NET Law (Paper-II) Exam Previous Years Question Papers

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LAW
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Requirement of ‘reasonableness’
runs like a golden thread through
the entire fabric of fundamental
rights is held in
(A) Keshavananda Bharthi V.
State of Kerala
(B) Indra Sawhney V. Union of
India
(C) Vishaka V. State of
Rajasthan
(D) Maneka Gandhi V. Union
of India
2. ‘Right to life’ does not include
‘right to die’. It has been held in
case of
(A) P. Rathinam V. Union of
India
(B) Bandhua Mukti Morcha V.
Union of India
(C) A.K. Gopalan V. State of
Madras
(D) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
3. Fundamental Rights are
(A) Unrestricted Rights
(B) Absolute Rights
(C) Restricted Rights
(D) None of the above
4. Right against ‘Double Jeopardy’ is
guaranteed under
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 20(1)
(C) Article 20(2)
(D) Article 22(1)
5. Assertion (A) : An accused
person cannot be compelled
to give his thumb
impression, except for
comparison.
Reason (R) : It amounts to
self incrimination.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true
and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
6. Which of the following writ can be
issued against the usurpation of
Public Office ?
(A) Writ of Mandamus
(B) Writ of Certiorari
(C) Writ of Quo warranto
(D) Writ of Prohibition
7. Consider the following statements :
I. Equitable ownership always
pre-supposes the existence of a
legal ownership.
II. When property is given by A
to B for the benefit of C, B
becomes the legal owner and
C the equitable owner.
III. In many cases, equity
recognizes ownership whereas
law does not recognize
ownership owing to some flaw
or defect.
IV. Contingent ownership is spes
successionis
Codes :
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I and II are correct
(D) III and IV are correct

8. Assertion (A) : Ownership is
not only a juridical concept
but also a social concept
and an instrument of social
policy.
Reason (R) : The right of
alienation is not a necessary
incident of ownership.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9. H.L.A. Hart is a
(A) Linguistic philosopher
(B) Realist philosopher
(C) Socialist philosopher
(D) Post-modernist philosopher
10. Match List – I with List – II and
select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Theories) (Jurists)
I. The general
will theory
1. Kelsen
II. Justice as
common good
2. Ihering
III. Law as a
means to
achieve social
ends
3. Rousseau
IV. Grundnorm
theory
4. Finnis
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
11. X, plaintiff found a parcel of notes
on the floor of Y, the defendant’s
shop. Who is in possession of notes ?
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Government
(D) Both X and Y
12. Consider the names of the
following natural law jurists :
I. Morris II. Stammler
III. Rawls IV. Jerome Hall
The chronological order in which
these jurists appeared on the scene :
(A) IV, II, I and III
(B) I, III, II and IV
(C) III, II, IV and I
(D) II, III, I and IV
13. Which of the following is principal
organ of the United Nations ?
(A) Human Rights Committee
(B) Economic and Social
Council
(C) International Labour
Organization
(D) International Law
Association
14. India is not a party to
(A) International Covenant on
Economic, Social and
Cultural Rights, 1966.
(B) International Covenant on
Civil and Political Rights,
1966.
(C) Optional Protocol to
International Covenant on
Civil and Political Rights,
1966.
(D) Convention on Elimination
of Discrimination against
Women (CEDAW), 1979.

15. Treaty, in principle, binds the
States parties to the treaty. A State
becomes party to the treaty by
(A) signing the treaty
(B) ratifying or acceding to the
treaty
(C) enacting domestic
legislation to implement the
treaty
(D) enforcing the treaty by way
of conduct
16. Which of the following can request
the International Court of Justice to
give an advisory opinion ?
(A) State
(B) General Assembly
(C) International Law
Commission
(D) Individual
17. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
and with the help of codes given
below, point out the correct
answer.
Assertion (A) : To promote and
encourage respect for human
rights is one of the purposes of
the United Nations.
Reason (R) : The Charter of
United Nations conceptualizes,
substantiates and spells out
human rights which are to be
promoted by the member
States.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is good explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not a correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
18. Match the statement in List – I
with its author in List – II and with
the help of codes given below,
point out the correct answer.
List – I List – II
(Statement) (Author)
I. International law is
not true law but
positive international
morality.
1. John
Austin
II. International
customary law is
deemed
automatically to be
part of common law.
2. William
Blackstone
III. Opino juris sive
necessitatis is not a
condition precedent
for the existence of
international custom.
3. Michael
Akehurst
IV. General Assembly
Resolutions, in
general, do not create
legal obligation to
comply with them but
a resolution
recommending to an
administering State a
specific course of
action creates some
legal obligation.
4. Hersch
Lauterpacht
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
19. According to Muslim law,
marriage is not solemnized only for
the sexual enjoyment between two
spouses, it is an act of ibadat.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true and partly false
(D) None of the above

20. Which of the following is not a
ground for Divorce under Hindu
Marriage Act ?
(A) Cruelty
(B) Desertion
(C) Adultery
(D) Incompatible
Temperamental Adjustment
21. Children born out of a union which
is either void or voidable under
Sections 11 & 12 of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 shall be
(A) Bastard
(B) Deemed to be legitimate
(C) Illegitimate
(D) Legitimate
22. A. Nikah is a regular and
permanent form of marriage
among Muslims.
R. Muta is contractual form of
marriage and is most
uncommon in India.
(A) A and R above are correct.
(B) A is correct, R is false.
(C) R is correct, but A is wrong.
(D) Neither A is correct nor R is
correct.
23. Which of the following is not a
ground for divorce under the
Dissolution of Muslim Marriage
Act, 1939 ?
(A) Treating the wife with cruelty.
(B) That the whereabouts of the
Husband have not been
known for a period for more
than four years.
(C) The Husband has been
sentenced to imprisonment
for a period of two years or
upwards.
(D) That the husband has been
insane for a period of two
years or more.
24. Any Hindu Marriage which is not
properly solemnized, it shall be
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Void ab-initio
(D) None of the above
25. An acceptance given by post
(A) can be revoked at any time
(B) cannot be revoked at all
(C) can be revoked, if it does
not reach to the proposer
(D) can be revoked, even if it
comes to the knowledge of
proposer
26. A promise to pay time barred debt
is
(A) not enforceable
(B) enforceable at the discretion
of debtor
(C) enforceable under exception
(D) none of the above
27. Which of the following statements
is correct ?
(A) Third party can always sue
for breach of contract.
(B) Wagering agreements are
illegal.
(C) When consent is not free,
agreement will always be
voidable.
(D) Catalogue is an invitation to
offer.
28. Two statements are given in this
question. One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). Examine
these statements and select the
correct combination of the codes.
Assertion (A) : Partial
acceptance is not acceptance.
Reason (R) : Acceptance
must be absolute and
unconditional.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
wrong.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is
correct.

29. A counter offer is
(A) an invitation to offer
(B) an acceptance to offer
(C) a rejection of the offer
(D) a conditional acceptance
30. An agreement with minor is void,
hence
(A) Minor is never allowed to
enforce such agreement.
(B) Minor is allowed to enforce
such agreement, if it was
made for his benefit.
(C) Minor is always allowed to
enforce such agreement.
(D) Minor is allowed to enforce
such contract when other
party makes no objection.
31. Tort is a violation of
(A) Right in personam
(B) Right in rem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
32. Which of the following is not
correctly matched ?
(A) ubi Jus ibi
remedium
– where there is a
right there is a
remedy
(B) res ipsa
loquitur
– things speak for
themselves
(C) damnum
sine
injuria
– damage without
injury
(D) injuria
sine
damnum
– injury with
damage
33. Limitations on the scope of the
doctrine volenti non-fit injuria are
(A) Rescue cases
(B) Statutory authority
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
34. Injustice would manifest itself if a
person is held responsible for all
consequences of his act. Therefore
he is responsible only for
consequences not too
(A) Remote
(B) Near
(C) In and around
(D) Far sighted
35. A. Law of Torts is concerned
with allocation and
distribution of losses and
awarding compensation to the
victim.
R. This is a branch of law
governing actions for
damages for injuries to
private legal rights.
(A) A is correct, but R is wrong.
(B) R is correct, but A is wrong.
(C) Both A and R are correct.
(D) Both A and R are wrong.
36. A. The consequences of a
wrongful act may be endless
or there may be
consequences of
consequences.
R. The ‘Test of reasonable
foresight’ is followed usually
in such cases which is based
on the Wagen Mound case.
(A) A is correct, but R is wrong.
(B) R is correct, but A is wrong.
(C) Both A and R are correct.
(D) Both A and R are wrong.
37. Conspiracy is an offence having
mens rea without any actus rea ?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Depends upon circumstances
(D) Depends upon judicial
discretion
38. The right of private defence is
available to
(A) The aggressor
(B) The person who has
attacked
(C) The aggressor and the
victim
(D) The act done in defence of a
person who was attacked

39. In abetment of an offence can be
constituted by
(A) Instigation
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Intentional aid
(D) All the above
40. Buggery is an offence against
(A) Having carnal knowledge
with a woman.
(B) Offence committed without
use of force.
(C) Depravity against natural
order of sex.
(D) Manipulation and
movement of male organ.
41. Illicit intercourse implies
(A) Rape
(B) Prostitution
(C) Sex between two persons
not united by lawful
marriage
(D) Sex with a sleeping woman
42. A police officer arrested and
detained a girl in the lock-up
despite bail order. The police
officer shall be guilty of
(A) Kidnapping
(B) Abduction
(C) Intimidation
(D) Wrongful confinement
43. Assertion (A) : Priest in a
temple is a workman for the
purposes of the Industrial
Disputes Act.
Reason (R) : He cannot be
considered as a workman as
he is not doing any manual
or clerical services to the
devotees of the temple.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
44. Consider the following judicial
decision on the meaning of
industry :
I. Indian Red Cross Society V.
Additional Labour Court,
Chandigarh.
II. Dhanrajgiri Hospital V.
Workmen.
III. State of Punjab V. Kuldeep
Singh.
IV. Prema Govinda V.
Karnataka Small Scale
Industries Association,
Bangalore.
The correct order in which these
judicial decisions were rendered is
(A) II, III, I and IV
(B) III, II, IV and I
(C) IV, III, I and II
(D) II, I, III and IV
45. Consider the following statements
on industrial dispute.
I. Industrial dispute will subsist
inspite of closure of industry.
II. An industrial dispute can arise
when a demand is made by
the workman and denied by
the employer.
III. Once a dispute is referred for
adjudication, the presumption
is that it is an industrial
dispute.
IV. Employer’s failure to keep his
verbal assurances is an
industrial dispute.
Codes :
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) III and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.

46. Unfair labour practices mean any
of the practices specified in the
(A) Fourth Schedule of the
Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Fifth Schedule of the
Industrial Disputes Act
(C) Sixth Schedule of the
Industrial Disputes Act
(D) Third Schedule of the
Industrial Disputes Act
47. Which of the following is not a
leading case on immunity of trade
unions from criminal proceedings ?
(A) Jay Engineering Works Ltd.
V. State of West Bengal.
(B) Standard Chartered
Grindlays Bank Ltd. V.
Grindlays Bank Employees.
(C) Onkarnath Tiwari V. Chief
Engineer, Minor Irrigation
Department.
(D) Piperaich Sugar Mills Ltd.
48. Which of the following pairs are
not matched ?
(A) Individual
dispute
whether
industrial
dispute
– Newspapers
Ltd.
Allahabad
V. Industrial
Tribunal.
(B) Meaning of
Employer
– Western
Automobile
Association
V. Industrial
Tribunal.
(C) Solicitor’s
professionnot
an
industry
– National
Union of
Commercial
Employees
V. Industrial
Tribunal.
(D) Go-Slow as
a serious
case of
misconduct
– Bijay
Cotton Mills
V.
Workmen.
Read the following paragraph and
answer the Question Nos. 49 and 50.
Protection of society and stamping out
criminal proclivity must be the object of
Law, which must be achieved by imposing
appropriate sentence. Therefore, law as a
cornerstone of the edifice of “order”
should meet the challenges confronting the
society. In operating the sentencing system
law should adopt the corrective machinery
or the deterrence based on factual matrix.
By deft modulation sentencing process be
stern where it should be and tempered with
mercy where it warrants to be. The facts
and given circumstances in each case, the
nature of crime, the manner in which it
was planned and committed, the motive
for the commission of crime, the conduct
of the accused, the nature of weapons used
and all other attending circumstances are
relevant facts which would enter into the
area of consideration.
49. What is the object of law ?
(A) Safeguarding individual
interests.
(B) Permitting the individual to
earn and become rich.
(C) Protection of society and
stamping out criminal
proclivity.
(D) None of the above.
50. While imposing sentence what are
the relevant considerations ?
(A) The nature of crime only
(B) The manner in which it was
planned and committed only
(C) The motive for the
commission of crime only
(D) All the above are relevant
considerations

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