case (D) D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal

25. The South African Lawyer who was elected as the United Nations independent expert to
tackle violence against women
(A) Asma Jahangir (B) Rashida Manjoo
(C) Fatima Mir (D) Soli Sohrabji

26. The committee which studied the social, economical and educational status of Muslims
(A) Kuldeep Nayyar Committee (B) Shivanandan Menon Committee
(C) Rajinder Sachar Committee (D) Verma Committee

27. Justice Sudha Mishra is the only woman Chief Justice of High Court in India now. She is
the Chief Justice of which High Court ?
(A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh

28. The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) has its headquarters at
(A) London (B) Paris
(C) Bonn (D) Hague

29. Who among the following was conferred with Mahatma Gandhi International Award of
Peace and Justice 2009 ?
(A) Aung San Suu Kyi (B) Sheikh Hasina
(C) Benazir Bhutto (D) Hilary Clinton

30. The mascot of 2010 Commonwealth Games to be held in October in Delhi is
(A) Tiger (B) Panda
(C) A red-tailed black cuckoo (D) Peacock

31. The provision of personation at elections under Section 171D of IPC
(A) Shall apply to a person who has been authorized to vote as proxy for an elector under any
law in force
(B) Shall not apply to a person who has been authorized to vote as proxy for an elector under
any law in force
(C) Does not lead to any restriction under any law in force
(D) Shall not apply to a public servant on election duty

32. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be
(A) one year (B) two years
(C) three months (D) six months

33. A hangman who hangs a convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal
liability by virtue of
(A) Section 77 of IPC (B) Section 78 of IPC
(C) Section 79 of IPC (D) Section 76 of IPC

34. X ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refused to do so. Now
(A) X has committed abetment & Y has committed assault
(B) X has committed abetment & Y has committed no offence
(C) X & Y both have committed no offence
(D) X has committed no offence but Y has committed offence of subordination

35. ‘A’ knows that ‘B’ is suffering from a disease in his head and also knows that if a fist blow
is given to ‘B’ on his head, it is likely to cause his death. Knowing it ‘A’ gives a fist blow
to B on his head and causes death of ‘B’. ‘A’ is
(A) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder since he does not think that his act is
likely to cause death
(B) Guilty of murder since he had knowledge that in all probability it is likely to cause death of
‘B’
(C) Guilty of no offence since the blow is not sufficient to cause the death of a person of normal
health
(D) Guilty of causing hurt only.

36. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds after so
opening the box, that there is no jewel in it.
(A) A has done an act towards the commission of crime therefore he is liable U/S 511
(B) A has not done an act towards the commission of crime therefore he is not liable U/S 511
(C) It is impossible to steal anything from an empty box therefore A is not liable
(D) Both (B) & (C) are true

37. Right of private defence is not available
(A) Against an insane
(B) Against a child
(C) When there is a time to recourse the public authorities
(D) Against a public servant

38. Indian government proposes to privatize sick government sector and liberalize import-export policy of
India. B criticizes this policy and mentions its supposed bad impact. After going through this article
various labour and student unions, organize peaceful processions against it :
(A) B is liable U/S 124A because he excites disaffection against the Government of India
(B) B is not liable U/S 124A, because he simply expresses his disapprobation towards the policy
(C) B is liable because his article results in public disorder
(D) B is not liable U/S 124A, because requisite publication of seditious matter is lacking in the case.

39. A contracts with a gas company for supplying him gas and agrees to pay according to meter. He
intentionally makes some alternation in the meter reading to pay less charges
(A) A is guilty of theft (B) A is not guilty of theft
(C) A is guilty of criminal breach of trust (D) A is guilty of extortion

40. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Maxim, actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea has no application to the offences under the penal code in
its purely technical sense because the definitions of various offences contain propositions as to the statement
of offences
(B) Maxim has no application and is barred in absolute sense
(C) In cases of absolute liability this maxim has no application
(D) (A) and (C) both are true

41. What is the difference between law making treaty and treaty contracts ?
(A) In law making treaty there should be more than 50 participants while in treaty contracts more than 100
(B) Treaty contracts are entered among neighbouring states and law making treaty may include any two countries
(C) There is no difference between the two, as far as nature is concerned
(D) Law making treaty lays down rules of universal or general application, while treaty contract means, a treaty
between two or only a few states, on a special matter concerning these states exclusively.

42. What does jus cognes imply ?
(A) No derogation is permitted from it
(B) Treaty or an agreement is void to the extent of inconsistency with this principle
(C) It can be modified only by a subsequent norm of general International law
(D) It can be modified by General Assembly Resolution.

43. “A state is and becomes an international person through recognition only and exclusively.” Who stated
this ?
(A) L. Oppenheim (B) Hobbes
(C) Fenwick (D) Starke

44. General Assembly adopted the definition of word aggression through
(A) Resolution 3314 XXIX in 1974 (B) Resolution 3312 XXXIX in 1973
(C) Resolution 2213 in 1982 (D) Resolution 2214 in 1992

45. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The decisions of the International Court of Justice have binding force on all the members of United Nations
(B) The decisions of the International Court of Justice have binding force on all states of the world
(C) The decisions of the International Court of Justice shall not have a binding force except upon the parties to
a dispute and only in respect of a particular dispute between them
(D) The decisions of ICJ, shall not have any binding force on any members as its decisions are only subsidiary
means for determining rules of International law.

46. The ‘Pigeon hole’ theory is related to
(A) Law of torts (B) Law of tort
(C) Law of Tortious tort (D) Law of negligence and nuisance

47. The maxim qui facit per alium facit per se means
(A) He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself
(B) He who acts negligently is deemed as wrong does in law
(C) He who violates the legal rights of other must pay for that
(D) He who injures other either directly or indirectly must pay for the same

48. A an independent contractor withdrew the support from C’s land. This work was given to A
by B.
(A) B is not liable vicariously for the act of A because A is acting independently
(B) B is liable vicariously even if the work was done by independent contractor
(C) B is liable only if C could prove presence of B at the time of withdrawal of support
(D) B is liable if C could prove that B carried on the work even after contrary express instructions by C.

49. A has grown a tree on his land. The branches of the tree are overhanging on the land of B. Under the
law, B is entitled to
(A) Enter into the land of A without his permission and cut the tree
(B) Forcibly enter into A’s land and chop off the branches
(C) Chop off the branches from his own land and take away the branches
(D) Chop off the overhanging branches while remaining on his land and inform A about the same.

50. De minimi’s non curat lex means
(A) Law does not take account of every trifling matter
(B) Plaintiff must present the damage in minimum degree
(C) Your behavior should not hamper the work of others
(D) You must not withdraw the support of the land of others

51. By virtue of Section 36 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an outgoing partner has
(A) A right to carry on a business competing with that of the firm
(B) No right to carry on a business competing with that of a firm
(C) A right to carry on a business competing with that of the firm only with the permission of all the partners even
though under the contract of partnership there is not restriction imposed
(D) A right to carry on a business competing with that of the firm only with the permission of the majority of the
partners even though in the contract of partnership there is no restriction imposed.

52. If a minor, admitted to the benefits of the firm, on attaining majority, fails to give public notice of his
intention to become or not to become a partner, within the prescribed six months, by virtue of proviso to
section 30(5) of the Partnership Act, he
(A) Automatically becomes a partner in the firm after the expiry of said six months
(B) Automatically ceases to be a partner in the firm after the expiry of said six months
(C) Becomes a partner in the firm after the expiry of the said six months only if all the partners consent to it
(D) Either (A) or (C)

53. The term ‘goodwill’ is a thing very easy to describe but very difficult to define, was stated by
(A) Lord Herschell (B) Lord Haldane
(C) Lord MacNaughten (D) Lord Eldon

54. Section 22 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 lays down
(A) A rule of procedure (B) A rule of evidence
(C) A rule of substantive law (D) A basic principle of law

55. Which of the following is not held to be misconduct within the meaning of Section 44 (c) of the Act, warranting an order of dissolution of a firm by the court
(A) Committing adultery with several women in the city where the business was carried on by the firm, by a
partner of the firm engaged in banking
(B) Committing adultery with the wife of a fellow partner
(C) Conviction for travelling without ticket
(D) Misconduct towards the clients of the firm

56. If instead of avoiding the contract the contractor accepts the belated performance of reciprocal obligation on the part of the employer, the contractor cannot claim compensation for any loss occasioned by the non-performance of the reciprocal promise by the employer at the time agreed, unless at the time of such acceptance, he gives notice to the promisor of his intension to do so. In which case it was held ?
(A) State of Kerala v. M.A. Mathai (2007)
(B) Punjab State Civil Supplies Co-op Ltd. v. Sikander Singh (2006)
(C) Shin Satellite Public Co. Ltd. v. Jain Studios Limited (2005)
(D) K.C. Skaria v. the Government of State of Kerala (2004)

57. Which of the following is not a ground for termination of agency ?
(A) Agent renounces the business of the agency
(B) Business of the agency has been completed
(C) The agent is going abroad for a longer period
(D) The Principal/Agent has died under unnatural circumstances

58. If an acceptance on phone is drowned by noise and is not heard by the proposer
(A) No contract is concluded (B) A valid contract is concluded
(C) There is a voidable contract (D) The contract is void

59. A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract
(A) Remains valid
(B) Becomes voidable when it cease to be enforceable
(C) Becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
(D) Becomes void since inception

60. A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain event happening within a fixed time under Section 35
(A) Remains valid even if the event does not happen within that fixed time
(B) Becomes void at the expiration of the time fixed
(C) Becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time fixed
(D) Both (B) & (C)

61. Section 41-C inserted under the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2008 mandates the
State Government to establish Police Control Room
(A) In every District (B) At the State Level
(C) In every Police Station (D) Both (A) and (B)

62. Victim means
(A) A person against whom the offence has been committed
(B) The complainant
(C) The person who has lodged FIR with the police
(D) A person who has suffered any loss or injury by reason of the act of the accused

63. The accused can file an application for transfer of his case from one Magistrate to the other, when the
Magistrate takes cognizance under :
(A) Section 190 (1) (a) (B) Section 190 (1) (b)
(C) Section 190 (1) (c) (D) Section 190 (2)

64. Acquittal under Section 232 of CrPC is a
(A) Statutory acquittal
(B) Technical acquittal
(C) Acquittal on merits but before hearing the defence
(D) Acquittal on merits after hearing the defence

65. Plea Bargaining is not possible in respect of the offences covered under which of the following Acts,
even if, punishable for a term not exceeding 7 years ?
(A) The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
(B) The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
(C) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
(D) Indian Penal Code, 1860

66. Bentham’s philosophy was based on
(A) Utilitarian individualism (B) Utilitarian socialism
(C) Utilitarian communalism (D) Utilitarian fundamentalism

67. In case there is a conflict between the decision of two co-equal benches
(A) Court can follow any of the two decisions
(B) The decision later in time must be followed
(C) The decision of both the courts will be of no value
(D) The court should wait for the decision of the Supreme Court

68. A primary duty is that duty :
(A) Which should be fulfilled primarily where there are more than one duties
(B) Which is covered under the first list of duties
(C) Which is imposed on the persons of primary sector
(D) Which exists per se independent of any other duty

69.Possession is prima facie evidence of the ownership hence,
(A) Long adverse possession confers title even to a property which originally belonged to another
(B) In all cases possession leads to ownership
(C) Transfer of possession does not lead to transfer of ownership
(D) Long adverse possession does not confer title to a property which belongs to another

70. Corporation has a distinct personality, a leading case on this point is
(A) Salmon Vs. Salmon (B) Whiteman Vs. Whiteman
(C) People’s Pleasure Park Vs. Rohleder (D) (A) & (C)

71. Delay in making an application for setting aside the arbitral award
(A) Can be condoned under Section 5 of Limitation Act
(B) Cannot be condoned by invoking Section 5 of Limitation Act
(C) May be condoned under Section 5 of Limitation Act as per discretion of the court
(D) Only (A) and no (B) or (C)

72. The ‘Presiding Arbitrator’ is appointed by :
(A) Parties to the arbitration agreement (B) The arbitrator appointed by each party
(C) The Court (D) Either (A) or (B)

73. ‘Foreign Award’ under Section 44 means
(A) That the award must have been made on or after 11th day of October 1960
(B) That the award must have been made after 28th day of July 1924
(C) That the award must have been made on or after 12th day of December 1971
(D) That the award must have been made after 1st July 1996

74. Which of the following is not a true statement of law under Arbitration Act, 1996 ?
(A) Place of arbitration proceedings is determined by parties
(B) Place of arbitration proceedings is determined as per the rules applicable for determining the jurisdiction of
the courts
(C) In case of default of the parties, arbitral tribunal itself could determine the place of arbitration proceedings
(D) For consultation among its member, the arbitral tribunal could also fix any place other than the place
determined by parties

75. After the settlement agreement is reached between the parties to conciliation
(A) The conciliator makes an award stating the reasons thereof
(B) The conciliator shall authenticate the settlement agreement and furnish a copy thereof
(C) The conciliator shall refer the matter to the tribunal
(D) The conciliator shall dictate the order and it will be binding upon the parties.

FINAL ANSWERS / KEY
Subject: LL.M.
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 C13 A 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 C
20 C 21 C 22 B 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 B 29 A 30 A 31 B 32 C 33 B 34 B 35
B 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 D 41 D 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 C 46 A 47 A 48 B 49 D 50 A
51 A 52 A 53 C 54 A 55 A 56 A 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 C 61 D 62 D 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 A
67 B 68 D 69 A 70 D 71 B 72B 73 A 74 B 75 B
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  #3  
Old September 28th, 2015, 06:19 PM
Unregistered
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Default Re: Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers

Sir I am preparing for Common Law Admission Test so please give me the previous year question papers
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  #4  
Old September 28th, 2015, 06:22 PM
shabnams
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Dec 2012
Default Re: Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers

Here I am giving you some some questions with paper.
What is the duration of ‘zero hour’ in Lok Sabha?

(a) 15 minutes

(b) Half-an-hour

(c) One hour

(d) Not specified

The State which bas the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is

(a) Bihar

(b) Gujarat

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Madhya Pradesh


Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and there by facilitates the commission there of, is said to _____

(a) Conspire the doing of that act

(b) Aid the doing of that act

(c) Abet the doing of that act

(d) Instigate the doing of that act


Who propounded the legal theory called “Utilitarian Individualism”?

(a) Austin

(b) Salmond

(c) Taylor

(d) Bentham

Apart from Jammu and Kashmir, which of the following States has a special protection, notwithstanding anything contained in the Constitution in certain matters?

(a) Tripur

(b) Nagaland

(c) Mizoram

(d) None

Related: LLB Sample Question Paper 1


How many theories of punishments are there in the administration of Justice?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5


Who was the law member in the Council of Governer General of India?
(a) H.Spencer

(b) Maine

(c) Blackstone

(d) Macalay

X knows Y to be behind a bush. Z does not know it. X intending to cause or knowing it to be likely to cause Y’s death, induces Z to fire at the bush. Z fires and kills Y. Here Z may be guilty of no offence, but ____

(a) X has not committed any offence

(b) X has committed the offence of culpable homicide

(c) Z has committed offence of murder

(d) Has committed the offence of abetment


English Law is also known as

(a) Civil law

(b) Conflict of laws

(c) Local laws

(d) Common law

Related: LLB Practice Paper 1


A proposal when accepted becomes

(a) Offer

(b) Contract

(c) Promise

(d) Agreement

You can also download the file from here if you want more info:
Common Law Admission Test LLM entrance previous years question papers



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