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Old May 13th, 2014, 12:47 PM
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Please give me question paper for PO post recruitment examination organizes by UCO bank?

Here I am giving you question paper for PO post recruitment examination organizes by UCO bank …

Some questions are given below :
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the English alphabet and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) AZ (2) EV (3) BY (4) GT (5) DU

3. If the position of the first and the sixth letters of the word ‘PRESCRIBED’ are interchanged, similarly position
of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged and so on. Which letter will be fourth from the left end after the rearrangement?

(1) E (2) S (3) B (4) D (5) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTERNAL, each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) None of these

5. In a certain code DIVERT is written as SCQHDU, how is CONFER written in that code?
(1) QBDNEO (2) QDBNEM (3) QBDNEM
(4) QDBNEO (5) None of these

Qs. 6-10. In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only I follows.
Give answer (2) if only II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
Statement:

6. A country cannot develop without fast and easy communication.
Courses of action:
I. Govt. should provide communication facilities to the public at a cheaper rate.
II. More private companies should be permitted to enter into field of communication to strengthen the
network. Statement:


7. “Due to availability of air tickets at cheaper rates from various airlines large no. of people now a days prefer
to travel by air than travelling by train.”
Courses of action:
I. Railway ministry has to put in its best efforts to improve the quality of rail journey in respect of facilities and also the punctuality.
II. Airlines should not be allowed to introduce various schemes offering concessional fare.
Statement:

8. Continuous use of computers is affecting the eyesights of many youth.
Courses of action:
I. All the establishments should permit the people using computer to take a short break after every hour of work on the computer.
II. Use of computers should be discouraged by the managements of the establishments.
Statement:

9. Proportion of females compared to that of males in the population of our country has drastically gone down in
the recent past.
Courses of action:
I. Social workers shoule take up the task of emphasizing the importance of having atleast one female child in each family in both rural and urban areas of the counry.
II. Government should severely punish the persons involved in the practice of female foeticide.
Statement:

10. Reading habits in the children of coming generations is diminishing day by day.
Courses of action:
I. Access to various electronic gadgets such as television, computer and particularly the internet
should be controlled.
II. Parents should ensure and cultivate reading habits among their children.

Answers
1. (5) Other pairs occupy the same place in alphabets from A and Z.
2. (2) 204 ÷ 6 – 15 × 8 + 88 = 34 – 120 + 88 = 2. (Apply BODMAS)
3. (1) Left ←RIBEDPRESS →Right
4. (4) IN, TR and NL.
5. (3) D I V E R T would be TDRIEV hence CONFER would be RCEOFN. The preceding letter in alphabets is the code.
6. (5) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (2)

REASONING
Directions (1-5) : Study the following
information carefully and answer
the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
sitting around a circular table facing
the centre. Each one of them has a
different profession viz. doctor, engineer,
architect, teacher, clerk, shopkeeper,
businessman and banker.
A sits third to right of teacher.
D sits second to left of G. G is not
an immediate neighbour of the
teacher. Only one person sits between
B who is the shopkeeper and teacher.
The one who is an architect sits third
to right of the shopkeeper. H sits between
architect and engineer. E is not
an immediate neighbour of H. Engineer
sits third to the right of clerk.
Only one person sits between businessman
and F. E is neither a businessman
nor a doctor.
1. Which of the following is true
with respect to the given seating
arrangement?
(1) E is an immediate neighbour
of the engineer
(2) E is an architect
(3) The clerk is an immediate
neighbour of the banker
(4) The teacher sits between H
and the engineer
(5) Shopkeeper sits second to
the right of the teacher
2. What is the profession of H ?
(1) Businessman
(2) Architect
(3) Banker
(4) Teacher
(5) Shopkeeper
3. What is the position of doctor
with respect to the banker?
(1) Immediately to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) Second to the left
4. Who sit/s exactly between the architect
and the businessman?
( l ) C a n dH (2) Clerk
(3) Banker and shopkeeper
(4) Doctor (5) C and teacher
5. Who amongst the following is a
clerk?
(DC (2)D
(3) E (4) F
(5)G

Directions (6-10): In each question
below is given a statement followed
by two assumptions/inferences numbered
I and II. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted
and an inference is something which
can be directly inferred from the given
facts. You have .to consider the statement
and the following assumptions/
inferences and decide which of those
is/are implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only 1 is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either I or II is
implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor
II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both I and II
are implicit.
6. Statement : Let the secretary
prepare PowerPoint presentation
for Ashish.
I. Ashish is incapable of preparing
a PowerPoint presentation
himself.
II. The secretary-is well versed
with operations of PowerPoint.
7. Statement: Cars found parked
in VIP parking area would be
towed away.
I. Some people have different
parking privileges than others.
II. Parking spaces for VIPs and
general public are separate.
8. Statement: A flyover would ease
the traffic on Motilal Nagar road.
I. The Motilal Nagar road usually
has a lot of traffic.
II. Currently also there is a flyover
on Motilal Nagar road.
9. Statement: The newly launched
book is making India read like
never before.
I. India did not have avid readers
before the launch of this
book.
II. This book has not been as successful
as other books by the
same author.
10. Statement: To avoid standing in
long queues, book your tickets on
the internet.
I. Most people prefer to book
tickets on the internet these
days.
II. Apart from the internet, tickets
are available elsewhere as
well.

Directions (11-15) : In each
question below a statement is given followed
by two courses of action numbered
I and II, A course of action is a
practicable and feasible step or administrative
decision to be taken for follow-
up, improvement, or further action
in regard to the problem, policy, etc.
On the basis of the information given
in the statement, you have to assume
everything in the statement to be true,
and decide which of the suggested
courses oj action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only course of
action I follows.
Give answer (2) if only course of
action II follows.
Give answer (3) if either course
of action I or course of action" follows.
Give answer (4) if neither course
of action I nor course of action II follows.
Give answer (5) if both courses
of action I and II follow.
11. Statement : Despite all the efforts
by the government, thirty
cases of polio were reported in
State X as the parents of those
children remained uninformed of
this drive against polio.
Courses of action:
I. Strict action should be taken
against the p'Srents of children
affected from polio.
II. Strict action should be taken
against the doctors administering
polio drops in the state.
12. Statement : Private airliners
have increased the fare during
festive season by almost 50%.
Courses of action:
I. People should be advised to
travel only by buses and
trains during the festive season.
II. Airfares should be regulated
by the government to a certain
limit.
13. Statement: Several passengers
were stranded at the airport as
all the flights had to be
cancelled due to severe snowfall
for the third consecutive day.
Courses of action:
I. All the flights should be immediately
resumed.
II. Airport authority should provide
appropriate stay arrangements
for the stranded
passengers.
14. Statement:
A practice march by the Army is
scheduled to be held on one of
the busiest roads in the city on
Tuesday.
Courses of action:
I. Traffic should be diverted
during the practice march so
as to ease traffic congestion
during that time.
II. Public notices should be issued
to avoid using the road
till the practice march on
Tuesday gets over.
15. Statement : Very few students
have been opting for academic
research as professional courses
offer better economic dividends.
Courses of action :
. I. Academic research should be
linked to industry so as to improve
its economic perspective.
II. Economic dividends of professional
courses should be
made less attractive so as to
attract students to academic
research as well.

Directions (16-20): Each of the
questions below consists of a question
and two statements numbered I and
II given below it.
You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and —
Give answer (1) if the data in
statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in
statement n alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either
in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (4) if the data even
in both statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in
both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
16. Point A is towards which direction
from point B ?
I. If a person walks 5,m towards
West from point A,
takes a left turn and walk 5
m again, he would be 4 m
away from point B.
II. Point A is towards the North
of point C, point C is towards
the East of point D and point
B is towards the East of point
D.
17. Is S the mother of M ?
I. M is sister of Q, Q is sister
of R and R is daughter of S.
II. M is daughter of Land L is
sister of V.
18. Are all the five friends viz. A, B,
C, D and E who are seated
around a circular table facing the
centre?
I. A sits third to the right of D.
D faces the centre. B sits second
to the right of A.
II. C sits second to the left of E.
E faces the centre. D sits second
to the right of C.
19. How is 'came' written in the code
language?
I. 'we came by car' is written
as '4 9 2 8' and 'can we buy
car' is written as '5 8 0 2'.
II. 'can car be cheap' is written
as '8 1 5 3' and 'came by
cheap car' is written as '9 8
4 r.
20. Who amongst Shreya, Jyoti,
Leena, Pia and Kajal is the shortest?
I. Leena is taller than Pia and
Pia is taller only than Shreya.
II. Kajal is taller than Jyoti and
Leena. Leena is taller than
Pia. Shreya is not the tallest.
Directions ( 21-23) : Read the
following paragraph and answer the
questions which follow:
It is true that the green revolution
has succeeded in transforming the
Indian economy from a situation
of severe food shortage into one where
the country has not only become selfreliant
in food production but
has also been able to generate a sizable
surplus for export. However, the
high doses of chemical fertilizers
and pesticides, which have been used
under this 'conventional' farming technology
(along with 'high yielding
varieties of seeds' and irrigation) are
now reversing the trend and causing
severe environmental and health
hazards, including the contamination
of ground water,
21. Which of the following statements
would strengthen the
author's argument?
(1) India faced severe food shortages
before the inception of
green revolution.
(2) Organic farming i.e. farming
without the use of chemical
fertilizers makes the food
products too expensive at
retail level.
(3) Many farmers have reported,
that the soil in their fields became
infertile within five
years of switching over to
chemical fertilizers.
(4) Farmers not relying on the hybrid
and high yielding variety
of seeds as propagated by
green revolution do not make
as much profit as the ones
using methods of green revolution.
(5) High yielding varieties of
seeds as propagated by green
revolution do not require
much water for irrigation purposes
and are also resistant
to pest attacks.
22. Which of the following can be inferred?
(An inference is something
which is not directly stated but
can be inferred from the given
facts.)
(1) Many countries have banned
use of chemical fertilizers
(2) Green revolution failed miserably
to do any good to
India's needs.
(3) The negative effects of techniques
of green revolution
were not anticipated at its inception
(4) India will never face food
shortage again
(5) The main focus of green revolution
was to help international
fertilizer manufacturers sell
their products in India.
23. Which of the following statements
represents a possible effect of
the conventional Green Revolution
techniques of farming if it
continues in the days to come ?
(1) India would never face severe
food shortage again in the future
(2) Export of food products would
increase manifold
(3) Only ground water would be
used for irrigation purpose
(4) Cases of chemical poisoning
would increase substantially
(5) Farmers not following methods
of Green Revolution would
face severe health hazards
24. Which of the following symbols
should replace the question mark
in the given expression in order
to make the expressions 'J > M'
as well as 'N < K' definitely true?
J ≥ K ? L = M > N
( 1 ) ≤ (2)<
( 3 ) ≥ (4) =
(5)>
25. In which of the following expressions
will the expressions 'D ≥ B'
as well as 'C > F' be definitely
true?
(1) A≥ B ≥ C > D = F
( 2 ) A < B ≤ C = D > F
(3) A < B ≤ C ≤ D > F
( 4 ) A < B ≥ C = D > F
(5) None of these
Directions (26-30) : Study the
following information to answer the
given questions:
Twelve people are sitting in two
parallel rows containing six people each,
in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent persons. In
row-1 P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated
and all of them are facing South. In
row-2 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated
and all of them are facing North. Therefore,
in-the given seating arrangement
each member seated in a row faces
another member of the other row.
P sits third to the left of T. Neither
P nor T sits at an extreme end of
the line. A sits second to the right of
E. Neither A nor E faces T or P. A does
not sit at an extreme end. R does not
face A and R does not sit at an extreme
end of the line. Only one person
' sits between F and C. Neither F nor C
faces T. C does not sit at the extreme
end. Only one person sits between V
and Q. F is not an immediate neighbour
of B and A does not face V.
26. How many persons are seated between
B and D ?
(l)One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
(5) None
27. V is related to B in the same way
as Q is related to C. To which of
the following is P related to, following
the same pattern ?
( 1 ) F (2) A
(3) D (4) E
(5) None of these
28. Which of the following is true regarding
V ?
(1) V faces A
(2) T is not an immediate
neighbour of V.
(3) C faces the one who is second
to left of V
(4) V sits at one of the extreme
ends of the line
(5) R sits third to the right of V
29. Who amongst the following sit at
extreme ends of the rows?.
(1) D, F (2) V, S
(3) Q, S (4) B, D
(5) None of these
30. Who amongst the following faces
B?
(1)V (2)S
(3)Q (4)R
(5)T

Directions (31-37) : Study the
following information to answer the
given questions:
Six chemicals L, M, N, O, P and
Q are kept in bottles of different colours
viz, green, red, blue, white, pink and
violet, not necessarily in the same orden
There bottles are arranged from
left to right, again not necessarily in
the same order.
Chemical M is kept in white bottle.
Chemical L is not kept in green bottle
and is kept to the immediate left of the
violet bottle. Chemical O is kept in the
blue bottle and is kept exactly between
the bottles containing chemicals L and
M. The red bottle is at the extreme left
end.The bottles containing chemical
Q is not kept at either of the ends. The
green bottle is kept at the extreme right
end. Chemical P is not kept near the
white bottle.
31. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way based on their
positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong
to the group ?
(1)LM (2) LP
(3) QO (4) LQ .
(5) NO
32. Which bottle contains chemical
L?
(l)Pink (2) Blue '
(3) Red
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
33. Which of the following combinations
of chemical and bottle is
correct ?
(1)P-Red (2) N - Green
(3) P - Green (4) Q- Pink
(5) None of these
34. Which bottle contains chemical
9?
(l)Pink (2) Green
(3) Violet
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
35. If all the six chemicals are arranged
alphabetically from left to
right, positions of how many will
remain unchanged ?
(l)None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) Four
36. Which bottle contains chemical
N?
(1) Green (2) Red
(3) Pink
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
37. Which chemical is kept in the
bottle at the extreme right end ?
(DP (2)N
(3)L
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (38 - 45): Study the
following information to answer the
given questions :
A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of
word and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule. The following
is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All numbers in these
questions are two digit numbers)
Input: lived 18 a 12 once 93 upon 32
time 46 wolf
Step I : a lived 18 12 once 93 upon
32 46 time wolf
Step II : a once 18 12 93 upon 32 46
lived time wolf
Step III: a once upon 18 12 93 32 46
lived time wolf
Step IV: a once upon 93 18 12 32.46
lived'time wolf
Step V: a once upon 93 46 18 12 32
lived time wolf
Step VI: a once upon 93 46 32 18 1.2
lived time wolf
Step VI is the last Step of the
arrangement of the above input
as the intended arrangement is
obtained.

Directions (38 - 42) : Now, answer
the questions based on the following
input:
Input: unique 84 can 77 open
86 quick 13 base 53 amiss 11 equal
98 start
38. Which of the following would be
Step II for the above Input ?
(1) amiss equal unique 84 77
open 86 quick 13 base 53
11 98 can start
(2) amiss equal open unique 84
77 86 quick 13 base 53 11
98 can start
(3) amiss equal open unique 84
77 86 13 53 11 98 base can
quick start
(4) amiss unique 84 77 open 86
13 base 53 11 equal 98 can
quick start
(5) None of these
39. Which of these words/numbers
would be fifth (from right side)
in Step III for the input?
(1)53 (2)11
(3) equal (4) 98
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following would be
the last step for the input?
(1) amiss equal open unique 98
86 84 77 53 13 11 base can
quick start
(2) amiss equal open unique 98
84 86 77 53 13 11 base can
quick start
(3) amiss equal open unique 98
86 84 77 53 13 11 can base
quick start
(4) amiss equal open unique 98
86 84 77 53 11 13 base can
quick start
(5) None of these
41. How many Steps would be
needed to complete the arrangement
for the above input?
(1)VII (2)III
(3) V (4) rv
(5) None of these
42. The following stands for which
step of the rearrangement?
amiss equal open unique 98 84
77 86 13 53 11 base can quick
start
(1) Step III (2) Step V
(3) Step VI (4) Step IV
(5) None of these
Directions (43-45) : Given below
are five steps in a jumbled order
in the form of (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
for an input. Arrange them according
to the order in which they should appear
based on the example given. Then
answer the questions that follow.
(1) arrival on 16 44 28 66 finish
match
(2) arrival on 66 44 28 16 finish
match
(3) arrival 16 44 28 on 66 finish
match
(4) arrival on 66 44 16 28 finish
match
(5) arrival on 66 16 44 2J? finish
match
43. Which of the following will be
Step II?
( 1 )A (2)B
(3) C (4) D
(5)E
44. Which of the following will be
Step ra ?
(D)A (2)B
(3) C (4) D
(5)E
45. Which of the following will be
Step I?
(DA (2)B
(3) C (4) D
(5)E
Directions (46-52) : Study the
following information to answer the
given questions:
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are
to be staged starting from Monday and
ending on Sunday with one of the days
being an off day, not necessarily in
the same order. Each of the plays has
different time duration: Vi hour, 1
hour, 1 Vi hours, 2 hours, 2 hours
and 3 hours, again not necessarily in
the same order.
Sunday is not an off day and a
Play of '/2 hour duration is staged on
that day. Play A is staged immediately
before Play E. There are two plays
staged between Play F which is for 3
hours and Play C which is for 1 Vi
hours. The off day is after the staging
of Play E and there are two days between
the off day and Play A. Play D
which is for 2 hours is not staged on
Monday. The play staged immediately
before'the off day is of 3 hours. Play A
is for less than 1xh hours.
46. What is the time duration of Play
B?
(l)21/5> hours (2) 2 hours
(3) 1 hour (4) '/£ hour
(5) None of these
47. Which day is the off day?
(1) Tuesday (2) Monday
(3) Friday (4) Saturday
(5) Cannot be determined
48. Which of the following combinations
of Play - Day - Time Duration
is correct ?
(1) E - Wednesday - 2 hours
(2) A - Tuesday - 1 hour
(3) C - Thursday - 1 lh hours
(4) F - Tuesday - 3 hours
(5) None is correct
49. On which day is Play D staged?
(1) Wednesday (2) Saturday
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday
(5) Cannot be determined
50. How many plays are staged before
the off day?
(l)Two (2) One
(3) Five (4) Three
(5) None of these
Directions (51-52): Keeping all
the other information the same, if D is
staged on Monday, then
51. A play of what time duration
would be staged on Thursday?
(1)2 hours (2) 2'/4 hours
(3) 1 hour (4) 3 hours
(5) Cannot be determined
52. Which day would be the off day?
(1) Tuesday (2) Monday
(3) Friday (4) Saturday
(5) Cannot be determined
Directions (53-60) : Study the
following information to answer the
given questions:
In a certain code 'it is rush hour
traffic' is written as 'sa le do mi ru' 'go
to school' is written as 'be no pa', 'one
hour to go' is written as 'mi fi pa be',
'rush to one' is written as 'fi be sa!
and 'traffic is fine* is written as 'ga ru
do'.
53. 'ru be wa' would mean—
(1) is to way (2) traffic is to
(3) way is traffic
(4) to traffic way
(5) Cannot be determined
54. What is the code for 'school' ?
( l ) do (2)ru
(3) be (4) pa
(5) None of these
55. What is the code for Tine' ?
( l ) ga (2)ru
(3) pa (4) do
(5) None of these
56. Which of the following represents
'school hour go fine' ?
(1) pa be fi ga (2) no mi ra pa
(3) pa no ga mi (4) ga no mi le
(5) None of these
57. 'mi fi le' would mean —
(1) it one to (2) to rush one
(3) rush hour it (4) it one hour
(5) None is correct
58. What does 'sa' stand for?
(l)rush (2) traffic
(3) it (4) is
(5) None of these
59. Which of the following may represent
'traffic is for one hour' ?
(1) fiye no mi ru
(2) fi le do mi ru
(3) fi ye do mi ru
(4) fi so do mi ro
(5) None of these
60. What does'do'stand for?
(l)hour (2)'is'or'traffic'
(3) it (4) is
(5) None of these
Directions (61-70) : In each of the questions given below which one of
the five answer figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on
the left, if the sequence were continued?
Problem Figures Answer Figures
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
70.
Directions (71-75) : In each of these questions there are two sets of
figures. The figures on the left are Problem Figures (four figures and one question-
marked space) and those on the right are Answer Figures indicated by
numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). A series is established if one of the five Answer
Figures is placed at the "question-marked space". Question Figures form a series
if they change from left to right according to some rule. The number of the
Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the
answer. All the five figures i.e. four Problem Figures and one Answer Figure
placed in the question-marked space should be considered as forming the series.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
85. 2439.97 - 1234.01 + 401.99
= ? + 989.99
(1) 620 (2) 650
(3) 680 (4) 700
(5) 600
Directions (86 - 90): What will
come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following number series?
86. 28 39 63 102 158 (?)
(1) 232 (2) 242
(3) 233 (4) 244
(5) None of these
87. 7 16 141 190 919 (?)
(1) 1029 . (2) 1019
(3) 1020 (4) 1030
(5) None of these
88. 12 17 32, 57 92 (?)
(1) 198 (2) 195
(3) 137 (4) 205
(5) None of these
89. 19 25 45 87 159 (?)
(1) 254 (2) 279
(3) 284 (4) 269
(5) None of these
90. 83 124 206 370 698 (?)
(1) 1344 (2) 1324
(3) 1364 (4) 1334
(5) None of these
Directions (91 - 95): In the following
questions two equations numbered
I and II are given. You have to
solve both the equations and
Give answer (1) if x > y
Give answer (2) if x > y
Give answer (3) if x < y
Give answer (4) if x < y
Give answer (5) if x = y or the
relationship cannot be established
96. The respective ratio between the
present ages of son, mother, father
and grandfather is 2:7:8:12.
The average age of son and
mother is 27 years. What will be
mother's age after 7 years?
(1) 40 years (2) 41 years
(3) 48 years (4) 49 years
(5) None of these
97. In an examination Raman scored
25 marks less than Rohit. Rohit
scored 45 more marks than
Sonia. Rohan scored 75 marks
which is 10 more than Sonia.
Ravi's score is 50 less than maximum
marks of the test. What approximate
percentage of marks
did Ravi score in the examination
if he gets 34 marks more than
Raman?
(1) 90 (2) 70
(3) 80 (4) 60
(5) 85
98. The largest and the smallest
angles of a triangle are in the ratio
of 3:1 respectively. The second
largest angle of the triangle
is equal to 44°. What is the value
of 150 per cent of the largest
angle of the triangle?
(1) 149 (2) 129
(3) 153 (4) 173
(5) None of these
99. One of the angles of a quadrilateral
is thrice the smaller angle of
a parallelogram. The respective
ratio between the adjacent angles
of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining
three angles of the
quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9
respectively. What is the sum of
the largest and the smallest angles
of the quadrilateral?
(1)255° (2)260°
(3) 265° (4) 270°
(5) None of these
100. An aeroplane flies with an average
speed of 756 km/hr. A helicopter
takes 48 hours to cover
twice the distance covered by
aeroplane in 9 hours. How much
distance will the helicopter cover
in 18 hours? (assuming that
flights are non-stop and moving
with uniform speed)
(1)5014 km (2) 5140 km
(3)5130 km (4) 5103 km
(5) None of these
101. The circumference of a semicircle
of area 1925 sq. cm is equal to
the breadth of a rectangle. If the
length of the rectangle is equal to
the perimeter of a square of side
48 cm. What is the perimeter of
the rectangle?
(1) 734 cm
(2) 754 cm
(3) 745 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
102. Meera purchased an item for
` 62,000 and sold it at loss of 25
percent. With that amount she
purchased another item and sold
it at a gain of 30 percent. What
was her overall gain/loss ?
(1) Loss of `1560
(2) Profit of` 1560
(3) Loss of` 1550
(4) Profit of` 1550
(5) None of these
103. Sum of two numbers is equal to
sum of square of 11 and cube of
9. Larger number is (5)2 less than
square of 25. What is the value
of the sum of twice of 24 percent
of the smaller number and half
of the larger number?
(1) 415 (2) 400
(3) 410 (4) 425
(5) None of these
104. The difference between the sum
of four consecutive odd numbers
and three consecutive even
numbers together is 20. Also, the
largest even number is 5 more
than the largest odd number.
What is the sum of the smallest
odd number and the smallest
even number ?
(1)75 (2)77
(3) 85
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
105. The simple interest accrued on a
sum of certain principal is (- 6500
in eight years at the rate of 13
per cent per year. What would
be the compound interest accrued
on that principal at the rate
of 8 per cent per year in 2 years?
(1) ` 1040 (2) ` 1020
(3) ` 1060 (4) ` 1200
(5) None of these

Directions (106-110): Study the table carefully to answer the questions
that follow:
Production of two types of items by four different companies in six
different months
Company K L M N
Months Type-1 Type-2 Type-1 Type-2 Type-1 Type-2 Type-1 Type-2
January 234 452 432 654 434 324 435 564
February 545 543 534 335 532 450 652 544
March 756 670 864 654 765 565 564 765
April 634 765 643 454 665 933 875 809
May 568 656 789 654 424 666 565 544
June 875 426 908 767 568 958 574 546
106. In which month was the difference
between number of items
of type-1 produced by company -
M and number of items of type-2
produced by company-N second
lowest ?
(1) January
(2) February
(3) March (4) April
(5) May
107. What was the average number of
items of type-2 produced by all
the companies together in the
month of January ?
(1) 498.5 (2) 489.5
108.
(3) 469.5 (4) 496.5
(5) None of these
What was the respective ratio between
the number of items of
type-2 produced by Company-M
in the month of May and the number
of items of type-1 produced
by Company-L in the month of
March?
109. Number of items of type-1 produced
by company-N in the
monih April was approximately
what percentage of number of
items of type-2 produced by
Company-M in the month of
March?
(1) 145 (2) 150
(3) 140 (4) 160'
(5) 154
110. What was the approximate percent
decreasein number of items
of type-2 that Company-K produced
in the month of June as
compared to previous month?
(1)30 (2)25
(3) 22 (4) 40
(5) 35
Directions (111-115) : Study
the following graph carefully to answer
the questions that follow :
Number of Candidates (in thousands)
who qualified in an exam in
three different states in six
different years
111. If 40 per cent of the candidates
who qualified in the exam from
state-P in the year 2009 were
females then what was the sum
of number of male candidates
who qualified from State-P in the
year 2009 and the number of
candidates who qualified in the
exam from state-R in the year
2007 ?
(1)91,000 (2) 9.1 lacs
(3) 93,000 (4) 9.3 lacs
(5) None of these
112. What was the respective ratio between
the number of candidates
who qualified in the exam from
state-R in the year 2008 and the
number of candidates who qualified
in the exam from state-P in
the year 2004 ?
(1)11:10 (2)9:11
(3)11:7 (4)11:9
(5) None of these
113. Total number of candidates who
qualified in the exam in the year
2004 and 2005 together from
state- Q was approximately
what percentage of total number
of candidates who qualified in
the exam from all the states together
in the year 2007 ?
(1)61 (2)65
(3) 79 (4) 69
(5)74
114. What was difference between the
total number of candidates who
qualified in the exam from all the
states together in the year 2006
and the total number of candidates
who qualified in the exam
from State-P over all the years
together?
(1) 1.2 lacs (2) 11,000
(3) 1.1 lacs (4) 12,000
(5) None of these
115. What was approximate percentage
decrease in number of candidates
who qualified in the exam
from State-Q in year 2007 as
compared to the previous year?
(1) 45 (2) 55
~ (3) 50 (4) 60
(5) 30
Directions (116 - 120): Study
the following Pie-chart carefully to answer
these questions.
Monthly expenditure of a boy
= 7 8500
Percentage of Monthly
Expenditure
116. The boy deposits 75 percent of
his savings in a bank. What
amount is left with him after depositing
money from his savings?
(1)` 220 (2)` 160
(3)` 210 (4)` 170
(5) None of these
117. If 20 per cent of'other expense'
of the boy is on mobile phone,
70 percent on smoking and remaining
on gambling, then what
is the amount he spends on
smoking and gambling together ?
(1)` 942 (2)` 940
(3) ` 952 (4) ` 960
(5) None of these
118. What is the difference between
the boy's total expenditure on
books and food together and his
expenditure on fees ?
(1)` 255 (2)` 260
(3) ` 275 (4) ` 250
(5) None of these
119. What is the boy's average expense
on travelling, books, fees
and food together?
(1) ` 1657.50
(2) ` 1675.50
(3) ` 1757.50
(4) ` 1775.50
(5) None of these
120. Expense of the boy on travelling
is approximately what per cent
of his expense on fees?
(1)48 (2)50
(3) 42 (4) 55
(5) 35
Directions (121-125): Study the
following table carefully to answer the
questions that follow:
Number of Passengers (in hundreds)
travelling in five trains on
six different days
Train A B C D E
Day
Monday 4.55 4.38 4.64 7.73 7.68
Tuesday 3.54 6.34 6.90 5.82 5.59
Wednesday 7.65 2.79 7.23 5.64 6.28
Thursday 6.75 8.65 7.83 9.74 8.83
Friday 5.78 9.50 8.91 8.16 6.54
Saturday 3.48 5.39 9.84 9.92 10.9
121. What is the difference between
the total number of passengers
travelling in Train-C on Thursday
and Saturday together and
the number of passengers travelling
in Train-E on Saturday?
(1) 667 (2) 676
(3) 687 (4) 686
(5) None of these
122. What is the approximate per
cent increase in the number of
passengers travelling in Train-B
on Tuesday as compared to the
previous day?
(1)49 (2)52
(3) 59 (4) 53
(5) 45
123. In which train the number of passengers
travelling consistently increases
from Monday to Saturday?
(DA (2)B
(3) C (4) D
(5)E
124. If four-eleventh of the number of
passengers in Train-C on Friday
is travelling without ticket, then
what is the number of passengers
having tickets?
(1)567 (2)546
(3) 576 (4) 564
(5) None of these
125. Total number of passengers travelling
in train C and E together
on Thursday is approximately
what per cent of the number of
passengers travelling in train-D
on Saturday?
(1) 151 (2) 155
(3) 168 (4) 174
(5) 162

GENERAL AWARENESS
AND COMPUTERS
126. The report of the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG) on which
of the following issues was
presented in the Lok Sabha recently?
(1) BOFORSDeal
(2) Purchasing of Fighter planes
(3) 2G Spectrum Allocation
(4) Constitution of UIDAI and expenditure
on its activities
(5) All of these
127. As per newspaper reports, USA
and many other countries are supporting
India's bid for a permanent
seat in
(1) World Trade Organisation
(2) World Bank
(3) IMF
(4) UN Security Council
(5) None of these
128. The External Affairs Minister of
India recently represented India
in Russia, India and China trilateral
meet. The meeting took place
in
(1) New Delhi (2) Moscow
(3) Wuhan (4) Beijing
(5) Saint Petersburg
129. Which of the following is not an
objective of the Jawaharlal Nehru
National Urban Renewal Mission?
(1) Development of urban infrastructure
(2) inclusive growth of cities
(3) Provide safe1 drinking water to
all
(4) Provide improved public transport
(5) Provide 100 days employment
to all eligible persons
130. Which of the following is introduced
by banks to increase financial
inclusion?
(1) Stimulus package
(2) Internet Banking
(3) Business correspondent
(4) Corporate Banking
(5) None of these
131. Which of the following is a type
of banking application which
authorises a bank to block a specific
sum of money in an
individual's bank account to be
invested in an Initial Public Offer
(IPO) ?
(l)RTGS (2)ASBA
(3) Prefunded Cheques
(4) SCSBs
(5) None of these
132. The Reserve Bank of India recently
advised the Government of
India to spend and loosen the
strings of its purse. How will this
benefit the banking and finance
sector ?
(A) It will ease liquidity crisis in
the market.
(B) It will help banks borrow less
from the RBI.
(C) It will bring down inflation.
(1) Only (A) and (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
133. The USA and South Korea signed
a Free Trade Agreement recently.
How will these agreements
help the countries?
(A) This will enable USA to import
as much goods as it
wishes.
(B) This would increase the US
exports to South Korea.
(C) This will help both of them to
maintain balance of payment
in order.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B)and (C)
134. Who amongst the following Indian
badminton players won 5 finals
i.e. Chennai Open, Singapore
. Open, Indonesian Open, Commonwealth
Games and Hong
Kong Open in 2010 ?
(1) SainaNehwal
(2) ChetanAnand
(3) Jwala Gutta
(4) Aparna Popat
(5) Anup Sridhar
135. Which of the following awards is
given by UNESCO ?
(1) Kalinga Prize
(2) Oscar Award
(3) Man Booker Prize
(4) Pulitzer Prize
(5) None of these
136. Kiran Kumar Reddy has taken
over as the new Chief Minister of
(l)Orissa (2) Karnataka
(3) Jharkhand (4) Maharashtra
(5) Andhra Pradesh
137. Which of the following schemes
was NOT launched by the Government
of India specifically to
remove poverty in rural areas and
improve the general living standard
of the people in India?
(1) Bharat Nirman
(2) Panchsheel
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Yqjana
(4) TRYSEM
(5) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
138. The rate of interest charged by
RBI for lending money to various
commercial banks by rediscounting
of the bills in India is called
(1) Exchange Rate
(2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(3) Cash Reserve Ratio
(4) Bank Rate
(5) Interest Rate
139. Which of the following Diamond
mining companies has recently
got a permit to explore Diamond
at Mahabubnagar in Andhra
Pradesh ?
(1) Alrosa
(2) Debswana
(3) National Diamond Mining
Company
(4) De Beers
(5) Diamond Trading Company
140. FIFA World Cup 2018 will be
organised in which of the following
countries?
(1) Russia (2) Germany
(3) Brazil (4) France
(5) Italy
141. Which of the following agreements
got signed by 193 countries
recently in Cancun ?
(1) Climate Agreement
(2) World Trade Organisation
Agreement on Farm Subsidy
(3) OPEC Agreement on Pricing
Mechanism
(4) World Bank's Agreement on
Bailout Packages
(5) None of these
142. Excise Duty is levied on which
of the following?
(1) Agro products
(2) Imported goods
(3) Manufacturing of goods
(4) Services provided by hotels
and travel agents
(5) All of these
143. The Five Year Plan 2007 to 2012
is
(1) Tenth Five Year Plan
(2) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(3) Twelfth Five Year Plan
(4) Ninth'Five Year Pian
(5) There is no such plan period
144. Karim Benzema, Ronaldo and
Gonzalo Higuain are three names
famous for their performance in
the field of
(1) Cinema (2) Sports
(3) Literature (4) Journalism
(5) Politics
145. US welcomes TAPI gas pipeline
agreement was the news in some
newspapers. Which of the following
countries is not a partner
in TAPI project?
(1) India (2) Turkey
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Pakistan
(5) All are not part of the project
146. Which of the following countries
is NOT a member of the G-20 ?
(1) South Korea
(2) Brazil (3) China
(4) USA {5} Iran
147. Wen Jiabao was recently on a
state visit to India, He is from
which country ?
(1) Russia (2) South Korea
(3) Japan (4) China
(5) Vietnam
148. Which of the following is/are
true about the recent political developments
in Iraq?
(A) Nuri-al-Malik has taken over
as the new Prime Minister of
the country.
(B) USA has decided to provide
US$ 60,000 crore as initial
budget to restart the economic
activities.
(C) UNO has registered a formal
complaint against few countries
who, invaded Iraqjointly
few years back.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) All (A), (B)and (C)
(5) None of these
149. Who amongst the following is not
a Nobel Prize winning author ?
(1) Orhan Pumuk
(2) Doris Lessing
(3) Octavio Paz
(4) V. S. Naipaul
(5) Anita Desai
150. Who amongst the following is a
famous Badminton player and
has represented India in many
international events ?
(l)SaniaMirza
(2) Baichung Bhutia
(3) Aparna Popat
(4) Dhanraj Pillay
(5) Ishant Sharma
151. When a computer runs a program,
the progresses
through the program's sequence
of instructions.
(1) AMD (2) ASCII
(3) CPU (4) transistor
(5) None of these
152. The computer needs additional
components called to accomplish
its input, output, and
storage functions.
(1) mice (2) specifications
(3) architecture
(4) peripherals
(5) None of these
153. Bytes combined to represent a
named collection of instructions
or data stored in the computer
or digital device is a(n)
(1) digitalization
(2) kilobyte
(3) record
(4) file
(5) None of these
154. is a type of high-speedmemory
that a processor can
access more rapidly than RAM.
(1) Cache memory
(2) Magnetic storage
(3) Read-only memory (ROM)
(4) Solid state storage
(5) None of these
155. To contact people using the
Internet, you most often use their
(1) domain names
(2) e-mail addresses
(3) usemames
(4) passwords
(5) None of these
156. The trend of digital electronic devices
becoming smaller and increasingly
powerful has fully
supported the move to an increasingly
workforce.
(1) desktop (2) intelligent
(3) server (4) mobile
(5) None of these
157. hard drives are permanently
located Inside the system
unit and are not designed to be
removed, unless they need to be
repaired or replaced.
(1) Static . (2) Internal
(3) External (4) Remove .
(5) None of these
158. A barcode is a/an code
that represents data with bars
of varying widths Of heights.
(1) read/write (2) magnetic
(3) optical (4) laser
(5) None of these
159. The Internet allows you to
(1) send electronic mail
(2) view Web pages
(3) connect to servers all around
the world
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
160. The name that the User gives to
a document is referred to as
(1) name given
(2) document given
(3) file name
(4) document identity
(5) none of these
161. Editing a document consists of
reading through the document
you've created, then
(1) correcting your errors
(2) printing it (3) saving it
• ' (4) deleting it (5) None of these
162. Which of the following controls
the manner of interaction between
the user and the operating system
?
(1) User interface
(2) Language translator
(3) Platform
(4) Screen saver
(5) None of these
163. What type of software is most
useful for the creation of brochures,
posters, and newsletters?
(1) Spreadsheet software
(2) Web authoring software
(3) Multimedia authoring software
(4) Desktop publishing software
(5) None of these
164. The quickest and easiest way in
Word, to locate a particular word
or phrase in a document is to use
the command.
(1) Replace (2) Find
(3) Lookup (4) Search
(5) None of these
165. One or more defects or problems
that prevent the software from
working as intended or working
at all is a(n)
(l)bug (2)bot
(3) programming language
(4) fuzzy logic
(5) None of these
166. shows the files, folders,
and drives on your computer, making
it easy to navigate from one
location to another within the file
hierarchy.
(1) Microsoft Internet Explorer
(2) Windows Explorer
(3) My Computer
(4) Folders Manager
(5) None of these
167. A(n) provides commands for
writing software that is translated
to the detailed step-by-step instructions
executed by the processor
to achieve an objective or
solve a problem.
(1) programming language
(2) software patch
(3) presentation language
(4) AI language
(5) None of these
168. A program written in a high level
language is referred to as
(1) source code
(2) object code
(3) machine code
(4) assembly code
(5) none of these
169. In order to save an existing document
with a different name you
need to
(1) Retype the document and give
it a different name
(2) Use the Save as command
(3) Copy and paste the original
. document to a new document
and then save
(4) Use Windows Explorer to copy
the document to a different location
and then rename it
(5) None of these
170. The piece of hardware that converts
your computer's digital signal
to an analog signal that can
travel over telephone lines is
called a
(1) red wire (2) blue cord
(3) tower (4) modem
(5) None of these
171. is the part of the computer
that does the arithmetical calculations.
(1) Memory (2) OS
(3) CPU (4) ALU
(5) None of these
172. A can make it easier to play
games.
(1) mouse (2) J oystick
(3) keyboard (4) pen
(5) None of these
173. File extensions are used in order
to
(1) name the file
(2) ensure the filename is not lost
(3) identify the file
(4) identify the file type
(5) None of these
174. Passwords enable users to
(1) get into the system quickly
(2) make efficient use of time
(3) retain confidentiality of files
(4) simplify file structures
(5) None of these
175. In page preview mode
(1) You can see all pages of your
document
(2) You can only see the page you
are currently working on
(3) You can only see pages that
do not contain graphics
(4) You can only see the title page
of your document
(5) None of these

Last edited by Aakashd; June 3rd, 2019 at 10:27 AM.
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  #2  
Old October 14th, 2015, 02:48 PM
Unregistered
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Default Re: Previous Paper for UCO Bank PO exam

I have applied for UCO Bank PO exam and for the preparation of this exam I want the previous year question papers so can you provide me?
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  #3  
Old October 14th, 2015, 03:38 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2013
Default Re: Previous Paper for UCO Bank PO exam

Ok, as you want the previous year question papers of UCO Bank PO exam so here I am providing you.

UCO Bank PO exam question paper

General Awareness

Q.1. Recently, U.S. has approved the sale of eight Boeing P-8I Maritime Petrol Aircraft. What is its cost?

a) $ 2.1 bn b) $ 1.5 bn c) $ 3 bn d) $ 2.5 bn e) None of these

Q.2. When was LIC established?

a) 1972 b) 1956 c) 1974 d) 1966 e) None of these

Q.3. Who was defeated by Babar in 1st Battle of Panipat (1526 A.D.)?

a) Ibrahim Lodhi b)MahmoodLodhi c)RanaSanga d) Akbar e) None of these

Q.4. Which of the following country will open a Commercial Investment Office in India?

a) Russia b) China c) Chile d) Brazil e) None of these

Q.5. Where "FifthWorldWater Forum" took place?

a) Turkey b) Japan c) Russia d) China e) None of these

Q.6. Singapore will host the 15thWorld Conference on Tobacco or Health in----------

a) 2010 b) 2014 c) 2015 d) 2012 e) None of these


UCO Bank PO exam question paper







for more questions here is the attachment
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf UCO Bank PO exam question paper.pdf (1.07 MB, 17 views)
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Last edited by Aakashd; August 9th, 2018 at 11:03 AM.
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  #4  
Old May 6th, 2020, 12:15 PM
N.Nalini
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Default Improvement exam

Good morning Sir,
I got 53.9% in M.Com exam now i want to improvement, please inform me the procedure to write improvement exam.
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