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Will you please provide me the NET Law (Paper-II) Exam Previous Years Question Papers????????
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As per your request here I am sharing the NET Law (Paper-II) Exam Previous Years Question Paper: LAW Paper – II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions. 1. Requirement of ‘reasonableness’ runs like a golden thread through the entire fabric of fundamental rights is held in (A) Keshavananda Bharthi V. State of Kerala (B) Indra Sawhney V. Union of India (C) Vishaka V. State of Rajasthan (D) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India 2. ‘Right to life’ does not include ‘right to die’. It has been held in case of (A) P. Rathinam V. Union of India (B) Bandhua Mukti Morcha V. Union of India (C) A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras (D) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab 3. Fundamental Rights are (A) Unrestricted Rights (B) Absolute Rights (C) Restricted Rights (D) None of the above 4. Right against ‘Double Jeopardy’ is guaranteed under (A) Article 21 (B) Article 20(1) (C) Article 20(2) (D) Article 22(1) 5. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression, except for comparison. Reason (R) : It amounts to self incrimination. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 6. Which of the following writ can be issued against the usurpation of Public Office ? (A) Writ of Mandamus (B) Writ of Certiorari (C) Writ of Quo warranto (D) Writ of Prohibition 7. Consider the following statements : I. Equitable ownership always pre-supposes the existence of a legal ownership. II. When property is given by A to B for the benefit of C, B becomes the legal owner and C the equitable owner. III. In many cases, equity recognizes ownership whereas law does not recognize ownership owing to some flaw or defect. IV. Contingent ownership is spes successionis Codes : (A) I, II and III are correct (B) II and III are correct (C) I and II are correct (D) III and IV are correct 8. Assertion (A) : Ownership is not only a juridical concept but also a social concept and an instrument of social policy. Reason (R) : The right of alienation is not a necessary incident of ownership. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 9. H.L.A. Hart is a (A) Linguistic philosopher (B) Realist philosopher (C) Socialist philosopher (D) Post-modernist philosopher 10. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II (Theories) (Jurists) I. The general will theory 1. Kelsen II. Justice as common good 2. Ihering III. Law as a means to achieve social ends 3. Rousseau IV. Grundnorm theory 4. Finnis Codes : I II III IV (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 3 4 2 1 11. X, plaintiff found a parcel of notes on the floor of Y, the defendant’s shop. Who is in possession of notes ? (A) X (B) Y (C) Government (D) Both X and Y 12. Consider the names of the following natural law jurists : I. Morris II. Stammler III. Rawls IV. Jerome Hall The chronological order in which these jurists appeared on the scene : (A) IV, II, I and III (B) I, III, II and IV (C) III, II, IV and I (D) II, III, I and IV 13. Which of the following is principal organ of the United Nations ? (A) Human Rights Committee (B) Economic and Social Council (C) International Labour Organization (D) International Law Association 14. India is not a party to (A) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1966. (B) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966. (C) Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966. (D) Convention on Elimination of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), 1979. 15. Treaty, in principle, binds the States parties to the treaty. A State becomes party to the treaty by (A) signing the treaty (B) ratifying or acceding to the treaty (C) enacting domestic legislation to implement the treaty (D) enforcing the treaty by way of conduct 16. Which of the following can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion ? (A) State (B) General Assembly (C) International Law Commission (D) Individual 17. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct answer. Assertion (A) : To promote and encourage respect for human rights is one of the purposes of the United Nations. Reason (R) : The Charter of United Nations conceptualizes, substantiates and spells out human rights which are to be promoted by the member States. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is good explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 18. Match the statement in List – I with its author in List – II and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct answer. List – I List – II (Statement) (Author) I. International law is not true law but positive international morality. 1. John Austin II. International customary law is deemed automatically to be part of common law. 2. William Blackstone III. Opino juris sive necessitatis is not a condition precedent for the existence of international custom. 3. Michael Akehurst IV. General Assembly Resolutions, in general, do not create legal obligation to comply with them but a resolution recommending to an administering State a specific course of action creates some legal obligation. 4. Hersch Lauterpacht Codes : I II III IV (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 2 3 1 19. According to Muslim law, marriage is not solemnized only for the sexual enjoyment between two spouses, it is an act of ibadat. (A) True (B) False (C) Partly true and partly false (D) None of the above 20. Which of the following is not a ground for Divorce under Hindu Marriage Act ? (A) Cruelty (B) Desertion (C) Adultery (D) Incompatible Temperamental Adjustment 21. Children born out of a union which is either void or voidable under Sections 11 & 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be (A) Bastard (B) Deemed to be legitimate (C) Illegitimate (D) Legitimate 22. A. Nikah is a regular and permanent form of marriage among Muslims. R. Muta is contractual form of marriage and is most uncommon in India. (A) A and R above are correct. (B) A is correct, R is false. (C) R is correct, but A is wrong. (D) Neither A is correct nor R is correct. 23. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 ? (A) Treating the wife with cruelty. (B) That the whereabouts of the Husband have not been known for a period for more than four years. (C) The Husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of two years or upwards. (D) That the husband has been insane for a period of two years or more. 24. Any Hindu Marriage which is not properly solemnized, it shall be (A) Valid (B) Voidable (C) Void ab-initio (D) None of the above 25. An acceptance given by post (A) can be revoked at any time (B) cannot be revoked at all (C) can be revoked, if it does not reach to the proposer (D) can be revoked, even if it comes to the knowledge of proposer 26. A promise to pay time barred debt is (A) not enforceable (B) enforceable at the discretion of debtor (C) enforceable under exception (D) none of the above 27. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) Third party can always sue for breach of contract. (B) Wagering agreements are illegal. (C) When consent is not free, agreement will always be voidable. (D) Catalogue is an invitation to offer. 28. Two statements are given in this question. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Examine these statements and select the correct combination of the codes. Assertion (A) : Partial acceptance is not acceptance. Reason (R) : Acceptance must be absolute and unconditional. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct. 29. A counter offer is (A) an invitation to offer (B) an acceptance to offer (C) a rejection of the offer (D) a conditional acceptance 30. An agreement with minor is void, hence (A) Minor is never allowed to enforce such agreement. (B) Minor is allowed to enforce such agreement, if it was made for his benefit. (C) Minor is always allowed to enforce such agreement. (D) Minor is allowed to enforce such contract when other party makes no objection. 31. Tort is a violation of (A) Right in personam (B) Right in rem (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 32. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) ubi Jus ibi remedium – where there is a right there is a remedy (B) res ipsa loquitur – things speak for themselves (C) damnum sine injuria – damage without injury (D) injuria sine damnum – injury with damage 33. Limitations on the scope of the doctrine volenti non-fit injuria are (A) Rescue cases (B) Statutory authority (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 34. Injustice would manifest itself if a person is held responsible for all consequences of his act. Therefore he is responsible only for consequences not too (A) Remote (B) Near (C) In and around (D) Far sighted 35. A. Law of Torts is concerned with allocation and distribution of losses and awarding compensation to the victim. R. This is a branch of law governing actions for damages for injuries to private legal rights. (A) A is correct, but R is wrong. (B) R is correct, but A is wrong. (C) Both A and R are correct. (D) Both A and R are wrong. 36. A. The consequences of a wrongful act may be endless or there may be consequences of consequences. R. The ‘Test of reasonable foresight’ is followed usually in such cases which is based on the Wagen Mound case. (A) A is correct, but R is wrong. (B) R is correct, but A is wrong. (C) Both A and R are correct. (D) Both A and R are wrong. 37. Conspiracy is an offence having mens rea without any actus rea ? (A) Yes (B) No (C) Depends upon circumstances (D) Depends upon judicial discretion 38. The right of private defence is available to (A) The aggressor (B) The person who has attacked (C) The aggressor and the victim (D) The act done in defence of a person who was attacked 39. In abetment of an offence can be constituted by (A) Instigation (B) Conspiracy (C) Intentional aid (D) All the above 40. Buggery is an offence against (A) Having carnal knowledge with a woman. (B) Offence committed without use of force. (C) Depravity against natural order of sex. (D) Manipulation and movement of male organ. 41. Illicit intercourse implies (A) Rape (B) Prostitution (C) Sex between two persons not united by lawful marriage (D) Sex with a sleeping woman 42. A police officer arrested and detained a girl in the lock-up despite bail order. The police officer shall be guilty of (A) Kidnapping (B) Abduction (C) Intimidation (D) Wrongful confinement 43. Assertion (A) : Priest in a temple is a workman for the purposes of the Industrial Disputes Act. Reason (R) : He cannot be considered as a workman as he is not doing any manual or clerical services to the devotees of the temple. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 44. Consider the following judicial decision on the meaning of industry : I. Indian Red Cross Society V. Additional Labour Court, Chandigarh. II. Dhanrajgiri Hospital V. Workmen. III. State of Punjab V. Kuldeep Singh. IV. Prema Govinda V. Karnataka Small Scale Industries Association, Bangalore. The correct order in which these judicial decisions were rendered is (A) II, III, I and IV (B) III, II, IV and I (C) IV, III, I and II (D) II, I, III and IV 45. Consider the following statements on industrial dispute. I. Industrial dispute will subsist inspite of closure of industry. II. An industrial dispute can arise when a demand is made by the workman and denied by the employer. III. Once a dispute is referred for adjudication, the presumption is that it is an industrial dispute. IV. Employer’s failure to keep his verbal assurances is an industrial dispute. Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) II and III are correct. (C) III and IV are correct. (D) I, II and III are correct. 46. Unfair labour practices mean any of the practices specified in the (A) Fourth Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act (B) Fifth Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act (C) Sixth Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act (D) Third Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act 47. Which of the following is not a leading case on immunity of trade unions from criminal proceedings ? (A) Jay Engineering Works Ltd. V. State of West Bengal. (B) Standard Chartered Grindlays Bank Ltd. V. Grindlays Bank Employees. (C) Onkarnath Tiwari V. Chief Engineer, Minor Irrigation Department. (D) Piperaich Sugar Mills Ltd. 48. Which of the following pairs are not matched ? (A) Individual dispute whether industrial dispute – Newspapers Ltd. Allahabad V. Industrial Tribunal. (B) Meaning of Employer – Western Automobile Association V. Industrial Tribunal. (C) Solicitor’s professionnot an industry – National Union of Commercial Employees V. Industrial Tribunal. (D) Go-Slow as a serious case of misconduct – Bijay Cotton Mills V. Workmen. Read the following paragraph and answer the Question Nos. 49 and 50. Protection of society and stamping out criminal proclivity must be the object of Law, which must be achieved by imposing appropriate sentence. Therefore, law as a cornerstone of the edifice of “order” should meet the challenges confronting the society. In operating the sentencing system law should adopt the corrective machinery or the deterrence based on factual matrix. By deft modulation sentencing process be stern where it should be and tempered with mercy where it warrants to be. The facts and given circumstances in each case, the nature of crime, the manner in which it was planned and committed, the motive for the commission of crime, the conduct of the accused, the nature of weapons used and all other attending circumstances are relevant facts which would enter into the area of consideration. 49. What is the object of law ? (A) Safeguarding individual interests. (B) Permitting the individual to earn and become rich. (C) Protection of society and stamping out criminal proclivity. (D) None of the above. 50. While imposing sentence what are the relevant considerations ? (A) The nature of crime only (B) The manner in which it was planned and committed only (C) The motive for the commission of crime only (D) All the above are relevant considerations Rests of the questions are in the attachment, please click on it……………..
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